CNS 6 Serious Mental Illness Flashcards

1
Q

What does a diagnostic interview involve

A

History (patient and informant)

Mental state examination

Physical examination
Risk assessment
Summary
Management plan

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2
Q

What does a psychiatric history taking involve

A
Presenting complaint 
Past psychiatric history 
Past medical history 
Family history 
Medications 
Personal history 
Forensic history 
Drug and alcohol history
Premorbid personality
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3
Q

What does the mental state examination assess

A
Appearance and behaviour 
Affect (appropriate behaviour) 
Speech (form and content) 
Mood (objective and subjective) 
Thoughts / preoccupations 
Abnormal beliefs 
Abnormal perceptions 
Suicidal or homicidal ideation / intent 
Cognition 
Insight
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4
Q

What are the parts of the risk assessment in the diagnostic interview

A

Danger to self eg self neglect, self harm, vulnerable to exploitation by others

Danger to others eg violence, theft, arson

Damage to property eg arson, destruction

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5
Q

ICD 10 features of schizophrenia

A

Characteristic symptoms for 1 month
Not attributable to organic brain disease or substance abuse

At least 1 of the following:
Thought echo, insertion, withdrawal or broadcasting
Delusiosn of control
Voices commenting or discussing
Persistent delusions that are culturally innapropriate

Or 2 of the following 
Persistent hallucinations in any modality when accompanied by delusions 
Catatonic behaviour 
Negative symptoms 
Neologisms
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6
Q

What are negative symptoms

A

Marked apathy
Paucity of speech
Blunting or incongruity of emotional responses

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7
Q

What are the 4 core positive psychopathologies seen in psychosis

A

Delusions: a false belief that persists despite evidence to the contrary and is not associated with any cultural, religious or political norms

Hallucinations: a perception in the absence of a stimulus

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8
Q

What is the blood brain barrier

A

An extreme form of lipid barrier with

  • few intercellular pores
  • numerous tight junctions
  • surrounded by glial cells

Lipid soluble drugs can penetreate and water soluble / polar drugs have limited access

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9
Q

Why is loratadine non sedating antihistamine when cetirizine hydrochloride is sedating

A

Loratadine is more polar so doesnt penetrate the blood brain barrier and so has no side effects eg drowsiness

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10
Q

What happens to the blood brain barrier in meningitis

A

It is less effective (causes the BBB to become leaky)

So can give antibiotics which would normally not pass throuhg eg benzylpenicillin

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11
Q

What is the difference between domperidone and metoclopramide

A

They are both anti emetics (prevent N&V)
Both dopamine receptor antagonists

Metoclopramide penetrates the BBB and can cause drug induced parkinsonism - only used short term

Domperidone does not penetrate the BBB so is less likely to cause parkinsonism

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12
Q

What is the fatal chemotherapy drug

A

Vincristine if given intrathecally (only use intravenously)

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13
Q

What is propofol

A

An induction anaesthetic given by IV infusion
Then replaced with a maintenance anaesthetic
Is a highly lipid soluble drug

Unconsciousness occurs within about 20 seconds and lasts for 5-10 mins (while anaesthesist is infusing)

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14
Q

Describe the concept of zero order kinetics

A

Eg phenytoin, ethanil

The enzymes become saturated so the rate of elimination is no longer proportional to [drug]

Eg small changes in dose of phenytoin lead to disproportionate increases in [phenytoin]

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15
Q

Effects of phenytoin if taken during pregnancy

A

Craniofacial abnormalities
Hypoplasia of distal phalanges
Growth deficiency
Mental deficiency

(Carbamazepine has similar effects but a decreased risk)

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16
Q

Effects of valporate if taken during pregnancy

A

Associated with neural tube defects

Learning difficulties

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17
Q

Use of antidepressants in pregnancy

A

SSRIs (esp citalopram and sertraline) are associated with cardiac septal defects
Therfore tricyclic antidepressants are favoured
Increased risk in first trimester hence why you should ask if there is any risk pt could be pregnant before prescribing

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18
Q

Interaction of Cyt P450 inducing agents with contraceptives

A

Can lead to a failure of therapy eg phenytoin, carbamazepine and phenobarbital

Therefore favour non inducing agents or use alternative contraceptive methods

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19
Q

Interaction of lamotrigine and oral contraceptives

A

Oral contraceptives can reduce plasma concentrations of lamotrigine
This is because lamotrigine activity is decreased by oestrogen

