ITIL4 Management Practices Flashcards

1
Q

A ___________ is a set of organizational resources designed for performing work or accomplishing an objective

A

management practice

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2
Q

__________ domains have been adopted and adapted for service management from general business management domains. Contains 14 practices

A

General management practice

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3
Q

____________ have been developed in service management and ITSM industries. There are 17 practices

A

service management practices

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4
Q

___________ have been adapted from technology management domains for service management purposes by expanding or shifting their focus from technology solutions to IT services. there are 3 practices

A

technical management practices

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5
Q

what are the 14 general management practices?

A
  1. architecture management
  2. continual improvement
  3. information security management
  4. knowledge management
  5. measurement and reporting
  6. organizational change management
  7. portfolio management
  8. project management
  9. relationship management
  10. risk management
  11. service financial management
  12. strategy management
  13. supplier management
  14. workforce and talent management
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6
Q

what are the 17 service management practices?

A
  1. availability management
  2. business analysis
  3. capacity and performance management
  4. change enablement
  5. incident management
  6. IT asset management
  7. monitoring and event management
  8. problem management
  9. release management
  10. service catalogue management
  11. service configuration management
  12. service continuity management
  13. service design
  14. service desk
  15. service level management
  16. service request management
  17. service validation and testing
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7
Q

What are the 3 technical management practices?

A
  1. deployment management
  2. infrastructure and platform management
  3. software development and management
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8
Q

What are the 15 practices that are highlighted for the ITIL 4 foundation exam?

A
  1. Continual improvement
  2. information security management
  3. relationship management
  4. supplier management
  5. change enablement
  6. incident management
  7. IT asset management
  8. monitoring and event management
  9. problem management
  10. release management
  11. service configuration management
  12. service desk
  13. service level management
  14. service request management
  15. deployment management
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9
Q

the purpose of ______________ is to protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business

A

information security management

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10
Q

the information security management practice includes understanding and managing risks to the ____________, ____________ and ______________, and other aspects of information security such as ___________ and _______________

A

confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information, authentication, non-repudiation

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11
Q

the required security in information security management is established by means of policies, processes, behaviors, risk management and controls which must maintain a balance between _______, __________, and _________.

A

prevention, detection and correction

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12
Q

information security management is driven from the ______________ , based on governance requirements and organizational policies

A

most senior level in the organization

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13
Q

In information security management, one needs to achieve a balance between ____________ and ____________

A

protecting the organization from harm, allowing it to innovate

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14
Q

information security is critically dependent on _______________ throughout the organization

A

the behavior of people

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15
Q

information security management interacts with ______________ in the system.

A

every other practice

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16
Q

the purpose of ______________ is to establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels.

A

relationship management

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17
Q

_________ includes the identification, analysis, monitoring, and continual improvement of relationships with and between stakeholders.

A

relationship management

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18
Q

What are the three levels an organization can be divided into?

A

strategic
tactical
operational

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19
Q

the _________ level provides overall direction to an organization or business

A

strategic

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20
Q

the _________ level accomplishes/fulfills specific objectives linked to the overall strategic plan.

A

tactical

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21
Q

the _______ level takes care of the day-to-day tasks and activities

A

operational

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22
Q

in relationship management __________ needs and drivers are understood, and products and services are prioritized appropriately

A

stakeholders’

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23
Q

in _________, stakeholders’ satisfaction is high and a constructive relationships between the organization and stakeholders is established and maintained

A

relationship management

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24
Q

in relationship management, _______________ for new or change products and services, in alignment with desired business outcomes, are effectively established and articulated

A

customers’ priorities

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25
Q

in ___________, any stakeholder’s complaints and escalations are handled well through a sympathetic, yet formal process. Products and services facilitate value creation for the service consumers as well as for the organization.

A

relationship management

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26
Q

the purpose of _____________ is to ensure that the organization’s suppliers and their performances are managed appropriately to support the seamless provision of quality products and services.

A

supplier management

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27
Q

____________ includes creating closer, more collaborative relationships with key suppliers to uncover and realize new value and reduce the risk of failure.

A

supplier management

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28
Q

The following factors affect the evaluation and selection of __________
1. importance and value of the service to the business.
2. the risk associated with using the service
3. the cost of the service and its provision

A

suppliers

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29
Q

the following are key activities of the _____________ practice:
1. creating a single point of visibility and control to ensure consistency.
2. maintaining supplier strategy, policy, and contract management information
3. negotiating and agreeing contracts and arrangements
4. managing relationships and contracts with internal and external suppliers
5. managing supplier performance

A

supplier management

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30
Q

in the ______ sourcing strategy, products or services are developed and/or delivered internally by the organization

A

insourcing

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31
Q

in the ________ sourcing strategy, the process of having external suppliers provide products and services that were previously provided internally

A

outsouring

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32
Q

the ________ sourcing strategy includes procurement of a product or service from one supplier

A

since source or partnership

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33
Q

the __________ sourcing strategy includes procurement of a product or service from more than one independent supplier

A

multi-sourcing

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34
Q

the purpose of _________ is to ensure accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services and the configuration items (CI) that support them are available when and where they are needed.

