ITProTV - NET+ 008 Practice Exam: Baseline #2

Question 1

** You are implementing several Switches on your Network. The Network contains client computers that run both Internet Protocol (IP) and Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX). To increase Network efficiency, you need to configure the Switches so that the two different types of traffic are isolated. Which type of Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) should you implement?

subnet-based VLAN
protocol-based VLAN
frame-tagging VLAN
port-based VLAN

Answer 1

protocol-based VLAN

Explanation:
You should implement a Protocol-Based VLAN. This will allow you to isolate IP and IPX Traffic. With Protocol-Based VLANs, each VLAN is configured to support a single Protocol.

Port-Based VLAN - Each port on the Switch is assigned to a VLAN, devices attached to the Port automatically becomes members of that VLAN.

Subnet-Based VLAN - Each Subnet on your Network is assigned to a VLAN. Devices are part of a Subnet based on the Subnet to which the device’s IP Address belongs.

Frame-Tagging VLAN - is a type of Port-Based VLAN that uses frame tagging to allow VLANs to be spread across multiple Switches.

Question 2

** You have been hired as a contractor to implement a Small Office Home Office (SOHO) Network for a small business. While gathering the requirements and constraints regarding the Network, you decide to implement two Subnets on the Network.

What are valid reasons for implementing Subnets on an IP Network? (Choose Two)

to configure a greater number of Hosts
to reduce congestion by decreasing Network traffic
to use more than one Server on each segment of an IP LAN.
to reduce congestion by increasing Network media bandwidth.
to increase Network Security

Answer 2

to reduce congestion by decreasing Network traffic.
to increase Network Security

Explanation:
Subnets are used for the following reasons:
to expand the Network
to reduce congestion
to reduce CPU use
to isolate Network problems
to improve Security
to allow combinations of media, because each subnet can support a different medium.

Question 3

** You are deploying a Virtual Private Network (VPN) for remote users. You want to meet the following goals:

1. The VPN gateway should require the use of Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
2. All remote users must use IPSec to connect to the VPN Gateway.
3. No internal Hosts should use IPSec.

Which IPSec Mode should you use?

host-to-host
gateway-to-gateway
This configuration is NOT possible.
host-to-gateway

Answer 3

host-to-gateway

Explanation:
Host-to-Gateway: requires the use of IPSec for all Remote Clients. The remote clients use IPSec to connect to the VPN gateway. Any communication between the VPN gateway and the internet hosts on behalf of the remote client does not use IPSec. Only the traffic over the Internet uses IPSec.

host-to-host: Each host must deploy IPSec. This mode would require that any internal hosts that communicate with the VPN clients would also need to deploy IPSec.

gateway-to-gateway: gateways at each end of the connection provide IPSec functionality. The individual host do not. For this reason, the VPN is transparent to the users. This deployment best works when a branch office or partner company needs access to your Network.

Question 4

** You are setting up your company’s VoIP infrastructure. One remote office location has audio problems when placing or receiving calls. At times, speech quality is poor, or there is a noticeable and distinct echo for call audio. In troubleshooting a possible system configuration issue, which of the following possibilities do you want to eliminate first?

H.323 protocol support has not been selected
the call terminates on an analog endpoint.
Check to make sure system updates have been applied
Echo cancellation has been misconfigured or has not been applied.
Compression mode setting differs between caller and receiver devices

Answer 4

the call terminates on an analog endpoint

Question 5

** You instruct a user to issue the ipconfig command with the /release and /renew options. In which two situations would it be appropriate to ask a user to do this? (Choose Two)

when the result of running the ipconfig /all command indicates a 169.254.163.6 address.

when no IP helper address has been configured on the Router between the Client and the DHCP Server.

when the no IP directed-broadcast command has been issued in the Router interface local to the client, and no IP Helper address has been configured on the Router between the client and the DHCP Server

when recent scope changes have been made on the DHCP Server

Answer 5

when the result of running the ipconfig /all command indicates a 169.254.163.6 address.
when recent scope changes have been made on the DHCP Server

Question 6

** Your organization has several VLANs implemented on its Network. The VLANs operate across several Switches. What do all users on the VLAN have in common?

Collision Domain
TCP/IP Subnet
Cable Segment
Broadcast Domain

Answer 6

Broadcast Domain

Explanation:
VLANs place users from many locations into the same Broadcast Domain. A single VLAN can span multiple physical LAN segments, collision domains, and TCP/IP Segments. VLANs can be based on work function, common applications or protocols, departement, or other logical grouptings. VLAN assignment is configured at the Switch for each device that is connected to the Switch. VLANs enable many users at many locations to be in the same Broadcast Domain.

Routers define Broadcast Domains, and because Switches are Layer 2 Devices, they do not segment Broadcast Domains, instead they segment Collision Domains.

VLANs span multiple collision domains, subnets, and cable segments, so users would not have these aspects of the Network in common.
IEEE 802.1Q is the Networking standard that supports VLANs on an Ethernet Network.
Broadcast Domains can be created using Swtiches or Routers.

Question 7

** Your company operates a fleet of panel trucks, each with a built-in cellular base station for voice and data communications. you are required to upgrade the wireless equipment used in 18 vehicles. You do not want to install obsolete equipment. Which of the following cellular technologies is most likely to be obsolete?

EDGE
CDMA
LTE
TDMA
GSM

Answer 7

TDMA

Explanation:
Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) is obsolete. It is a multiplexing technique used to combine multiple signals in a single wireless ceullar channel. It is a 2G cellular technology that was largely decommissioned in 2007-2009.

Code-Division Multiple Access (CDMA) refers to a multiplexing technique used to combine multiple signals in a single wireless cellular channel. CDMA applies to both 2G and 3G cellular networks, and remains in wide use today as carries such as Spring, Virgin Mobile, and Verizon.

Enhanced Data Rates for GSM Evolution (EDGE) is 3 times faster than GSM, but based on GSM technologies. EDGE capabilities are roughly equivalent to those delivered on the original iPhone in late June 2007. Still in use today.

Global System for Mobile (GSM) communications is the worlds most widely used cellphone technology. Best choice for those who need to use their cellphones outside the USA.

Long Term Evolution (LTE) is an IP-based 4G Cellular technology that started rolling out in 2012.

Question 8

** You need to implement a data center for your company. In this data center, you plan to implement inter-rack connections that are limited to 25 meters (82 Feet). Which Ethernet standard should you implement?

100Base-T4
1000Base-CX
1000Base-TX
100Base-FX

Answer 8

1000Base-CX

Explanation:
1000Base-CX is designed for wiring closets. It has transmission rate of 1000 Mbps and a max segment length of 25 meters (82 Feet)

100Base-FX is IEEE Standard for Fiber-Optic Fast Ethernet Network topology. Transmits 100 Mbps over a baseband connection, and uses Fiber-Optic cable as the transferring medium. It has a max segment distance of 2 km (1.24 Miles).

10BaseF is the 10 Mbps version of Ethernet over Fiber-Optic Cable.

100Base-T4 is one of the Fast Ethernet standards. It consists of 4 pairs of unshielded twisted pair CAT3, 4, or 5 Copper Wiring. It has a max segment length of 100 meters (328 feet) and a max transmission rate of 100 Mbps.

1000Base-TX is one of the Fast Ethernet topologies. Transmits 500 Mbps on each of 4 wire pairs. It requires more expensive CAT 6 copper cabling.

Question 9

** You are documenting the Network Layout for your company. You have discovered a Firewall that has two Network interfaces. Which Firewall architecture have you discovered?

bastion host
screened host
dual-homed firewall
screened subnet

Answer 9

dual-home firewall

Explanation:
Dual-Homed Firewall has two Network interfaces. One interface connects to the Public Network, usually the Internet. The other interface connects to the Private Network. The forwarding and routing function should be disabled on the Firewall to ensure that Network segregation occurs.

Basion Host is a computer that resides on a Network that is Locked Down to provide max security.

Screened Host is a Firewall that resides between the Router that connects a Network to the Internet and the Private Network. The Router acts as a screening device, and the Fireawll is the Screen Host.

Screened Subnet is another term for a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). Two Firewalls are used in this configuration: one Firewall resides between the Public Network and the DMZ, and the other resides between the DMZ and the Private Network.

Question 10

** In PKI, what is the entity that signs a Certificate?

a principal
a subject
an issuer
a verifier

Answer 10

an issuer

Explanation:
Issuer = The entity that signs a Certificate.

Principle = Any entity that possesses a public key.

Verifier = An entity that verifies a public key chain.

Subject = An entity that seeks to have a Certificate validated.

