Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Immunology > Jeopardy (Immunology Final) > Flashcards

Jeopardy (Immunology Final) Flashcards

1
Q

HSV I or II: cold sores

A

HSV I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the purpose of running external QC?

A

To ensure the test kit is working properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What test is most valuable in diagnosing poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

ASO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is electrophoresis?

A

A testing method in which proteins migrate across a gel when an electrical current is applied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is active immunity?

A

The process in which the body produces antibodies to an antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In what condition do we usually see cryptococcal infections?

A

Immunocompromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which immunoglobulin is generally responsible for dealing with parasitic infections?

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why do we see antigenic variation in parasites?

A

They can change their surface antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which parasitic infection is particulary dangerous for pregnant women?

A

Toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This is the most common fungus that is part of our normal flora and can cause infection in immunocompromised individuals

A

Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This anomaly is associated with a deletion of chromosome 22

A

DiGeorge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Deficiancies in lte Cā€™ is associated with what infection?

A

Neisseria meningitides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Contact dermatitis (poison ivy) is typical of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If you are IgA deficient, what condition might you be more prone to?

A

Allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the name of the test for TB screening?

A

Quantiferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does CRP stand for?

A

C reactive protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CRP levels rise when what condition exists in the body?

A

Inflammation or severe infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many days post-op does CRP generally peak?

A

2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Can CRP bind complement?

A

Yes, but must have two molecules of activate and may need Ca++

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Acute phase proteins are primarily produced where?

A

Liver (hepatocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Heavy chains are composed of how many chains?

A

2 heavy, 2 light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the portion of the immunoglobulin that contains the constant domain and is fragmented crystalline?

A

Fc portion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

80% of your serum contains this immunoglobulin

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

This portion of the immunoglobulin is the site of antigen bonding

A

Fab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
The largest immunoglobulin and cannot cross the placenta
IgM
26
What is the process by which phagocytic cells are attracted toward a substance such as complement fragment C3a?
Chemotaxis
27
The recognition unit contain what complement number
C1
28
The activation unit
C4, C2, C3
29
The membrane attack unit
C5, C6, C7, C8, C9
30
Does the alternate pathway need antibodies for activation?
No
31
What does systemic mean?
Affects multiple organs
32
What is natural immunity?
The process by which all animals resist the invasion of foreign antigens without the production of antibodies
33
The secondary immune response is also called...
Anamnestic response
34
Name 1 component of a first line defense
Intact skin, mucous membranes, stomach acid, etc.
35
Which lymphocytes are involved in humoral response?
B lymphocytes
36
Which lymphocytes are involved in cell-mediated immune response
T lymphocytes
37
Immunologic tolerance refers to the situation in which an antigen fails to elicit the formation of antibody (T or F)
True
38
Natural or acquired: NK cells
Natural
39
Active or natural: immunity produced by vaccination
Active
40
Which cell is a major component in acquired immunity
The lymphocyte
41
What is phagocytosis
The act of engulfment of a foreign substance
42
What is a heterophile antibody?
An antibody produced in response to an antigen in one species that will react with antigen found in other genetically unrelated species
43
The Forssman antibody is a heterophile (T or F)
True
44
What is the causative agent of syphilis?
Treponema pallidum
45
A negative reagin serologic test can indicate what?
Infection if too recent to pick up antibody production, the disease is latent, the patient has been treated
46
What is the difference in a treponemal test vs a nontreponemal test?
Treponemal picks up the presence of the microorganism, nontreponemal picks up antibody or antigen production
47
This hepatitis requires Hep B as a helper
Hepatitis D or delta hepatitis
48
This is the most common type of hepatitis
Hepatitis A
49
How is hepatitis B transmitted?
Blood products, nonsterile dental equipment, sequal contact, etc.
50
Antibody to any type of hepatitis confers immunity to all strains (T or F)
False
51
What is the first antibody detected in the serum after infection with HBV?
Anti-HBc
52
Blood products must be screened for this virus before transfusion to a neonate?
CMV
53
Why would a patient test negative for HIV even though they are showing signs of HIV infection?
Patient is in the "window" phase before antibody production
54
AIDS characteristically show deficiency in what type of cells?
T lymphocytes
55
What age group do you usually see CMV, EBV, and varicella infections?
Children
56
What is the causative agent of shingles?
Varicella "Zoster"
57
Strep infections can cause Lupus (T or F)
False - it can cause rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis, impetigo, and scarlet fever
58
What is streptolysin O
A bacterial toxin produced by almost all strains of strep pyogenes, and it is released during infection
59
What is the purpose of doing repeat ASO titers?
To monitor the course of the illness, monitor treatment, etc.
60
The major virulence factor of S. pyogenes
M antigen
61
What is the end-point for the ASO titer test?
The highest serum dilution that shows no hemolysis or agglutination
62
If you have IgM for Rubella, what does that mean?
Current infection

Immunology (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions