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Immunology > Jeopardy (Immunology Final) > Flashcards

Jeopardy (Immunology Final) Flashcards

1
Q

HSV I or II: cold sores

A

HSV I

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2
Q

What is the purpose of running external QC?

A

To ensure the test kit is working properly

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3
Q

What test is most valuable in diagnosing poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

ASO

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4
Q

What is electrophoresis?

A

A testing method in which proteins migrate across a gel when an electrical current is applied

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5
Q

What is active immunity?

A

The process in which the body produces antibodies to an antigen

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6
Q

In what condition do we usually see cryptococcal infections?

A

Immunocompromised

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7
Q

Which immunoglobulin is generally responsible for dealing with parasitic infections?

A

IgE

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8
Q

Why do we see antigenic variation in parasites?

A

They can change their surface antigens

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9
Q

Which parasitic infection is particulary dangerous for pregnant women?

A

Toxoplasmosis

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10
Q

This is the most common fungus that is part of our normal flora and can cause infection in immunocompromised individuals

A

Candida albicans

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11
Q

This anomaly is associated with a deletion of chromosome 22

A

DiGeorge

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12
Q

Deficiancies in lte C’ is associated with what infection?

A

Neisseria meningitides

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13
Q

Contact dermatitis (poison ivy) is typical of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type IV

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14
Q

If you are IgA deficient, what condition might you be more prone to?

A

Allergies

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15
Q

What is the name of the test for TB screening?

A

Quantiferon

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16
Q

What does CRP stand for?

A

C reactive protein

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17
Q

CRP levels rise when what condition exists in the body?

A

Inflammation or severe infection

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18
Q

How many days post-op does CRP generally peak?

A

2 days

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19
Q

Can CRP bind complement?

A

Yes, but must have two molecules of activate and may need Ca++

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20
Q

Acute phase proteins are primarily produced where?

A

Liver (hepatocytes)

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21
Q

Heavy chains are composed of how many chains?

A

2 heavy, 2 light

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22
Q

What is the portion of the immunoglobulin that contains the constant domain and is fragmented crystalline?

A

Fc portion

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23
Q

80% of your serum contains this immunoglobulin

A

IgG

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24
Q

This portion of the immunoglobulin is the site of antigen bonding

A

Fab

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25
Q

The largest immunoglobulin and cannot cross the placenta

A

IgM

26
Q

What is the process by which phagocytic cells are attracted toward a substance such as complement fragment C3a?

A

Chemotaxis

27
Q

The recognition unit contain what complement number

A

C1

28
Q

The activation unit

A

C4, C2, C3

29
Q

The membrane attack unit

A

C5, C6, C7, C8, C9

30
Q

Does the alternate pathway need antibodies for activation?

A

No

31
Q

What does systemic mean?

A

Affects multiple organs

32
Q

What is natural immunity?

A

The process by which all animals resist the invasion of foreign antigens without the production of antibodies

33
Q

The secondary immune response is also called…

A

Anamnestic response

34
Q

Name 1 component of a first line defense

A

Intact skin, mucous membranes, stomach acid, etc.

35
Q

Which lymphocytes are involved in humoral response?

A

B lymphocytes

36
Q

Which lymphocytes are involved in cell-mediated immune response

A

T lymphocytes

37
Q

Immunologic tolerance refers to the situation in which an antigen fails to elicit the formation of antibody (T or F)

A

True

38
Q

Natural or acquired: NK cells

A

Natural

39
Q

Active or natural: immunity produced by vaccination

A

Active

40
Q

Which cell is a major component in acquired immunity

A

The lymphocyte

41
Q

What is phagocytosis

A

The act of engulfment of a foreign substance

42
Q

What is a heterophile antibody?

A

An antibody produced in response to an antigen in one species that will react with antigen found in other genetically unrelated species

43
Q

The Forssman antibody is a heterophile (T or F)

A

True

44
Q

What is the causative agent of syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

45
Q

A negative reagin serologic test can indicate what?

A

Infection if too recent to pick up antibody production, the disease is latent, the patient has been treated

46
Q

What is the difference in a treponemal test vs a nontreponemal test?

A

Treponemal picks up the presence of the microorganism, nontreponemal picks up antibody or antigen production

47
Q

This hepatitis requires Hep B as a helper

A

Hepatitis D or delta hepatitis

48
Q

This is the most common type of hepatitis

A

Hepatitis A

49
Q

How is hepatitis B transmitted?

A

Blood products, nonsterile dental equipment, sequal contact, etc.

50
Q

Antibody to any type of hepatitis confers immunity to all strains (T or F)

A

False

51
Q

What is the first antibody detected in the serum after infection with HBV?

A

Anti-HBc

52
Q

Blood products must be screened for this virus before transfusion to a neonate?

A

CMV

53
Q

Why would a patient test negative for HIV even though they are showing signs of HIV infection?

A

Patient is in the “window” phase before antibody production

54
Q

AIDS characteristically show deficiency in what type of cells?

A

T lymphocytes

55
Q

What age group do you usually see CMV, EBV, and varicella infections?

A

Children

56
Q

What is the causative agent of shingles?

A

Varicella “Zoster”

57
Q

Strep infections can cause Lupus (T or F)

A

False - it can cause rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis, impetigo, and scarlet fever

58
Q

What is streptolysin O

A

A bacterial toxin produced by almost all strains of strep pyogenes, and it is released during infection

59
Q

What is the purpose of doing repeat ASO titers?

A

To monitor the course of the illness, monitor treatment, etc.

60
Q

The major virulence factor of S. pyogenes

A

M antigen

61
Q

What is the end-point for the ASO titer test?

A

The highest serum dilution that shows no hemolysis or agglutination

62
Q

If you have IgM for Rubella, what does that mean?

A

Current infection

Immunology (8 decks)

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