Question 11

** Which technology or device would be best suited for implementing short-ranged Fiber-Optics transmissions?

SFP+
DWDM
CWDM
QSFP

Answer 11

CWDM

Explanation:
CWDM = Course Wavelength Division Multiplexing is a WDM system and uses fewer than eight active wavelengths per fiber. This technology is designed for Short-Range communications, causing it to employ wide-range frequencies with wavelengths that are far apart. CWDM is compact and cost-effective option when spectral efficiency is not a requirement.

DWDM = Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing enables long-range communications. Can fit up to 96 wavelengths into the C-band spectrum of Fiber cable, utilizing a tighter wavelength spacing to fit more channels onto a single fiber. More costly and more time-consuming to operate.

QSFP = Quad Small Form-Factor Pluggable and SFP+ (Enhanced Form-Factor Pluggable are transceivers used for both telecommunication and data communication applications, common 10-Gig Ethernet.

Question 12

** Your company has decided to implement Unified Communication. You have been asked to implement a VoIP Network. You need to connect the VoIP Network to your company’s PBX. What should you implement?

UC Server
DSCP
Multicast
QoS
UC Gateway
Unicast

Answer 12

UC Gateway

Explanation:
Unified Communcations include VoIP, Vide, Real-Time Services, Qualot of Service (QoS) and UC Devices.
UC Devices include UC Servers, UC Devices, and UC Gateways.
UC Servers are responsible for managing the UC Communications.
UC Devices help transport and monitor.
UC Gateways connect VoIP Networks to other types of Networks, such as PBX Networks.

Question 13

** Your company consists of 75 employees. Your company has entered into a partnership with another company that is located across the country. Your company’s users must be able to connect to the partner’s Network quickly and reliably. Support for Voice, Data, and imaging transmissions and a dedicated 24-hour link are required. Your solution must be as inexpensive as possible whil eproviding enough bandwidth for your company’s employees - What should you implement?

POTS
ISDN
ATM
FDDI
T1

Answer 13

T1

Explanation:
T1 lines can provide fast, digital connections of up to 1.544 Mbps, transmitting voice, data, and video. T1 line also provides a dedicated connection, which means that it provides a 24-hour link. T1 line is more expensive than a dial-up connection using Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS) or an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) connection, but this company needs enough bandwidth to accomodate its 75 users, which justifies the additional cost.

Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is a high-speed, cell-switching link type, very expensive to implement.

Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI) is high-speed, Token Ring Network that uses Fiber-Optic cable transmitting up to 100 Mbps. It does offer speed, but it is limited to a ring distance of 100 km, or 62 miles.

Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) provides a direct, point-to-point digital connection at a speed of up to 2 Mbps. Usually , speeds of 128 Kbps are seen with ISDN. However, because it is a dial-up connection, it would not provide a dedicated 24-hour link.

Question 14

** Management has decided to implement a diversity antenna system at its main headquarters. What is the advantage of using this system?

a diversity antenna system ads more bandwidth
a diversity antenna system avoids multipath distortion
a diversity antenna system increases the coverage area
a diversity antenna system increases the transmission power

Answer 14

a diversity antenna system avoids multipath distortion

Question 15

** You asked to acquire address space for a new Network that must accomodate atleast 12 Subnets, each with atleast 2,048 nodes. A total of 25,576 IP Addresses are needed, but the available address space should leave some room for growth in each Subnet, and for the nubmer of Subnets to double (or more). The Network must also support IPsec to the endpoints for security reasons. Which of the following options provides the best fit while minimizing costs?

IPv6 Network with a /48 global routing prefix
IPv6 Network with a /56 global routing prefix
IPv6 Network with a /64 global routing prefix
Public IPv4 Class B Network, purchased on the open market.
Private IPv4 Class A Network (10.0.0.0)

Answer 15

IPv6 Network with a /56 global routing prefix.

Explanation:
IPv6 Network with a /56 global routing prefix should impose little or no cost to obtain. It also provides 256 Subnets, each with millions of nodes, and supports IPsec end-to-end. Thus, it provides the best fit while minimizing costs because it meets the starting requirements with ample room for growth.

Private IP Addresses do NOT support IPSec connections end-to-end. They require Network Address Translation (NAT) or some equivalent, and will not work with IPSec. Thus a Private IPv4 Class A address is not suitable.

If one could purchase a Public IPv4 Class B Network address on the OPen Market, it would cost atleast $300,000 if not double. A single Class B Address can only be subdivided into 14 Subnets, each one needs 2,048 nodes.

Question 16

** You are deploying fiber optic links and connections on a local area network (LAN). You need to ensure proper and efficient data communications. Which of the following transceiver or fiber optics characteristics are essential? (Choose ALL that Apply)

full duplex
simplex cables
single-mode
multimode
half duplex
duplex cables

Answer 16

full duplex
multimode
duplex cables

Explanation:
Multimode - makes use of thicker, graded light-conducting fibers that are cheaper to make and terminate. They are more limited in the distances such cables can span and are well-suited for LAN applications.
Full Duplex - means that both parties may transmit and receive simultaneously over a communication link. Because LAN applications require simultaneous, two-way communications, full duplex is needed.
Duplex Cables - incorperate two fibers, so that one may be used to send data for receipt by another part, while the other part may use the other fiber to send data for receipt by the first party. This supports simultaneous, two-way communications and makes it well suited for LAN applications.

Question 17

** As part of monitoring Network Traffic, you need to determine the payload that is produced by using IPsec in tunnel mode with the AH protocol. Which of the following best describes this payload?

an encapsulated packet that is encrypted.
an unencapsulated packet that is encrypted.
an unencapsulated packet that is digitally signed.
an encapsulated packet that is digitally signed.

Answer 17

an encapsulated packet that is digitally signed.

Explanation:
IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) in tunnel mode with the Authentication Header (AH) protocol produces an encapsulated packet that is digitally signed. AH digitally signs a packet for authentication purposes. Tunnel mode encapsulates a packet with another packet. Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP) encrypts IPsec packets. Transport Mode sends IPsec packets between two computers without encapsulating packets. AH and ESP work in transport mode and tunnel mode.

Question 18

** If a routing table contained multiple routes for the same destination, which were inserted by the following methods, which route will the Router use to reach the desination Network?

The route inserted by BGP
The route inserted by RIP
The route configured as a static route.
The route inserted by OSPF.

Answer 18

The route configured as a static route.

Explanation:
A Static Route will be preferred because it has the Lowest Administrative Distance. Administrative Distance is a feature that is used to select the best path when two or more routes to the same destination exist. These multiple routes are the result of different protocols being available to be used.

The Default Administrative options offered are:
RIP = 120 (Routing Information Protocol)
OSPF = 110 (Open Shortest Path First)
BGP = 20 (Border Gateway Protocol)
Static = 1

Question 19

** Management has requested that you document the minimum level of security for all network devices. Which of the following will this provide?

procedures
standards
guidelines
baselines

Answer 19

baselines

Explanation:
Baselines - define the minimum level of security and performance of a system in an organization. Baselines are also used to benchmark for future changes.

Guidelines - are the actions that are suggested when standards are not applicable in a particular situation.

Standards - are mandated rules that govern the acceptable level of security for hardware and software. Also include regulated behaviors of employees. Standards are enforceable and are the activities and actions that must be followed. Standards can be defined internally in an organization or externally as Regulations.

Procedures - are detailed instructions used to accomplish a task r oa goal. Procedures define how the security policy will be implemented in an organization through repeatable steps.

Question 20

** Your company’s IT department needs to provide field engineers with a remote GUI-based access to their in-office desktop PCs over the Internet. Engineers could use Windows, Linux, iOS, and Android on their remote devices with a mix of macOS and Windows on the in-office desktops. Which of the following remote access tools offers the best no-cost option?

SSH
Telnet
RDC
VNC
ARD

Answer 20

Virtual Network Computing (VNC)

Explanation:
Key Words = GUI Based

VNC = Virtual Network Computing are widely and freely available for Windows, OS X, Linux, Android, iOS, and Chrome. They are easy to setup, and use, interoperate among multiple versions, and work well through corporate and personal firewalls.
RDC = Microsoft's Remote Desktop Connection does not work on Linux.
ARD = Apple Remote Desktop works best for Apple Environments, but does not work on Windows and other platforms well. And costs $80 per license.
SSH/Telnet = Secure Shell and Telnet do not provide a GUI, they are command-line utilities.

Question 21

** A suburban office location for your company is located next door to a regional airport, where a US government regional weather radar system is also housed. You are tasked with setting up a Wireless 802.11ac Network in that location. You must select a range of 80 MHz channels for the Network to use. Furthermore, some of the devices on that Network have 802.11n Wireless interfaces. Which of the following channels should you use on your Network? (Choose Two)

Channels 52 - 64
Channel 165
Channels 149 - 161
Channels 36 - 48
Channels 100 - 144

Answer 21

Channels 149 - 161
Channels 36 - 48

Explanation:
You should use channels 36 - 48 and 149 - 161 for indoor and outdoor WIFI use. All 802.11n and 802.11ac Client devices support use on these 2 bands.

Channels 52 - 64 was historically reserved by the FCC for government weather radar systems and DFS sensing is required for access points and client devices on this band.

Channels 100 - 144 also reserved for government weather radar systems.

Channel 165 is only 20 MHz wide and does not meet the channel width requirements.

Question 22

** Your company is located in Charlott, North Carolina. Management has decided to deploy multiple 802.11a WLANs. Youa re concerned that there are not enough non-overlapping channels to support the number of access points that you need to deploy. How many non-overlapping channels are supported in this deployment?

twenty-three
eleven
four
three

Answer 22

twenty-three

Explanation:

802. 11a = 23 non-overlapping
803. 11b = 4 non-overlapping (1, 6, 11, 14)
804. 11g = 4 non-overlapping (1, 5, 9, 13)
805. 11g (US) = 3 non-verlapping (1, 6, 11)

Question 23

** Your company has a main office and three branch offices throughout the United States. Management has decided to deploy a cloud solution that will allow all offices to connect to the same single-routed network and therby connect directly to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST solution?

P2P
MPLS VPN
Site-to-Site VPN
Client-to-Site VPN

Answer 23

MPLS VPN

Explanation:
Multiprotocol Label Switching Layer 3 Virtual Private Network (VPN) - allows all offices to connect to the same singlerouted network and connect directly to the cloud.

Question 24

** You have been given a drawing that shows the flow of communication in your Network, with symbols to indicate each piece of equipment’s function. Which configuration management documentation have you been given?

network baseline
logical network diagram
wiring schematic
physical network diagram

Answer 24

wiring schematic

Explanation:
Schematics include the flow of Network communication and symbols to indicate equipment function.

Wiring Diagram - emphasizes Network connections and uses horizontal and veritical lines to represent Network wires.

Logical DIagram - represents how the data will logically be transported through the Network.

Physical Diagram - represents the physical location of the network devices and how they are connected.

Network Baseline - not a diagram, but actually performance statistics gathered for comparative purposes.

Question 25

** You have decided to implement ISAKMP. What is provided by this Technology? a Citrix protocol used in application server environments. a Protocol that works with IPsec to establish a Secure session. a Protocol that encapsulates PPP within Ethernet Frames. A Microsoft Protocol that establishes Sessions with other computers.

Answer 25

a Protocol that works with IPsec to establish a Secure session. Explanation: Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP) is a protocol that works with IPsec to establish a Secure session. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a Microsoft Protocol that establishes sessions with other computers. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPPoE) is a protocol that encapsulates PPP with Ethernet Frames. Independent Computing Architecture (ICA) is a Citrixi Protocol used in application server environments.

Question 26

* You need to determine the length of Network Cable. Which device should you use? Hardware Loopback TDR Tone Generator Crossover Cable

Answer 26

TDR (Time Domain Reflectometer) Explanation: TDR = Copper OTDR = (Optical Time Domain Reflectometer) for Fiber Hardware Loopback = Plug that connects the sending and receiving pins on a connector for troubleshooting purposes. Tone Generator = with a Tone Locator to trace Network Cables. Also known as Fox and Hound. Crossover Cable = To connect the sending pins in one device directly to the receiving pins in another device.

Question 27

* What is the main purpose of a VPN concentrator? to manage Internet requetss and cache Web content. to provide dynamic IP addresses to terminate the VPN tunnels to resolve host names and IP addresses

Answer 27

to terminate the VPN tunnels Explanation: VPN Concentrator = to terminate the VPN Tunnels. DNS Server = To resolve host names to IP Addresses. DHCP Server = To provide dynamic IP Addresses Proxy Server = To manage Internet requests and cache Web Content. Split Tunnel = divides internet traffic and sends some of it through an encrypted VPN tunnel and routes the other data through a different tunnel separately on an open Network. The purpose is to allow a user to chose which applications will be secured and which can connect normally. Full Tunnel = differs in that all information is sent through an encrypted tunnel while utilizing the VPN. Less Risky, but more Costly.

Question 28

* You have decided to implement a Network Protocol analyzer on your company's Network. Which job is NOT performed by this tool? identify source and destination of communication identify the types of traffic on the Network detect active viruses or malware on the Network provide Network activity statistics

Answer 28

detect active viruses or malware on the Network Explanation: Protocol Analyzers - Provide Network activity statistics. - Identify source and destination communication. - Identify the types of traffic on the Network. - Detect unusual level of traffic. - Detect specific pattern characteristics.

Question 29

* A Network contains 150 Windows Client computers that all receive their IP configuration from a DHCP Server. The Network is divided into two Subnets. The Network administrator decides to move a client computer from one Subnet to another. After moving the client, the computer is having trouble communicating on the Network. You suspect that the client computer is using an IP Address from the old Subnet. You need to run the appropriate commands to ensure that the client computer receives a new IP Address. Select the appropriate commands (Listed) and place them in the appropriate order. ONLY select the commands that are necessary for the scenario. The scenario may include one or more commands. Order is Important. ``` ipconfig /renew ipconfig /displaydns ipconfig registerdns ipconfig /all ipconfig /showclassid ipconfig /setclassid ipconfig /flushdns ipconfig /release ```

Answer 29

ipconfig /release ipconfig /renew ``` Explanation: ipconfig /all = Displays all the TCP/IP settings for the computers. ipconfig /flushdns = Removes the contents of the computer's DNS cache. ipconfig /registerdns = Registers the computer's DNS Host Name with the DNS Server. ipconfig /displaydns = Displays the contents of the computer's DNS cache. ipconfig /showclassid = Displays the DHCP class ID assigned to the client computer. ipconfig /setclassid = Will configure the DHCP class ID for the client computer. ```

Question 30

* You are examining the packets captured on your Network. You notice some communication between your Cisco Router and someone from outside your Network. The packets indicate that the communication is occurring over TCP Port 23. Which Protocol is being used? FTP SSH Telnet TFTP

Answer 30

Telnet Explanation: FTP = 20, 21 (File Transfer Protocol) SSH, SFTP = 22 (Secure Shell, Secure File Transfer Protocol) Telnet = 23 SMTP = 25 (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) DNS = 53 (Domain Name System) DHCP = 67, 68 (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) TFTP = 69 (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) HTTP = 80 (Hyptertext Transfer Protocol) POP3 = 110 (Post Office Protocol v3) NTP = 123 (Network Time Protocol) NetBIOS = 137, 139 IMAP = 143 (Internet Message Access Protocol) SNMP = 161, 162 (Simple Network Management Protocol) LDAP = 389 (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) HTTPS = 443 (Hyptertext Transfer Protocol Secure) SMB = 445 (Server Message Block) Syslog = 514 SMTP TLS = 587 LDAPS = 636 IMAP over SSL = 993 POP3 over SSL = 995 SQL Server = 1433 (Structured Query Language) SQLnet = 1521 H.323 = 1720 MGCP = 2427, 2727 (Media Gateway Control Protocol) MySQL = 3306 RDP = 3389 (Remote Desktop Protocol) RTP = 5004, 5005 (Realtime Transport Protocol) SIP = 5060, 5061 (Session Initiation Protocol)

Question 31

* Your company has implemented a Firewall that only examines the packet header information. Of which type of Firewall is this an example? packet-filtering Firewall stateful Firewall kernal proxy Firewall application-level proxy Firewall

Answer 31

packet-filtering Firewall Explanation: Packet-Filtering Firewall only examines the Packet Header. Stateful Firewall usually examines all layers of the Packet to compile all the information for the State Table. Packet-Filtering Firewall are based on Access Control Lists (ACL) and only looks at the data packet to obtain the source and desination address and the protocol and port used.

Question 32

* Which three options are considered to be characteristics of a client-server Network? (Choose Three) ``` a decentralized Network less expensive Network hardware more stable and secure connections every node in the Network can request and provide services lengthy access time for a service ```

Answer 32

less expensive Network hardware more stable and secure connections lengthy access time for a service Explanation: 2 Main types of Networks for the Exam, Peer-to-Peer and Client-Server. Peer-to-Peer are decentralized Networks in which nodes can request and provide services directly to each other. These Networks are fast, and easy to setup, but are often seen as more unstable, less secure, and expensive. Client-Server Networks employ a single central server to which clients will request access so they can connect to the Web and use Applications, files, and other shared Resources. These Networks are more stable, cheaper, and secure; however they do take significatnly more time to access various Services than in a Peer-to-Peer Network.