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20
Q

What are the clinical features of serotonergic syndrome

A

Headache
Confusion
Nausea
Twitching

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21
Q

What is the casue of serotonergic syndrome

A

SSRIs and 5HT agonists (triptans) can lead to increased 5-HT

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22
Q

What is st johns wort

A

has SSRI like actions

Can cause serotonergic syndrome if used with SSRIs so always ask pt if on any herbal medications

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23
Q

Negative effects of st johns wort

A

Oral contraceptives - can cause contraceptive failure
Anti HIV drugs- can stop them from working
Ciclosporin - used for organ rejection so could cause an organ to be rejected

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24
Q

What does the diagnostic interview involve

A

History taking (patient and informant)

Mental state examination

Physical examination
Risk assessment
Summary
Management plan

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25
Q

Information needed to refer a patient to eating disorder service

A

Height and recent weight and a comment on how they appear on inspection

Some anorexia symptoms

Background medical printout

Rate of weight loss is important in terms of risk and urgency

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26
Q

What is anorexia nervosa

A

A disorder characterised by deliberate weight loss and sustained by patient

Most common in adolescent girls and young women

Associated with a specific psychopathology whereby a dread of fatness and flabbiness of body contour as an intrusive overvalued idea and patients impose a low weight threshold on themselves

Disturbances of bodily function eg stopping periods

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27
Q

Symptoms of anorexia nervosa

A

Restricted dietary choice

Excessive exercise

Induced vomitting

Purgation

Use of appetite suppressants

Diuretics

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28
Q

Predisposing risk factors for anorexia

A

High conscientious personality

History of nutritional struggle (allergies, inflammatory conditions)

Tendency towards anxeity and low self esteem

Normal level of emotional neglect

Maternal behaviour and attitudes towards food and thinness

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29
Q

Precipitating effects leading to anorexia

A
Major life event: 
Puberty 
Parents separate or dysharmony 
Going to school-bullying and exams 
Going to uni 
Bereavement 
Other mental disorder
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30
Q

Psychopathology of anorexia

A

Frequent intrusive thoughts about fatness and its catastrophic consequences

Dysmorphic perceptions of being fat associated with anxiety and disgust

Intrusive thoughts about being greedy or lazy

Grossly exaggerated expectation of weight gain from eating

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31
Q

Behaviours of anorexia nervosa

A

Complaints of fatness and denial of hunger
Obsession with checking weight
Avoiding eating especially in front of others
Obsessing over and avoiding high calorie food
Social withdrawal
Over - exercise
Self induced vomiting
Excessive laxative abuse
Complaints of cold intolerance
Quad weakness and tiredness
Cognitive struggle

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32
Q

Signs and symptoms of anorexia nervosa

A
Weight loss / emaciated appearance 
Poor state of hair and skin 
Lanugo (downy baby hair) 
Amenorrhoea or irregular menses 
Calluses on finger joints 
Thinning of enamel 
Cold mottled hands and feet 
Swelling of feet 
Muscle weakness 
Persistent bradycardia 
First degree heart block
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33
Q

What is bullimia nervosa

A

Anorexia with binges and purges more than once a week for 3 months
Tend ot have normal or higher BMI hence less risk of misadventure due to binges

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34
Q

How is bullimia nervosa linked to emotional neglect

A

Insufficient episodes of maternal attunement and reciprocal mirroring for that person
Results in delay of development of the affect regulating circuitry in the right supraorbital cortex which leads to failures of unconscious affect regulation later in life

Consequences usually present in puberty when the entire system is under increased stress

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35
Q

What determines whether a patient present with anorexia nervosa or bullimia nervosa

A

The balance between the degree of neglect and the strength of the persons inhibitory capabilites ie perfectionism, conscientiousness

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36
Q

What things are useful in monitoring of bullimia nervosa

A

Mood and event diaries: food and love are shared- look for instances of patient being stood up, let down or otherwise neglected by others as an antecedent to the binge

Meal planning: reduces binge frequency by not allowing hunger to develop and also provides a framework for a secure unconscious attachment

37
Q

Differential diagnoses for disordered eating

A

Other specified feeding and eating disorders

Binge eating disorder

Avoidant restrictive food eating disorder- eating is linked to trauma and avoided for this reason rather than an obsession with weight and figure

