ITM 2 The Young Adult Flashcards

1
Q

What type of virus is HIV

A

RNA virus

Retrovirus

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2
Q

What is the p24 antigen

A

Early marker of infection in HIV

Capsid response releases p24 but over time disappears as antigens develop against it

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3
Q

What are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A

Zidovudine phosphorylated by intracellulae thymidine kinase to form active zidovudine 5-triphosphate

Zidovudine 5-triphosphate terminates viral DNA chain elongation via competition with TMP and incorporation into DNA

Resistance via mutations in reverse transcriptase codons

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4
Q

Non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A

Efavirenz
- diffuses into cell and binds adjacent to active site of reverse transcriptase, leading to conformation change to inhibit
Different site from NRTIs

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5
Q

What do protease inhibitors do in HIV

A

Virus takes over the cells and produces new viral proteins. Protease enzyme processes these
HIV viral protease is essential for infectivity
Cleaves viral polyprotein into:
- reverse transcriptase
- integrase
- protease
- structural proteins

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6
Q

What are fusion inhibitors

A
Eg enfuvirtide 
Similar to segment of viral glycoprotein gp41 
Prevents binding of virus to host cell 
Given IV 
Very expensive
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7
Q

What is HAART

A

Highly active antiretroviral therapy
2 nucleoside transcriptase inhibitors and either
- non nucleoside transcriptase inhibitor
Or
- protease inhibitor
Or
- integrase inhibitor

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8
Q

When are fusion inhibitors used

A

When the patient has been on HAART but have not responded to it (viral load has not been reduced)

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9
Q

When is HIV untransmissable

A

When the viral load has been undetectable for 6 months

97% of patients diagnosed with HIV are virally suppressed

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10
Q

What is molnupiravir

A

Pro drug
Ribonucleoside analogue increases the number of mutations in viral RNA
Prevents replication - lethal mutagenesis
Anti coronavirus medication (first oral)
50% reduction in hospital admission
30% reduction in severe complications (for unvaccinated patients)
For patients with at least 1 risk factor

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11
Q

What is remdesivir

A

Nucleotide prodrug of an adenosine analogue
An inhibitor of the viral RNA-dependent, RNA polymerase
IV
For hospitalised patients

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12
Q

What is HIV

A

A virus spread through certain body fluids that attacks the immune system
Life long condition
Highly stigmatised
Disproportionately affects vulnerable groups
Very treatable

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13
Q

Pathology of HIV

A

HIV infects lymphocytes with CD4 receptors
HIV binds to the CD4 receptor and enters cell
Uses enzymes to make copies of itself
CD4 cell destroyed in process
Decline in CD4 cells leads to immunosuppression

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14
Q

Describe the primary / acute infection of HIV

A

Within 7-21 days HIV becomes detectable in the blood stream- acute HIV symptoms due to extremely high levels of viraemia may occur within weeks to few months of infection

  • main target CD4 T helper cells - can fall considerably at this time
  • fever, rash, lymphadenopathy, meningitis, rarely opportunistic infections
  • by 6 months CD4 recovers to a level as viral load falls to a set point
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15
Q

What are the stages of HIV infection

A

1) seroconversion: flu like illness shortly after infection. Viral load high, no anti HIV antibodies
2) asymptomatic: stable infection, no symptoms, lasts for years. Viral load low, anti HIV antibodies, stable CD4
3) symptomatic: signs of damaged immune system, infections, tiredness, weight loss, diarrhoea, cancers etc. any viral load, low CD4

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16
Q

What opportunistic infections are common at a CD4 count of >500

A

Persistent generalised lymphadenopathy

Candidal vaginitis

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17
Q

What opportunistic infections are common at a CD4 count of 200-500

A

Bacterial pneumonia
Pulmonary TB
Herpes zoster
Oral candidiasis

18
Q

What opportunistic infections are common at a CD4 count of <200

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

Miliary / extrapulmonary TB

19
Q

What opportunistic infections are common at a CD4 count of <100

A

Candida oesophagitis
Penicillinosis
Toxoplasmosis
Cryptococcosis

20
Q

What opportunistic infections are common at a CD4 count of <50

A

Mycobacterium avium complex

Disseminated cytomegalovirus

21
Q

Side effects of anti HIV medications

A
GI upset: nausea, diarrhoea 
Rashes and allergies 
Renal toxicity 
Liver toxicity 
Reduced bone mineral density 
Lipodystrophy and weight gain 
Increased cardiovascular risk / blood pressure / lipids / blood sugars 
Peripheral neuropathy
22
Q