Question 33

* Your company has recently replaced ALL the Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) and Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable with Fiber Optic Cable. You need to purchase a device to determine the Length of Cables used on your Network. Which tool do you need? OTDR TDR Toner Probe Butt Set

Answer 33

OTDR (Optical Time Domain Reflectometer) Explanation: OTDR = Fiber TDR = (Time Domain Reflectometer) for Copper Butt Set = Used to test Telephone Lines. Toner Probe = Used to identify a single cable on the Network, best tool to use to locate bad CAT5 Cable.

Question 34

* Which technology provides centralized Remote user Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting? RADIUS VPN Single Sign-On DMZ

Answer 34

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) Explanation: VPN = (Virtual Private Network) allows users to access Private Network resources over a Public Network, such as the Internet. Tunneling techniques are used to protect the internal Resources (Full/Split Tunneling) DMZ = (Demilitarized Zone) is an isolated Subnet on a Network that contains resources that are commonly accessed by public users, such as Internet users. Implemented with the use of Firewalls. Single Sign-On = a feature whereby a user logs in once to access all Network resources.

Question 35

* You need to implement Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to prevent Network loops when more than one path can be used. Which two devices could you deploy? (Choose Two) Routers Switches Hubs Bridges

Answer 35

Switches | Bridges

Question 36

* The Network you administer is a Fast Ethernet Network. Wall outlets are connected to patch panels by 90-meter cables. Patch panels are connected to switches by 5-meter Cables. The Network uses CAT5 Unshielded Twisted Pair (CAT5 UTP) Cable. You use a 15-meter patch cable to connect a Server named Shipping to a Wall Outlet. You connect the Shipping computer to the Network, start the computer, and properly configure it. HOwever, clients cannot connect to the Shipping Server. Clients can connect to the other Servers on the Network. What will most likely solve the connection problem? replacing the CAT5 UTP with CAT3 UTP replacing the 15-meter patch cable with a 10-meter patch cable replacing the 15-meter patch cable with a 3-meter patch cable replacing the CAT5 UTP with CAT1 UTP

Answer 36

replacing the 15-meter patch cable with a 3-meter patch cable Explanation: The max length of cable between a computer and a Switch or Hub is 100 Meters. In this scenario, the Total Length of cable between the Shipping Server and the Switch is 110 Meters.

Question 37

* You are about to install several Wireless Access Points (WAP) in different areas of the building. You want max coverage, so you opt for the longer-range 2.4 GHz frequency. Which item below should most likely also be of concern? Interference Channel Overlap Security Type Mismatch Power Levels

Answer 37

Channel Overlap Explanation: Channel Overlap can cause Performance issues. Even though 11 channels are available in the US, there is a high degree of overlap. When using multiple Wireless Access Points (WAP) in 2.4 GHz mode, you should set the Wireless channels at 1, 6, and 11 to provide the best coverage and avoid overlaps. Power Levels can affect Wireless Network performance. Power Levels should only be a concern if you need to adjust the signal strength to prevent the signal from extending outside of a certain boundary. Interference in Wireless communications can originate from several sources. If there are too many devices operating at 2.4 GHz spectrum without proper channel separation, there could be interference. Common household items such as microwaves, cordless phones, and baby monitors can also be sources of interference. Because you are deploying multiple Wireless Access Points (WAP) in the same frequency, you are more likely to experience channel overlap than interference. Interference is a secondary concern. Security Type Mismatch - To connect to a Wireless Network, the client device must be set to use the same security type as the Access Point. The Access Point Security type include open and WEP, WPA/TKIP, WPA/AES, and WPA2/AES. While you need to ensure that the Wireless Access Points and the devices using them implment the same Security Type, you are more likely to have channel issues in this scenario.

Question 38

To improve Security, you change your Web Server named Web1 to the HTTPS Protocol. Shortly after implementing the change, users report that they cannot access any Web Sites hosted on Web1 by using their Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDN). However, they can access other Web Sites that are hosted on other Web Servers by using their FQDN. What is causing this problem? The new Web Address starts with https instead of http. The Local Area Network (LAN) is Down. The DNS Server is Down. HTTPS is not a supported protocol.

Answer 38

The new Web Address starts with https instead of http.

Question 39

You are implementing an 802.11g Wireless Network in your office. What is the max number of Wireless Access Points (WAP) that you can implement within 30 meters of each other? Two Five Three Four

Answer 39

Three Explanation: Wireless Access Points only have 3 non-overlapping channels (1, 6, and 11 in the US and 1, 6, and 13 in EU). Therefore, to prevent interference, you need to configure the 3 Wireless Access Points (WAP) with different channels.

Question 40

You have a strong Wireless password policy, but users (including management) are complaining about it. Consequently, enforcement is difficult. You need a protocol solution that does NOT require digital certificates. Which of these choices would help you secure your Network? EAP-TLS EAP-FAST PEAP Geofencing

Answer 40

EAP-FAST Explanation: EAP-FAST = Extensible Authentication Protocol - Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling, developed by Cisco to assit with enforcing Strong Password policies, and it does not require digital certificates. EAP-FAST is the faster version of Protected EAP (PEAP). PEAP first creates a Tunnel between the supplicant (client) and the Server, and then proceeds with the rest of the steps in the EAP process. PEAP requires Certificates. EAP-TLS = Extensible Authentication Protocol - Transport Layer Security uses Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) Certificates to authenticate the supplicant (client) and the Server. Geofencing allows an admin to geographically define the boundaries of Wireless Access.

Question 41

A user notifies you regarding the features that are available with his computer's Video Card. He says that the Video Card's manufacturer has several new features for the Video Card that he is unable to locate or use. He needs access to these features. What should you do? Check for Firmware updates. Upgrade the Operating System Check for Operating System Updates Check for Driver Updates

Answer 41

Check for Driver Updates

Question 42

A user is complaining about Wireless connectivity. Their cubical is on a concrete wall, and the Wireless Access Point (WAP) is mounted on the other side of the wall. What describes what is happening to the Wireless signal that only has to travel a few inches? absorption attenuation frequency mismatch refraction

Answer 42

absorption Explanation: Abosrption = Occurs when an object does not reflect or retract a Wireless signal, but rather absorbs a portion of it. Drywall has relatively low absorption rate, while concrete has a relatively high absorption rate. Refraction = "bends" the signal as it passes through, or the signal curves as it tries to go around the object. Frequency Mismatch = occurs when one device is operating at 2.4 GHz and another is operating at 5 GHz, causing communication to drop. Attenuation = is the degredation of a signal, typically occuring over distance.

Question 43

While working as an IT Tech, you receive multiple complaints of Network outages occurring. After investigating, you conclude that there are incomplete files resulting in mismatching data values. What type of interference error has occured here? a runt error a giant error a CRC error an encapsulation error

Answer 43

a CRC error Explanation: CRC = Cyclic Redundancy Check occurs when a damaged or incomplete file causes the Checksum value to not match the CRC value. These errors occur often when compressed files are archives are extraced but can also occur when reading and writing to local or external hard disks or other external media. Giants occur when a packet is too large to traverse a Network. Runt is the exact opposite, and indicates a packet is too small to send. Encapsulation is the process of hiding the values or stats of data packets to prevent unauthorized parties from being able to view or modify the hidden data.

Question 44

A user is experiencing Network connectivity issues after a faulty NIC was replaced. You want the user to have excellent throughput, so you configure the NIC for Full-Duplex (Auto Configuration OFF). The corresponding Switch port is configured as Auto-Config, so you should be OK, but the throughput is lower than expected. What is the issue? Duplex/Speed mismatch Bottlenecks Incorrect pin-out TX/RX Reverse

Answer 44

Duplex/Speed mismatch

Question 45

You have been called to assist a user with a Network connectivity problem. The user is unable to access an application stored on a server. You want to determine if this problem is Network-wide or a Workstation problem. Which step should be taken to make this determination? Try opening other applications on the user's workstation. Shut down the Server and restart the Network. Try opening the application from other workstations. Reset the user's rights/permissions for the application.

Answer 45

Try opening the application from other workstations. Explanation: Troubleshooting Method per CompTIA Network+ 1. Identify the Problem 2. Establish a Theory of probable cause. 3. Test the Theory to determine the cause. 4. Establish a Plan of Action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects. 5. Implement the solution or escalate as needed. 6. Verify full system functionality, and if applicable, implement preventitive measures. 7. Document findings, actions, outcomes and lessons learned.