Atypical anorexia - anorexia with normal weight

BN- with low purging frequency

Purging disorder - just purging

Night eating disorder

Orthorexia - unhealthy foucs in eating in a healthy way

38
Q

What are the ways in which people with eating disorders can fall through service provision gaps

A

Hospital wards can find them resistive to help and too ‘mental health’ while general psychiatric units can find them intimidatingly ‘too medical’

39
Q

What is the whack a mole concept

A

Common that anxiety disorders go hand in hand with depression
So for example success in treatment of OCD and AN can lead to a worsening of other symptoms such as depression and anxiety

40
Q

What medications are used in anorexia

A

Antidepressants - SSRI

Anxiolytics- benzodiazepines ideally as reassurance, short term
Propranolol- safer to use regularly

Antipsychotics -
Quetiapine - used for impulse control in bulimic end and also has anxiolytic and mood regulating effect
Sedation can help sleep

Olanzapine- good for anxiety, powerful appetite increase and weight gain effects

41
Q

What is psychosis

A

A set of symptoms
Loss of connection with reality
Often characterised by positive symptoms: delusions, hallucinations, thought disorder

42
Q

What is schizophrenia

A

One of the psychotic disorders
Characterised by recurrent psychotic episodes and a more chronic deterioration in cognitve, executive and social functioning

43
Q

What is a psychotic symptom

A

Delusion
Hallucination
Thought disorder
Smoking cannabis can cause these same symptoms

44
Q

What is a psychotic episode

A

Symptoms persist for a period of time (2-3 days)

45
Q

What is a psychotic disorder

A

Illness / clinical disorder characterised by psychotic symptoms eg schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, bipolar affective disorder

46
Q

What is a psychotic relapse

A

Where individuual with a psychotic disorder has another psychotic episode

47
Q

What is a clinical high risk of psychosis or an ultra high risk of psychosis

A

Where we are worried that the individual may develop a psychotic disorder but is currently demonstrating subthreshold symptoms and may be experiencing a prodromal illness

48
Q

Describe the positive symptoms of psychosis

A

Hallucinations in the absence of a stimulus: auditory, visual, olfactory, sensory, gustatory

Delusions:
Belief held in the absence of evidence which is culturally atypical can have bizarre content usually held with delusional conviction

Thought disorder: breakdown in the form or structure of thought
Fragmented or incoherent speech, difficult to follow

49
Q

Negative symptoms of psychosis

A
Avolition (lack of will / motivation 
Apathy 
Flattened affect (decreased reactivity of mood) 
Social withdrawal 
Alogia / poverty of thouhgt
50
Q

What are the cognitive impairments seen in psychotic disorders

A
Attention 
Working memory 
Planning and executive function 
Verbal learning 
Problem solving
51
Q

What is insight in psychosis

A

The patient can recognise and accept that thier experiences are abnormal and caused by a mental illness
Lack of insight in 90% of patients

Can change over time

52
Q

What questions can be used to assess insight

A

1) identifying unusual experiences - how do you explain them
2) awareness of illness - do you think you have an illness? Could there be a mental health explanation to this?
3) willingness to take treatment - would you agree with taking medication or having therapy

53
Q

What is classic schizophrenia

A

Recurrent / ongoing psychotic episodes + deterioration in mental and social functions over chronic course. Occurs in 0.7% of population

54
Q

What is schizoaffective disorder

A

Psychotic episodes + affective ie mood component

55
Q

What is bipolar affective disorder with psychotic features

A

Characterised by depressive and manic episodes where psyhcosis may be evident
Functioning may be less impaired between episodes

56
Q

What is depression with psychosis

A

Where delusion is often characterised by mood congruent symtpoms such as nihlistic delusions or delusions of guilt

57
Q

What is persistent delusional disorder

A

Delusions only present

58
Q

What is substanced induced psychosis

A

Where symptoms have been precipitated by substance use. Usually resolve wihtin 30 days after stopping drug

59
Q

What is schizophreniform illness

A

Like schizophrenia but symptoms <30 days

60
Q

What is ATPD

A

Brief psychosis, often stress induced

61
Q

What is schizotypy

A

Subclinical trait whihc does not meet threshold for schizophrenia. Useful for research purposes

62
Q

Medication for schizophrenia

A

Antipsychotics: D2 receptor antagonists since strong relationship between striatal dopamine release and clozapine is used in treaatment resistive schizophrenia