A

service configuration management

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35
Q

the ________ includes the understanding of how the configuration items are configured and the relationship between them.

A

service configuration management

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36
Q

a _________ is any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service.

A

configuration item (CI)

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37
Q

a ________ is a set of tools, data, and information that is used to support service configuration management.

A

configuration management system (CMS)

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38
Q

a ________ is a repository where configuration information is stored, accessed, and used.

A

configuration management database (CMDB)

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39
Q

any change to configuration items (CI) should be performed through _________.

A

change enablement practice

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40
Q

the following are the steps of the ________ process:
1. identify new CIs and add them to the CMS
2. Update configuration data when changes are deployed
3. verify that configuration records are correct
4. audit application and infrastructure to identify any that are not documented

A

configuration management

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41
Q

the purpose of _________ is to plan and manage the full life cycle of all IT assets.

A

IT asset management

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42
Q

the _____________ includes creating closer more collaborative relationships with key suppliers to uncover and realize new value and reduce the risk of failure.

A

IT asset management

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43
Q

the ___________ practice includes the following:
1. maximize value
2. control costs
3. manage risks
4. support decision making about purchase, re-use, and retirement of assets
5. meet regulatory and contractual requirements

A

IT asset management

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44
Q

_______ refers to the acquisition, operation, care and disposal of organizational assets, particularly critical infrastructure

A

asset management

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45
Q

________ is a sub-practice of asset management that is specially aimed at managing the life cycles and total costs of IT equipment and infrastructure

A

IT asset management

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46
Q

___________ is aimed at managing the acquisition, development, release, deployment, maintenance, and eventual retirement of software assets

A

software asset management

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47
Q

_____ is any valuable component that can contribute to the delivery of an IT product or service

A

IT Asset

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48
Q

IT asset management of ______ includes labelling for clear identification. their location must be tracked to help protect them from theft, damage and data leakage.

A

hardware assets

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49
Q

IT asset management for ______ includes protecting from unlawful copying, which could result in unlicensed use. The organization must ensure that license terms are adhered to

A

software assets

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50
Q

IT asset management for ________ includes assigning them to specific products or groups so that costs can be managed. contractual arrangements must be understood and adhered to

A

cloud-based assets

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51
Q

IT asset management for _________ includes assigning them to individuals who take responsibility for their care. Processes are needed to managed lost or stolen devices, and tools may be needed to erase sensitive data for them.

A

client assets

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52
Q

The purpose of _________ is to systematically observe services and service components, and record and report selected changes of state identified as events.

A

monitoring and event management

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53
Q

the _________ practice identifies and prioritizes infrastructure, services, business processes, and information security events, and establishes appropriate responses to those events, including responding to conditions that could lead to potential faults or incidents.

A

monitoring and event management

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54
Q

a ______ is any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other configuration item (CI).

55
Q

_____ are typically recognized through notifications created by an IT service, CI or monitoring tool

56
Q

the _________ practice manages events throughout their lifecycles to prevent, minimize or eliminate their negative impact on the business

A

monitoring and event management

57
Q

______ focuses on the systematic observation of services and the CIs that underpin services to detect conditions of potential significance.

A

monitoring

58
Q

__________ should be performed in a highly automated manner and can be done actively or passively.

A

monitoring

59
Q

_________ focuses on recording and managing those monitored changes of state that are defined by the organization as an event, determining their significance and identifying and initiating the correct control action to manage them.

A

event management

60
Q

monitoring is necessary for _____________ to take place, but not all monitoring results in the detection of an _________.

A

event management, event

61
Q

________ are classified into informational, warning and exceptions.

62
Q

________ events do not require action at the time they are identified, but analyzing the data gathered from them later may uncover desirable, proactive, steps that can be beneficial to the service.

A

informational

63
Q

_________ events allow action to be taken before any negative impact is experienced by the business.

64
Q

_________ events indicate that a breach to an established norm has been identified. These need to be acted upon though business impact may not yet have been experienced.

65
Q

the purpose of ____________ is to minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operations as quickly as possible

A

incident management

66
Q

a ______ is an unplanned interruption to a service or reduction in the quality of service.