Question 46

You have been hired as a Network Admin. The company wants to implement a 10 Gigabit Ethernet designation for use with SONET Network. Which of the following should you implement? 10GBase-LR 10GBase-SW 10GBase-SR 10GBase-LX4

Answer 46

10GBase-SW Explanation: SONET Networks: (Synchronous Optical Networking) Notice, they each all end in W. - 10GBase-EW = 1550 nm lasers over Single-Mode Fiber Optic up to 40 km length (25 miles). - 10GBase-LW = 1310 nm lasers over Single-Mode Fiber Optic up to 25 km length (16 miles). - 10GBase-ZW = - 10GBase-SW = 850 nm lasers over Multi-Mode Fiber Optic up to 25 m length (85 feet), 82 meters (270 feet), or 300 meters (980 feet) depending on which Multi-Mode cable is used. R Specifications: NOT SONET, but have the same Laser Type, Cable Type and max Cable run as 10GBase W designation counterparts. - 10GBase-ER - 10GBase-SR 10GBase-LX4 = is NOT for use with SONET Networks. It's used when you need to support both Single-Mode and Multi-Mode Fiber Optic cable. Uses 4 lasers in the 1300 nm range and up to 10 km (6.2 miles) when in Single-Mode. When in Multi-Mode it can support up to 240 meters (790 feet) or 300 meters (980 feet). Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS) = Supports 42.88 Mbps downstream and 27 Mbps upstream depending on which version is implemented.

Question 47

You are a Network admin for a Windows Server 2012 domain. Recently, you have noticed Network performance issues when Microsoft Operating System and applications release new service packs or updates. All Server and Client computers are configured to automatically download and install any updates. You need to deploy a solution that will reduce the Network performance issues when these updates are released. What should you do? Change the config of all computers to check for updates but wait for the user to download/install them. Change the config of all computers to download updates but wait for the user to install. Deploy a centralized Windows Software update Services server that will download and deploy the updates, and deploy a group policy that ensures that all servers and clients obtain their updates from the centralized server. Change the conf of all computers to never check for updates.

Answer 47

Deploy a centralized Windows Software update Services server that will download and deploy the updates, and deploy a group policy that ensures that all servers and clients obtain their updates from the centralized server.

Question 48

You decide to implement a DHCP Server on your Network. What is the purpose of a DHCP scope? It is the range of IP Addresses that a DHCP Server can temporarily assign. It is an IP Addrerss that cannot be assigned. It is an IP Address that is set aside for certain devices. It is a temporary assignment of an IP Address

Answer 48

It is the range of IP Addresses that a DHCP Server can temporarily assign.

Question 49

Your company has recently leased the office next door to the one currently being used. Both offices will be used. The current office has a CAT6 Network installed. The new office has a Fiber Network installed. You need to connect the Networks of the two offices. Which device should you use? gateway modem media converter CSU/DSU

Answer 49

media converter Explanation: Gateway = Allows 2 computers with no protocols in common to communicate. Channel Service Unit/Digital Service Unit (CSU/DSU) = is a device typicallyr equired by leased lines, such as T1 lines, to terminate their media connection to your LAN. Modem = Converts computer signals to travel over telephone and cable lines. Media Converters include the following: - Single-Mode Fiber to Ethernet - Multi-Mode Fiber to Ethernet - Fiber to Coaxial - Single-Mode Fiber to Multi-Mode Fiber

Question 50

Which Wireless topology only requires one access point to be physically connected to the wired Network, while still offering maximum flexibility and redundancy? Mesh Bluetooth Ad hoc Infrastructure

Answer 50

Mesh Explanation: Mesh Topology in Wireless requires only one access point to be physically connected to the Wired Network. Ad hoc are built spontaneously as devices connect and do not require a Router or Access Point. Does not offer any flexibility or redundancy. Infrastructure Topology in Wireless Networks represents the traditional configuration where an access point is connected physically to a Wired Network. Opposite of Ad hoc. More than one WAP may be connected to the Wired Network. If more than one WAP is used, redundancy and flexibility are provided. Bluetooth Networks are formed by pairing devices that are in close proximity. Bluetooth Networks do not use an access point and are Peer-to-Peer Networks. There is no redundancy in Bluetooth Networks and offer very little flexibility.

Question 51

During a recent Network breach, a help desk technician identifies the IP address of the computer that is affected. When you ask for the Address, he gives you the following binary address: 11000000 - 10101000 - 00101100 - 00011000 What is the IP Address? 192. 168.45.25 192. 168.44.24 192. 168.44.25 192. 168.45.24

Answer 51

192.168.44.24 Explanation: Binary Numbering Scale - REMEMBER IT!! 128 -- 64 -- 32 -- 16 -- 8 -- 4 -- 2 -- 1

Question 52

You have two Wireless Networks in your building. The Wireless Networks do not overlap. Both of them use WIFI Protected Access (WPA). You want to ensure that no unauthorized Wireless Access Points (WAP) are established. What should you do? Change the two Wireless Networks to WEP Change the two Wireless Networks to WPA2 Disable SSID Broadcast for the two Wireless Networks Peridically complete a Site Survey.

Answer 52

Peridocially complete a Site Survey.

Question 53

Management has decided to renovate a portion of the office. You have been asked to relocate several computers and other Network devices in the renovation area to another part of the building. After relocating the computers and devices, you document the new location. What is the term used to describe the actions you took? asset management NAC SLA baseline

Answer 53

asset management Explanation: Asset Management = Involves documenting information regarding the company assets, including location, IP Address, and other info. SLA = Service Level Agreement, an agreement from a Service Provide that details the level of service that will be maintained. NAC = Network Access Control is a method whereby an org implements rules for Security for devices that connect to the Network. Baseline = is a Performance Measurement against which all future measurements are compared.

Question 54

You have recently implemented DNS on a small company Network. However, you discover that the internal DNS Server is having trouble communicating with external DNS Servers. Which well-known UDP port does this protocol use? 80 53 110 161

Answer 54

53 (Domain Name System) Explanation: 80 = HTTP 110 = POP3 161 = SNMP, also uses 162

Question 55

Why are North-South traffic flows often seen as targets for malicious attackers? North-South communications are only used to send highly sensitive data. North-South traffic cannot be secured, and therefore is an easily exploited vulnerability in any Network. North-South traffic flows transmit data over the public Internet. North-South traffic flows are not targeted by attacks.

Answer 55

North-South traffic flows transmit data over the public Internet. Explanation: East-West traffic flows transmit data within a Network environment.

Question 56

Management has decided to implement a small private Network for guests. The Network will consist of Windows 7 computers that will only be able to access the other computers on the Private Network. You recommend that the small private Network use APIPA addresses. Which of the following is a valid APIPA address? 192. 168.16.45 172. 16.4.36 10. 1.1.131 169. 254.2.120

Answer 56

169.254.2.120 Explanation: APIPA = 169.254.0.0 through 169.254.255.255 CLASS A = 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255 CLASS B = 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 CLASS C = 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255

Question 57

Technicians have recently reported to you that the type of lighting in your company's building can affect the Network communication. Which of the following statements is TRUE? Fluorescent lighting fixtures emit high levels of EMI. Incadescent bulbs emit high frequency electromagnetic waves that can resonate with 100 Mbps transmissions, causing them to amploify beyond the capacity of the media. Halogen lights emit a full spectrum of light that can interfere with Fiber-Optic transmissions. The outer jacket of UTP and STP cable deteriorates when exposed to some types of fluorescent lighting.

Answer 57

Fluorescent lighting fixtures emit high levels of EMI. Explanation: EMI is essentially the noise that is picked up on a Network cable. EMI from flurescent lights can corrupt data. Halogen Lights and Incandescent bulbs do not interfere with Fiber-Optics. UTP and STP cable does NOT deteriorate in the prescence of fluorescent lighting. EMI affects cable placement. Cross-Talk = Specialized type of EMI caused by parallel runs of twisted-pair cables. Near-End Crosstalk (NEXT) = measures the ability of the cable to resist crosstalk. Db loss (Attenuation) = occurs because the voltage decays slowly as the curent travels the length of the cable. The longer the cable run, the more Db loss occurs.

Question 58

While reviewing recent performance reports from your Network devices, you notice that there are a high number of corrupt packets reaching a Router named Router34. What is most likely happening to them? The packets are causing the interface to reset. The packets are being forwarded to the next Router upstream. The packets are being dropped. The packets are causing the duplexing method to change.

Answer 58

The packets are being dropped.