Antidepressants or mood stabilisers if there is a mood component to illness

63
Q

Psychological treatments of schizophrenia

A

CBT for psychosis
Family therapy
Psychoeducation
Substance misuse work

64
Q

When is the typical onset of schizophrenia

A

Adolesence

Men 15-25y, women 25-35y

65
Q

Neuronal influences that cause schizophrenia

A

Over activity of mesolimbic dopamine neurones
Under activity of mesocortical dopamine neurones
Post synaptic dopamine D2 and D 3 receptors
Cortical glutamate hypofunction and loss of GABA interneurones
Dysfunctional development of frontal cortex

66
Q

Cognitve effects of schizophrenia

A

Brain structure abnormalities present at onset of psychosis and not progressive
Suggests developmental rather than degenerative

Enlarged ventricles + reduced temporal lobe volume 6-10% (particularly hippocampus)

67
Q

Genetic effects of schizophrenia

A

Family high risk (1 parent = 12% risk) and 50% risk in identical twins

68
Q

Environmental triggers for schizophrenia

A

Early lesion hypothesis:

  • foetal or perinatal event eg virus, hypoxia or premature birth interacting with normal development
  • altered asymmetric development

Late lesion hypothesis
- deviation in maturation during adolesence

69
Q

What are the extrapyramidal side effects blockade of nigrostriatal D2 receptors

A

Acute dystonia - neck or spine spasms or rigidity and oculogyric crisis

Pseudo-parkinsonism- rigidity, tremor and bradykinesia

Akathisia - inability to sit still, restlessness and agitation

Tardive dyskinesia - abnormal movement of the face, mouth or jaw, lip smacking, tongue protrusion, grimacing, bodily writhing

70
Q

What is the role of dopamine antagonists

A

Increase prolactin release which correlate with clinical improvement

71
Q

What neuronal / cortical changes does schizophrenia cause

A

Neurodevelopmental - change in cortex / hippocampus
Reduced cortical glutamate function
Secondary increase in limbic dopamine function

72
Q

What is simultanagnosia

A

Are functionally blind except for the perception of one object in the visual field at a time

Inability to see more than one object at a time associated with bilateral posterior parietal damage

73
Q

Define selective attention

A

Required to limit entry to a finite capacity processing system by selecting only a subset of all available information

74
Q

Define divided attention

A

Attention itself is a resource of limited capacity which can be divided between tasks

75
Q

What is sustained attention

A

Processing capacity and attentional capacity linked to arousal

76
Q

What is top down attention directing mechanism

A

When attention is active (controlled by top down attention directing mechanism)
Includes a persons own intentions and expectations eg searching for a friend in the lecture theatre

77
Q

What is bottom up attention

A

Attention is passive if it is controlled by a bottom up attention capturing mechanism

Bottom up influences are directed by stimuli in the world that ‘catch’ our attention
Eg if someone taps you on the shoulder while reading, the tap will direct attention toward that person

78
Q

What is neglect syndrome

A

Unawareness of the side of space opposite to the lesion (left usually) contra-lesional space

No primary deficits of sensation or perception

79
Q

What is the difference between stress and distress

A

Stress is physical, mental or emotional strain whereas distress is extreme anguish or pain of the mind or body

80
Q

What are the 7 stages of grief

A

Shock- initial paralysis at hearing the bad news
Denial - trying to avoid the inevitable
Anger - frustrated outpouring of bottled up emotion
Bargaining - seeking in vain for a way out
Depression - final realisation of the inevitable
Testing - seeking realistic solutions
Acceptance - finally finding the way forward

81
Q

Examples of distress as a feature of primary presentation

A

Acute stress

Life events

Bereavement

82
Q

Types of distress as a result of injury or acute illness

A
MI 
Labour pains 
Previously undiagnosed illness 
Adverse drug reaction 
Delirium
83
Q

Types of distress resulting from mental illness

A

Anxiety
Depression
Psychosis

84
Q

Types of distress from alcohol and substance misuse

A

Intoxication

Withdrawal

85
Q

Types of distress from consultation

A

Bad news

Resulting from discomfort, pain, embarassment of self / others

86
Q

Emotional signs of distress

A

Affect, sadness, tearful, shock, anger, disbelief, incongrous eg laughter

87
Q

Behavioural signs of distress

A

Agitation, withdrawal, aggression

88
Q

Cognivive - verbal signs of distress

A

Silence

Shouting