Drug interactions in anti HIV drugs

A
Very common with antiretrovirals 
Induction or inhibition of liver metabolism 
Gastric pH changing absorption 
Divalent cations reducing absorption 
Additive side effects 
Blocking renal excretion
23
Q

Why is adherence so important in HIV patients

A

Need high levels of drugs in the blood all the time to stop virus multiplying

Taking tablets correctly all the time

  • no missed doses
  • no late doses
  • follow food restrictions
24
Q

Management of the HIV patient

A

Biannual visit once established on treatment and undetectable
Viral load, clinical chemistry, haematology, lipids, HbA1c, sexual health screening

Height, weight, BP, waist circumferece
Discuss adherence, mood, partners, bone risks, contraception, vaccination

25
Describe mother to baby transmission of HIV
Can occur: - in utero (rare) - at delivery (15-25%) - breastfeeding (5-20%) If no intervention at all and mother not on ART, rate of transmission is about 25% up to 45% In the UK currently fewer than 5 babies per year are diagnosed with HIV
26
Prevention of HIV transmission during pregnancy
Pregnant women on an effective regimen should continue it Newly diagnosed pregnant women start triple therapy asap with a resistance test
27
How is an infant with a HIV infected mother treated
Undetectable viral load x 2 in mother and on ART >10 weeks - 14 days of zidovudine monotherapy - extend to 4 weeks if undetectable but other criteria is not filled If mother >50 copies, unknown or adherence uncertain: start neonatal PEP within 4 hours with combination Women in UK advised to formula feed
28
What is the Paul bunnell test
Tests for infectious mononucleosis which is caused by the Epstein barr virus (member of the herpes family)
29
What is the HIV p24 antigen
Present during the short period between HIV infection and seroconversion (when you have just been infected) Thought of as not a very useful test as doesn’t give us much information as can usually tell the rough period of time of infection depending on the symptoms
30
How should you prepare for breaking bad news to a patient
``` Signpost / warn them you are about to break bad news Private room Allow time for questions Allow time for silence Patient doesn’t want it flowered Don’t give results with a friend or relative in the room Time Optimistic outlook ```
31
What are peer educators
People with HIV that have gone through training to offer support to people with newly diagnosed HIV
32
What does CD4 count indicate
T cells
33
What immunisations should someone with HIV be offered
Influenza each yea r Hep B testing and immunisation as appropriate Pneumococcal vaccination Annual cervical smear recommended Due to immune system becoming suppressed
34
Why would someone with HIV be given a bone mineral density scan using DXA
As HIV infection and some HIV medications increase the risk of osteoporosis DXA is a dual energy X-ray used to measure bone mineral density with spectral imaging
35
What is atripla
600mg efavirenz 200mg emtrictiabine 300mg tenofovir disoproxil
36
What are the actions of the 3 drugs in atripla
Efavirenz: inhibits the activity of viral RNA directed DNA polymerase Emtricitiabine: chain termination and ceases vira DNA synthesis Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate: inhibits HIV-1 reverse transcriptase
37
Disadvantages of atripla
As it is 3 drugs in one it poses the issue of multiple drug reactions and side effects Also adherence as if levels drop too low there is a risk of drug resistance
38
How to counsel a patient taking atripla
Take on an empty stomach, preferably at bedtime as helps to make the side effects less bothersome Take the tablets at the same time every day Can cause dizziness, trouble sleeping, drowsiness, unusual dreams and trouble concentrating Avoid grapefruit juice as it can interfere with how the body deals with the drug Side effects should start 1-2 days after starting the medication and usually go away within 2-4 weeks Body fat may redistribute Can cause bone problems and joint stiffness
39
Clinical monitoring during therapy with atripla
Creatinine clearance Serum phosphate After 2-4 weeks of treatment, after 3 months of treatment and every 3-6 months thereafter
40
How can atripla affect pregnancy
Can interfere with the contraceptive pill and stop it from being effective Reinforce importance of condoms
41
What advice should you give to someone with HIV regarding pregnancy
Can conceive and have a normal pregnancy Usual to use some form of self insemination to not infect partner If viral load is low, expect a normal pregnnacy and uninflected baby Not able to breastfeed May have to have a ceserean Baby will be put on 2 weeks of antivirals when born
42
Why should you avoid St. John’s wort with atripla
Can interact with efavirenz and decrease its concentration Severely Moderately interacts with tenofovir by decreasing its exposure