Question 59

You are installing the wiring for a small office. You want to connect the fifty computers in the office to the Switch. The CAT6 cables that you plan to use have RJ-45 connectors on both ends. Which component should you use? demarcation extension 110 block patch panel 66 block

Answer 59

patch panel Explanation: Patch Panels = Also known as Patch Bays help with cable management. 66 Block or 110 Block = these devices require that the cable be directly terminated into the device. Demarcation Extension = often called a demarc extension is used to extend a leased line from its original demarcation point. Smart Jack = terminates a PRI/T1 at your location. The provider designates everything connecting to the inside of the smart jack.

Question 60

Your company periodically exchanges confidential information with a third party via a signal server at each company. Management has recently become conerned that communications between the two servers has been intercepted and read. You have been asked to ensure that messages between the two authenticated computers are encrypted to prevent attackers from reading the messages. What protocol should you use? TLS DNS TFTP UDP

Answer 60

TLS (Transport Layer Security) Explanation: TLS = encrypts messages transmitted between two authenticated computers, preventing thrid parties from reading the messages. Works at the Transport Layer of the OSI Model. DNS = Domain Name System, translates a computers Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) to it's IP Address. Works at the Application Layer of the OSI Model. Reverse DNS does the opposite. TFTP = Trivial File Transfer Protocol is connectionless version of File Transfer Protocol (FTP). Transfers files between a client and a server. TFTP works at the Application Layer of the OSI Model. UDP = User Datagram Protocol is part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. It's connectionless. Works at the Transport Layer of the OSI Model and uses datagrams for communication.

Question 61

What is a correct description of a Honeypot System? a type of attack in which the target system is flooded with unauthorized service requests a computer used to entice an attacker a test methodology used to reveal vulnerabilities a tool used to detect alterations in system files

Answer 61

a computer used to entice an attacker

Question 62

You have decided to implement 802.1q. What does this stand for? It implements VLAN trunking. It fowards traffic based on Priorities. It implements MAC Filtering. It implements STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)

Answer 62

It implements VLAN trunking. Explanation: 802. 1Q = VLAN 802. 1D = STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)

Question 63

A customer has asked you to deploy a solution based on Port numbers that allows multiple computers to share a single IP Address. Which address technology should you deploy? APIPA DHCP PAT NAT

Answer 63

PAT (Port Address Translation) Explanation: PAT = Port Number based, you are able to share a single public IP Address among multiple computers on the same Network. NAT = Network Address Translation, based on the individual IP Address of the NAT clients. APIPA = Automatic Private IP Addressing, is a private addressing scheme. DHCP = Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, dynamic IP Addressing scheme where DHCP servers assign the IP Address.

Question 64

A new file server is configured to allow personnel within the computer to store files. Users are reporting that they cannot upload files to the file server. What might be the areas you should examine? (Choose Two) Duplicate IP Addresses Hardware Failure Blocked TCP/UDP Ports Incorrect ACL Settings

Answer 64

Blocked TCP/UDP Ports | Incorrect ACL Settings

Question 65

Your company is located in Atlanta, Georgia. Management has decided to deploy multiple 802.11b WLANs. You are concerned that there are not enough non-overlapping channels to support the number of access points that you need to deploy. How many non-overlapping channels are supported in this deployment? ``` three eleven five one eight six ```

Answer 65

three Explanation: 802.11b = 3 non-overlapping channels, 1, 6, 11.

Question 66

You are troubleshooting a connectivity problem with a computer named Computer1 on a Network that has a Router with the IP Address of 192.168.10.1. The Network uses a non-subnetted CLASS C IP Address range. Computer1 is configured with an IP Address of 192.168.10.255 and a default gateway address of 192.168.10.1. The computers on the Network are configured with the subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Computer1 cannot connect to the other nodes on the Network. The link lights on Computer1's Network Interface Card (NIC) are lit. What is most likely causing the connectivity problem? ``` Computer1's NIC Computer1's IP Address the Subnet Mask used on the Network the Router's IP Address Computer1's Default Gateway Address ```

Answer 66

Computer1's IP Address Explanation: The Range of Hosts in this scenario is 192.168.10.1 through 192.168.10.254. 1 is reserved for the Default Gateway Router, and 255 reserved for the Broadcast Address and shouldn't be used for Hosts.

Question 67

Which of the following is a Security implication if your company uses a public cloud deployment? Other tenants can gain physical access to the resources that store your company's data. Security issues are the sole responsibility of the company's personnel. The local ISP and power grid can impact the availability of resources stored on the cloud. Surges in demand require that company resources will need to be adjusted accordingly.

Answer 67

Other tenants can gain physical access to the resources that store your company's data.

Question 68

You are a Network admin for an organization whose Network uses the Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) Routing protocol. Which metric does this protocol use for optimal path calculation? Cost Delay Hop Count MTU

Answer 68

Cost Explanation: OSPF = calculates the COST of a link as inversely proportional to bandwidth of that interface. Therefore, a higher bandwidth indicates a lower cost and more a more favorable metric. MTU = Maximum Tranmission Unit, bandwidth, delay (latency), load, and reliability form a composite metric used by Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) and Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP). Distance Routing Vectors. Hop Count = Used by RIP (Routing Information Protocol). The few hops between Routers, the better the path.

Question 69

You use a computer on a TCP/IP Network to transfer data through well-known TCP Port 80. Which protocol is most likely being used to transfer data? FTP SMTP HTTP POP3

Answer 69

HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) Explanation: FTP = 20, 21 (File Transfer Protocol) SMTP = 25 (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) POP3 = 110 (Post Office Protocol v3)

Question 70

Which metric is used by the Routing Information Protocol (RIP) version 2 protocol to determine the Network path? delay convergence bandwidth hop count

Answer 70

hop count Explanation: RIP does not use Delay, Bandwidth, or Convergence, uses Hop Count. RIPv1, v2, and IGRP are considered Distance Vector Protocols. OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) uses Cost to measure Network Path.

Question 71

Which of the following types of backups would back up data that has NOT been changed since the last backup? incremental backup full backup differential backup system snapshot

Answer 71

full backup Explanation: Full Back = Backup of ALL files on a system, regardless of whether the data has been changed or not. Differential Backups = Look at the archive bit and backup all data whose archive bit is set. Backup of all changes since the last full backup. Incremental Backups = look at the archive bit and back up all data whose archive bit is set. Backup of all changes since the last backup of any type. Snapshot = Creates a system image at any given point in time. Considered a form of backup, Snapshots are not concerned with archive bits and capture the entire system state instead.

Question 72

You are designing a SOHO Network for your company. You want to use the Ethernet standard that supports a data transmission rate of 1 Gbps over copper cable. Which Ethernet standard should you use on the Network? 1000BaseCX 1000BaseSX 10Base-T 100Base-FX

Answer 72

1000BaseCX Explanation: 1000BaseCX = Copper, 1 Gbps transmission rate over 150-ohms. 25 meters. 10Base-T = supports transmission rates of 10 Mbps that meets or exceeds CAT3 standards. 100Base-FX = Fast Ethernet standard, supports transmission rates of 100 Mbps over Fiber. 1000BaseSX = Gigabit Ethernet, transmission rates of 1 Gbps over Single-Mode Fiber. 1000BaseLX = Transmission rates of 1 Gbps over Multi-Mode Fiber. IEEE 1904.1-2013 = The standard for convergent digital home Networks and has the following options. - Ethernet over HDMI, supports 4.92 Gbps or higher transmission and up to 15 feet. - Ethernet over Power Line, uses electrical wiring in your house to create a Network. Speeds of this connection are slow at 50 Kbps to 14 Mbps.

Question 73

You are giving a presentation about Internet browsing safety at a senior living center. The residents want to create social media accounts to keep in contact with the grandkids. Which user security concern should you emphasize? Disabling uncessary services. Avoiding common passwords. Hashing files. Disabling unused ports.

Answer 73

Avoiding common passwords. Explanation: Avoiding common passwords - is critical to establish basic security. Disabling unused ports - is excellent way to secure a Switch, not a user account. File Hashing - is excellent security to detect whether or not a file has been intercepted and altered, but it will not seucre a user account. Disabling uncessary services - helps reduce the number of potential exploits available to an attacker, but not useful to securing a user account.

Question 74

Which option represents the amount of time that a system is epxected to be operational over the cousre of a year? Port aggregation NIC teaming High availability Load balancing

Answer 74

High availability Explanation: High Availability - refers to the amount of time that the system is expected to be operational over the course of a year. Load Balancing - is the process of diverting Network traffic from a server with heavy workload to a server with a lighter workload. NIC Teaming - is binding two or more Network Interface Cards (NIC) so they appear as one. Port Aggregation - is binding two or more Network ports so they appear as one.