67
Q

every incident should be ___________and _________ to ensure that it is resolved in a time that meets the expectations of the customer and user

A

logged (to Service Desk) and managed

68
Q

incident management _____________ are agreed, documented and communicated to ensure that expectations are realistic

A

target resolution times

69
Q

incidents are prioritized based on an agreed classification to ensure that incidents with the __________ are resolved first

A

highest business impact

70
Q

incident management can have an enormous impact on _____________ and on how customers and users perceive the service provider

A

customer and user satisfaction

71
Q

in incident management there should be a formal process for logging and managing __________

72
Q

in _________ there may be scripts for collecting information from users during initial contact and this may lead directly to diagnosis and resolution of simple incidents.

A

incident management

73
Q

information about incidents should be stored in ________ in a suitable tool

A

incident records

74
Q

the purpose of ______ is to reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents and managing workarounds and known errors

A

problem management

75
Q

a ____ is a cause or potential cause of one or more incidents

76
Q

a ______ is a problem that has been analyzed but has not been resolved.

A

known error

77
Q

a _______ is a solution that reduces or eliminates the impact of an incident or problem for which a full resolution is not yet available. some reduce the likelihood of incidents.

A

workaround

78
Q

_____ is a phase of problem management where the following happens:
1. identify and log problems
2. performing trend analysis of incident records
3. detecting duplicate and recurring issues by users, service desk, and technical support staff.
4. during major incident management, identifying a risk that an incident could occur
5. analyzing information received from suppliers and partners
6. analyzing information received from internal software developers, test teams, and project teams.

A

problem identification

79
Q

_______ is a phase of problem management where the following occurs:
- problem analysis, documenting workaround and known errors
- problems are prioritized for analysis based on the risk that they pose and are managed as risks based on their potential impact and probability
- should consider all the contributory causes, including causes that contributed to the duration and impact of incidents, as well as those that led to the incidents occurring
- when problem cannot be resolved quickly, it is often useful to find and document a workaround for future incidents based on an understanding of the problem

A

problem control

80
Q

___________ is a phase of problem management where the following occurs:
- management of known errors as well as identification of potential permanent solutions
- regularly re-assesses the status of known errors that have no been resolved, including overall impact on customers, availability, and cost of permanent resolutions, and effectiveness workarounds
- identification of potential permanent solutions may result in a change request for implementation of the solution
- the effectiveness of workarounds should be evaluated each time a workaround is used, as the workaround maybe improved based on the assessment.

A

error control

81
Q

the purpose of ___________ is to maximize the number of successful IT changes by ensuring that risks have been properly assessed, authorizing changes to proceed, and managing the change schedule

A

change enablement

82
Q

_____ is the addition, modification or removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on services

83
Q

a __________ is the person or group that authorizes a change

A

change authority

84
Q

a _______ is a document or tool used to help plan changes, assist in communication, avoid conflicts and assign resources

A

change schedule

85
Q

__________ focuses on changes in products and services

A

change enablement

86
Q

____________ manages the people aspects of changes to ensure that improvements and organizational transformation initiatives are implemented successfully

A

organizational change management

87
Q

_______ is a type of change enablement that are low-risk, pre-authorized changes that are well understood and fully documented and may be implemented without needing additional authorization.
they are often initiated as service requests, but may also be operational changes.

A

standard change

88
Q

______ is a type of change enablement that are changes that need to be scheduled, assessed and authorized following a standard process.

A

normal change

89
Q

in normal changes, __________ based on the type of change determine the roles for assessment and authorization.

A

change models

90
Q

initiation of ______ is triggered by the creation of change request.

A

normal change

91
Q

________ is a type of change enablement that are changes that must be implemented as soon as possible.

A

emergency change

92
Q

in __________, the process for assessment and authorization is expedited to ensure that they can be implemented quickly. there also may be a separate change authority for these changes.

A

emergency changes

93
Q

the purpose of ________ is to move new or changed hardware, software, documentation, processes or any other components to live environments.

A

deployment management

94
Q

_______ may also be involved in deploying components to other environments for testing or staging.

A

deployment management

95
Q

___________ works closely with release management and change enablement.

A

deployment management

96
Q

components that are available for _______ should be maintained in one or more secure locations to ensure that they are not modified before ______.

A

deployment

97
Q

_______ is a type of deployment where new or changed components are deployed to just one part of the production environment at a time.

A

phased deployment

98
Q

________ is a type of deployment where new or changed components are deployed to all target locations/systems at the same time.

A

big bang deployment

99
Q

__________ is a type of deployment where components are integrated, tested and deployed when they are needed, providing frequent opportunities for customer feedback loops

A

continuous delivery

100
Q

______________ is a type of deployment where new or changed software is made available in a controlled repository, and users download the software to client devices whenever they choose to.