Question 75

Your company's security policy states that passwords should never be transmitted in plain text. You need to determine if the policy is being followed. Which tool should you use? protocol analyzer vulnerability scanner password cracker network mapper

Answer 75

protocol analyzer Explanation: Protocol Analyzer = captures packets as they are transmitted on the Network. If a password is transmitted in plain text, you will be able to see the password in the packet. Also called Network Analyzers or Packet Sniffers. Password Cracker = used to test the strength of your passwords. Vulnerability Scanner = tests your Network for known vulnerabilities and suggests ways to prevent vulnerabilities. Network Mapper = obtains a visual map of the topology of your Network, including all devices on the Network.

Question 76

Your organization needs to performa a Risk Assessment for their ISP. Which specific type of Assessment should you complete? Posture Assessment Vendor Assessment Process Assessment Vulnerability Assessment

Answer 76

Vendor Assessment Explanation: Vendor Assessment = designed to evaluate and approve potential third-party vendors to ensure that the products that they are providing are safe and secure to use. Process Assessment = is considered to be a business risk assessment. An org will analyze the various processes and policies that are in place and assess how secure these routines are. Threat Assessment = is posture assessment, and a vulnerability assessment are all forms of a Security Risk assessment. - Threat Assessment = determines the credibility and seriousness of a potential threat. - Posture Assessment = used to provide a detailed analysis of an orgs current cybersecurity strength. - Vulnerability Assessment = used to identify, quantity, and prioritize the various vulnerabilities within a Network. All of these Assessments are used in Risk Management process to determine where Risks may be, how severe they are, and what remediation tactics can be used to minimize their potential impacts.

Question 77

A server on your Network contains several virtual servers. However, the server contains a single NIC. Which statement MOST likely describes the communication from this server? it transmits data using IPv6 it transmits data from multiple IP Addresses it transmits data using IPv4 it transmits data from multiple MAC Addresses

Answer 77

it transmits data from multiple IP Addresses Explanation: The server contains several virtual servers with a single Network Interface Card (NIC), it is most likely to transmit data from multiple IP Addresses. It could also transmit data from a single IP Address, but with each virtual server using a different port number. The server does not transmit data from multiple MAC Addresses because a MAC Address is the Physical Address for the NIC, this server only uses a single MAC Address. Virtual Servers can be implemented using either IPv4 or IPv6, the number of NICs used in a virtual server has no effect on which IP version should be used.

Question 78

A new user is reporting a "Destination Host Unreachable" message. What is the most likely culprit? incorrect time incorrect gateway untrusted SSL certificate Rogue DHCP server

Answer 78

incorrect gateway

Question 79

Prior to deploying a new Wireless Access Point (WAP) at a retail store that is located in a strip mall, you decide to perform a Site Survey. Which statements describe the purpose of doing this? (Choose Two) to find out the required Internet Bandwidth to find the frequency and power settings to be used on access points to calculate the hop count to the gateway to find out the server processing speed required to calculate the number of access poitns required for the coverage area

Answer 79

to find the frequency and power settings to be used on access points to calculate the number of access points required for the coverage area

Question 80

You are installing a known good NIC in a computer, and a spark jumps from your hand to the NIC. You install the NIC and discover that the NIC no longer operates correctly. What has most likely caused the NIC to malfunction? RFI a power sag ESD EMI

Answer 80

ESD (Electrostatic Discharge) Explanation: ESD = occurs when static electricity jumps from an object with a higher electrical charge to an object with a lower electrical charge. EMI = Electromagnetic Interference, occurs near sources of strong magnetic fields, such as electrical generators and transformers. Power Sag = occurs when the amount of power in electrical power lines drops for a short period of time. Brownout = occurs when the amount of power in electrical power lines drops for an extended period of time. Blackout = occurs when all power is lost in the electric power lines, typically for an extended period of time. Power Spikes/Power Surges = occurs when power increases above the normal amount of power in electrical power lines. RFI = Radio Frequency Interference, occurs near sources of high power radio transmissions.

Question 81

You suspect that there is a problem with addressing that allows data to be sent throughout your Network. Which addressing method is used at the OSI Network layer to allow this? Physical device addressing. Link-state addressing Distance vector addressing Logical Network addressing

Answer 81

Logical Network addressing Explanation: Physical Device Addressing = OSI Layer 2 (Data Link) uses MAC Addresses Logical Network Addressing = OSI Layer 3 (Network) defined by the protocol's addressing scheme. Service Addressing = is the other addressing method used by the OSI Network Layer, used to identify a specifc upper-layer process or protocol. Service Address = is known as a Port or Socket

Question 82

You originally configured a redundant server with a static IP Address, and it has been offline for some time. When you power the server up to perform some tests, what might be an expected consequence? Blocked TCP/UDP Ports Duplicate IP Addresses Names not resolving Incorrect host-based Firewall settings

Answer 82

Duplicate IP Addresses

Question 83

The security administrator just updated some security settings, including settings on Routers and Firewalls. Users are complaining that they cannot access certain remote resources that they were able to access prior to the changes being made. What is most likely the problem? Incorrect netmask Duplicate MAC address Incorrect ACL settings Incorrect time

Answer 83

Incorrect ACL settings (ACL = Access Control List)

Question 84

You are the Network admin for a manufacturing company. Technicians that work on computers used on the manufacturing floor may come into contact with dangerous chemicals. You need to understand which chemicals they will come into contact with and their associated safety issues. What should you consult? HVAC ACL ESD MSDS

Answer 84

MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) Explanation: MSDS = helps to understand which chemicals someone may come into contact with and any safety issues regarding those chemicals. ACL = Access Control List, determines who has access to what resources. ESD = Electrostatic Discharge, can damage electronic and computer components. HVAC = Heating, Ventilation, and Air Condition, systems control the temperature and humidty in a building.

Question 85

What attack is also considered to be a social engineering attack? a backdoor an email hoax a Trojan horse a logic bomb

Answer 85

an email hoax Explanation: Logic Bomb = is a program that is designed to destroy Network resources when a specific event occurs. Backdoor = is an unguarded pathway into a network. Trojan Horse = is a program that seems innocuous but contains malicious code that can damage Network resources or provide hackers with a pathway into a Network.

Question 86

A user reports that she cannot print from her computer. You also notice that they are unable to reach a supplier's Web Site. The operating system is Windows 8.1. Which command should you start with to help with your diagnosis? nmap route ping dig

Answer 86

ping Explanation: ping = allows you to test the connection between a local computer and a node on the Network. You can issue the ping command with either the printer's network name, or the IP address of the printer. nmap = Linux Command used to explore the Network. Route = command used to add additional routes in your Network. dig = command is used in Linux to find DNS info.

Question 87

You administer a TCP/IP Network. You want to enable the Hosts on your Network to be automatically configured with IP configurations, such as IP Address, Subnet Mask, and a Default Gateway Address. The IP configurations should be leased to the clients for a limited time. Which protocol should you use to accomplish this task? ``` SMTP DHCP IPP BOOTP HTTP ```

Answer 87

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) Explanation: DHCP = automatically configures the Hosts on your Network with IP configurations. BOOTP = BOOTstrap Protocol, is a host configuration protocol that was designed before DHCP. HTTP = Hypertext Transfer Protocol, use to transfer Web Pages on a TCP/IP Network. SMTP = Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, used to transfer email messages on a TCP/IP Network. IPP = Internet Printing Protocol, used to enable Network printing through a TCP/IP Network such as the INternet.

Question 88

You need to implement a Wireless Network for a client. You have two 802.11a, two 802.11b and two 802.11g Wireless Access Points (WAP). You need to implement three Wireless Networks that can communicate with each other. Which Wireless Access Points should you use? the 802.11a and 802.11b Wireless Access Points the 802.11b and 802.11g Wireless Access Points the 802.11a and 802.11g Wireless Access Points You can use all of them together.

Answer 88

the 802.11b and 802.11g Wireless Access Points Explanation: 802. 11a = 5 GHz with 54 Mbps, Channel 20 - 80 MHz 802. 11b = 2.4 GHz with 11 Mbps, Channel 22 MHz 802. 11g = 2.4 GHz with 54 Mbps, Channel 20 MHz 802. 11n = 2.4 GHz/5 GHz with 600 Mbps, Channel 20 - 40 MHz 802. 11ac = 5 GHz with 900 Mbps, Channel 20 - 80 MHz

Question 89

What is the aim of Security Awareness Training? All employees excluding top managements hould understand the legal implications of loss of information. All employees in the IT departement should be able to handle social engineering attacks. All employees in the IT department should be able to handle Security incidents. All employees must understand their Security responsibilities.

Answer 89

All employees must understand their Security responsibilities.

Question 90

One of your branch offices is located on two non-adjacent floors in an office building. You have been given permission to route a communications link between the two floors using existing conduit in the building's elevator shaft. Your current cabling plan calls for TP wiring on each of the two floors, but the distance between them is more than 90 meters. You need to interconnect the two floors using fiber optic cable in the cheapest manner possible. Which of the following should you deply between the wiring centers on each floor? ``` Switches Routers Modems Hubs Firewalls Media Converters ```

Answer 90

Media Converters

Question 91

You just installed a replacement Switch that was moved from one part of the Network to a new location. After all the patch cables are reconnected, some users cannot communicate via email. What is the most likely issue? Bad Port Attenuation Network connection LED status indicators VLAN mismatch

Answer 91

VLAN mismatch

Question 92

You have been asked to implement a Wireless Network in a shared office building in a signal-rich environment. A wireless scan of the environment on your target floor shows that the 5 GHz frequencies are not widely used in that building. Which of the following 802.11 WIFI networking technologies should you choose in this scenario? (Choose ALL that Apply) 802. 11a 802. 11n 802. 11g 802. 11ax 802. 11b 802. 11ac

Answer 92

802. 11a 802. 11n 802. 11ax 802. 11ac Explanation: Wanted you to identify the Wireless Standards compatable with 5 GHz Frequency.

Question 93

Which of these devices can be used to divert incoming Web Traffic to specific servers based on its content? Wireless Controller VPN Concentrator Load Balancer AAA Server

Answer 93

Load Balancer

Question 94

Users are complaining about a decrease in Network performance. You need to verify that the ISP is meeting the terms outlined in the SLA. What tool should you use? Port Scanner Protocol Analyzer Packet Sniffer Bandwidth Speed Tester

Answer 94

Bandwidth Speed Tester Explanation: Protocol Analyzer = allows you to intercept and examine Network traffic. Packet Sniffer = used to monitor the contents of Network Traffic (Packets). Port Scanner = used to identify open ports on a host or a server.

Question 95

Which four of the following elements are most likely to appear in a well-designed password policy that explains requirements for formulating secure passwords? (Choose Four) ``` pet's name one or more special cahracters one or more numbers mix of upper and lower case characters spouse's birthday 12 characters or longer ```

Answer 95

one or more special characters one or more numbers mix of upper and lower case letters 12 characters or longer

Question 96

Which of these controls could be used to trigger an alarm in the event of unauthorized entry into a room or building? Tamper detection Motion detection Asset tracking tags Smart Cards

Answer 96

Motion detection Explanation: Motion Detection = Sensors could be used to trigger an alarm when movement is detected. Tamper Detection = involves implementing a method to determine if something has been altered without authorization. Smart Cards = provide authentication using something you have in your possession. Asset Tracking Tags = used to assign a number to particular piece of equipment. Motion Detection, Video Surveillance, Asset Tracking Tags, Tamper Detection are all considered to be Physical Security detection devices. They detect when a security event has occurred.

Question 97

Which of the following relies on credentials stored and authenticated on the device being used? RADIUS Certificates Local Authentication Kerberos

Answer 97

Local Authentication Explanation: Local Authentication = Credentials are stored on the device being used (Local). Certificates = issued by a Certificate Authority (CA). Kerberos = uses a third-party server. RADIUS = Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service servers handle both Authentication and Authorization.

Question 98

Management has asked you to investigate upgrading your company's network from IPv4 to IPv6. What are valid reasons you should give for performing this upgrade? (Choose Two) IPv4 is too slow for Internet traffic. Routing traffic is increasingly difficult due to the rapid growth of the Internet. IPv6 provides approximately 10 times more host addresses than IPv4. IPv4 addresses are being depleted at an increasing rate.

Answer 98

Routing traffic is increasingly difficult due to the rapid growth of the Internet IPv4 addresses are being depleted at an increasing rate

Question 99

Which four of the following statements explains why training employees about proper licensing and use of an organization's software and hardware is important? (Choose Four) To prevent unauthorized or improper consumption of licenses. To comply with license restrictions or limitations. To make effective use of automated license management. To promote minimal consumption of licenses. To practice good organizational ethics and governance. To avoid liability from violating license rules and restrictions.

Answer 99

To prevent unauthorized or improper consumption of licenses. To comply with license restrictions or limitations. To practice good organizational ethics and governance. To avoid liability from violating license rules and restrictions.

Question 100

You are the Network Admin for a corporate Network that includes a DNS Server, a DHCP Server, a File/Print Server, and a Wireless Subnet. Computers on the Wireless Subnet are having trouble connecting to the Internal Resources and the Internet. Upon troubleshooting the problem, you discover that some of the Wireless computers can only access resources on other Wireless computers. However, some of the Wireless computers can access internal resources and the Internet. What is causing some of the Wireless computers to be able to access other Wireless computers only? The computers are configured to operate in Ad Hoc Mode. The computers are configured to operate in Infrastructure Mode. The computers are configured with the wrong Subnet Mask. The computers are configured with a Static IP Address.

Answer 100

The computers are configured to operate in Ad Hoc Mode.

Question 101

The network administrator has changed the IP address of several servers on the Network. Now a user named Jim is unable to connect to the file shares on those severs using the Computer Name. You need to run the appropriate command(s) on Jim's computer to resolve the problem. Select the appropriate command(s) from the list and place them in the appropriate order. Only select commands that are necessary for the scenario. The scenario may include one or more commands. ORDER is Important. ``` ipconfig /flushdns ipconfig /all ipconfig /registerdns ipconfig /displaydns ipconfig /renew ipconfig /release ipconfig /showclassid ipconfig /setclassid ```

Answer 101

ipconfig /flushdns

Question 102

You have decided to implement a firewall between your company's network and the internet. What does a firewall solution typically provide? (Choose Three) ``` HTTP Proxy Services L2 Cache L1 Cache IP Proxy Services Packet Filtering ```

Answer 102

HTTP Proxy Services IP Proxy Services Packet Filtering

Question 103

You utilize different components, protocols, and technologies on your Company's Network. You need to determine the Layer of the OSI model on which these function. Match the Components with the Layer of the OSI Model for which they operate? ``` OSI Layers: Physical Data Link Network Transport Session Presentation Application ``` ``` Components: RPC DHCP TCP Network Cable MIME IPSec FDDI ```

Answer 103

Physical = Network Cable Data Link = FDDI (Fiber Distributed Data Interface) Network = IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) Transport = TCP (Transport Control Protocol) Session = RPC (Remote Procedure Call) Presentation = MIME (Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) Application = DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

Question 104

Which open standard creates a redundancy group to share an IP Address? NAT LACP CARP HSRP

Answer 104

CARP (Common Address Redundancy Protocol) Explanation: HSRP = Hot Standby Router Protocol LACP = Link Aggregation Control Protocol NAT = Network Address Translation

Question 105

UTILITY - provides a listing of all Routers through which data must pass? ping ipconfig netstat tracert

Answer 105

tracert

Question 106

UTILITY - used to determine whether a specific IP address is accessible? ping tracert traceroute ipconfig

Answer 106

ping

Question 107

UTILITY - that you can use to determine the computer's inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections? ping netstat nslookup tracert

Answer 107

netstat

Question 108

UTILITY - used to display current assigned TCP/IP network settings? ping tracert netstat ipconfig

Answer 108

ipconfig

Question 109

During a recent troubleshooting incident, you discovered a problem with some network transmission media. The communication over the media was distorted. Which issue most likely caused this problem? EMI Attenuation ESD Crosstalk

Answer 109

EMI (Electromagnetic Interference) Explanation: EMI = interference in the operation of other electrical devices cuased by electromagnets, which distorts the signal. Crosstalk = specialized EMI caused by parallel runs of twisted-pair cables. ESD = Electrostatic Discharge

Question 110

While designing an IPv6 addressing scheme for your Network, you decide to use EUI for the host portion of each node's address. You need to derive a 64-bit EUI address for the hosts on your Network as part of the overall IPv6 address for each node. What should you do? Use the host's MAC address with FFFE inserted in the middle. Use the host's MAC address, and repeate the first two bytes of that address at the end. Use the host's MAC address with all 1s (FFFF) inserted in the middle. Use the host's MAC address with FFFE inserted in the middle, and invert the seventh most significant bit in the MAC address. Use the host's MAC address preceded by 16 zero bits at the begining.

Answer 110

Use the host's MAC address with FFFE inserted in the middle, and invert the seventh most significant bit in the MAC address.