A

pull deployment

101
Q

the purpose of ________ is to make new and changed services and features available for use

A

release management

102
Q

_____ is a version of a service or other configuration item, or a collection of configuration items, that is made available for use

103
Q

_______ specifies the exact combination of of new and changed components to be made available, and the timing for their release

A

release plan

104
Q

______ documents the timing of the release. this should be negotiated and agreed with customers and other stakeholders

A

release schedule

105
Q

________ enables learning and improvement following a release and helps ensure that the customers are satisfied

A

release post-implementation review

106
Q

the purpose of ______ is to support the agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests (by service desk) in an effective and user-friendly manner

A

service request management

107
Q

a ______ is a request from a user or user’s authorized representative that initiates a service action which has been agreed as a normal part of service delivery.

A

service request

108
Q

the purpose of ________ is to capture demand for incident resolution and service requests

A

service desk

109
Q

the ________ should also serve as the entry point and single point of contact for the service provider with all of its users

A

service desk

110
Q

________ provides a clear path for users to report issues , queries, a request and have them acknowledged, classified, owned and actioned

A

service desk

111
Q

the _______ should be the empathetic and informed link between the service provider and its users

A

service desk

112
Q

a key aspect of a good _________ is its practical understanding of the wider organization, the business processes and the users

A

service desk

113
Q

in the case of escalations, support and development teams need to work in close collaboration with the ______ to present and deliver a “joined up” approach to users and customers

A

service desk

114
Q

_________ is defined by the following:
1. intelligent telephone systems, incorporating computer-telephony integration, IVR, and automatic call distribution.
2. workflow systems for routing and escalation
3. workforce management and resource planning systems
4. a knowledge base
5. call recording and quality control
6. remote access tools
7. dashboard and monitoring tools
8. configuration management systems

A

service desk channels access

115
Q

________ is defined by sophisticated supporting technology with complex routing and escalation features and can be cloud based for better access and availability.

A

requirement of the virtual service desk

116
Q

the key skill of ________ is the ability to fully understand and diagnose a specific incident in terms of business priority and to take appropriate action to get this resolved, using available skills, knowledge, people and processes

A

service desk staff training and competency requirements

117
Q

the purpose of _______ is to set clear business-based targets for service performance, so that the delivery of a service can be properly assessed, monitored, and managed against these targets

A

service level management

118
Q

the practice of __________ involves the definition, documentation and active management of service levels.

A

service level management

119
Q

service level management requires _______ on the whole service and not simply its constituent parts

A

pragmatic focus

120
Q

service level management provides the ________ of the organizations services

A

end-to-end visibility

121
Q

the following are skills and competencies for __________:
- relationship management
- business liaison
- business analysis
- commercial/supplier management

A

service level management

122
Q

the following are characteristics of what?
- establishes a shared view of the services and target service levels with customers
- ensures that the org meets the defined service levels through the collection, analysis, storage and reporting of the relevant metrics for the identified services.
- performs service reviews to ensure that the current set of services continues to meet the needs of the organization and its customers
- captures and reports on service issues, including performance against defined service levels

A

service level management

123
Q

a __________ is a documented agreement between a service provider and a customer that identifies both services required and the expected levels of service.

A

service level agreement

124
Q

what are all of the following key requirements for?
- must be related to a defined ‘service’ in the service catalogue
- should relate to defined outcomes and not simply operational metrics
- should reflect an ‘agreement’ – engagement and discussion between the service provider and the service consumer
- must be written in a simple and easy way to understand and use for all parties

A

successful SLAs

125
Q

service level management involves collating and analyzing information from which 4 sources?

A
  1. customer engagement
  2. customer feedback
  3. operational metrics
  4. business metrics
126
Q

________ involves initial listening, discovery and information capture on which to base metrics, measurements and ongoing process discussions

A

customer engagement

127
Q

________ is ideally gathered from a number of sources like surveys, key business-related measures, etc.

A

customer feedback

128
Q

________ are the low-level indicators of various operational activities and may include system availability, incident response and fix times, change and request processing time, and system response times.

A

operational metrics

129
Q

_______ can be any business activity that is deemed to be useful or valuable to the customer and used as a means of gauging the success of a service

A

business metrics

130
Q

the purpose of _________ is to align the organization’s practices and services with changing business needs through the ongoing identification and improvement of services, service components, practices, or any element involved in the efficient and effective management of products and services.

A

continual improvement

131
Q

the highest levels of the organization need to take responsibility for embedding _______ into the way that people think and work

A

continual improvement

132
Q

the _________ is integral to the development and maintenance of every other practice as well as to the complete lifecycle of all services and indeed the SVS itself

A

continual improvement practice

133
Q

the ______ is a database or structured document used to track and manage improvement ideas from identification through to final action

A

continual improvement register (CIR)

134
Q

in ________ it is a good idea to select a few key methods that are appropriate to the types of improvements the organization typically handles and cultivate those methods

A

continual improvement