IT Foundations Flashcards

1
Q

Mark is the network administrator in his building and is responsible for training all the new technicians on various troubleshooting techniques. He is instructing them on documenting their actions at the end of the troubleshooting process. What should he NOT encourage them to document at that time?

A

Theories used

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2
Q

Smith, a technician, is troubleshooting a problem. He has confirmed the cause of the problem and resolved the issue. Which of the following should be the technician’s next step?

A

Verify full system functionality.

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3
Q

Maria, a user, is unable to access websites and has reported connectivity issues with pop-ups on the screen. John, a technician, removes malware, and then is able to ping the router and access the websites. Which of the following are the next steps that the technician should perform to troubleshoot the issue?

A

1 ) Verify full system functionality.

2 ) Documents findings, actions, and outcomes.

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4
Q

You are troubleshooting a problem with a computer. After analyzing the problem, you determine a possible cause of the problem. You test your theory, but determine that the theory is not correct. Which two steps could you take next?

A

1 ) Establish a new theory.

2 ) Escalate the problem.

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5
Q

A network technician is troubleshooting an issue and has established a theory of probable cause. Which of the following steps should the network technician take next?

A

Test the theory to determine the cause.

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6
Q

What is the order of the steps in the troubleshooting theory?

A
  1. Identify the problem.
    1. Establish a theory of probable cause.
    2. Test the theory to determine the cause.
  2. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem, and implement the solution.
  3. Verify full system functionality, and if applicable, implement preventive measures.
  4. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
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7
Q

Jennifer, a user, wants to use a laptop outside the house and still remain connected to the Internet. Which of the following would be the best choice for her to accomplish this task?

A

Wireless card

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8
Q

A customer wants to transfer the data from a DVR to a DVD on a workstation. Which of the following cards should be used on the workstation in order to extract the data for archiving?

A

Capture

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9
Q

You are helping a friend build his new home computer. After completing the assembly, you discover that none of the unused expansion slots have covers, and you cannot find the slot covers anywhere. You suspect that your friend threw them away along with the packing material for the case, thinking that they were simply unneeded metal punch-outs. Why should you go through the trouble of finding new slot covers and installing them on the unused slots?

A
  1. To keep foreign objects out of the case.

2. To keep air circulating properly inside the computer case.

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10
Q

A user has been using his desktop computer on a daily basis for over a year now. Today, when he starts his computer, he notices that the computer does not power on. You have been dispatched to troubleshoot this problem. What could be the reason for this?

A

The power supply is bad.

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11
Q

A user brings his PC to a technician asking for a method to transfer data from a DVR to a DVD. Which of the following cards should the technician advise him to extract the data for archiving?

A

Video capture

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12
Q

A technician is repairing a workstation that has a power light, but is not displaying anything on the screen and is not making any sounds during boot up. Which of the following should be used to further troubleshoot the workstation?

A

POST card

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13
Q

Which of the following expansion card types allows remote communications, such as the Internet over the mobile phone?

A

Wireless

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14
Q

You are instructing new IT technicians on the reasons why a computer’s complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) battery should be replaced. Which event is an early indication that you may need to replace it?

A

The computer’s internal clock loses time at startup.

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15
Q

You have purchased a program that requires a joystick. What types of computer ports could allow you to attach a joystick?

A
  1. A USB Port

2. A DA-15 Port

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16
Q

An IBM computer is giving one long beep and one short beep when turned on. The computer does not boot up. What should you do to troubleshoot the problem?

A

Check the motherboard.

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17
Q

Which two specifications should you consider while selecting the appropriate motherboard form factor?

A
  1. Physical Size

2. Power Supply

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18
Q

What is unnecessary when installing a TV tuner adapter card in a computer?

A

Plugging the TV tuner adapter card into a USB port.

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19
Q

Alice needs to connect many external devices to her PC. What type of expansion card would enable her to connect the largest number of devices?

A

USB card - provides USB communication capabilities to the computer and usually includes multiple USB ports

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20
Q

You replaced a processor with a newer processor that should run at a much higher speed. However, your system does not identify the processor correctly, and the processor runs at the same speed as the old processor. What could you do to correct this problem?

A

Update the BIOS.

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21
Q

What type of card should you use to attach both the PCI network interface card and sound card to the computer?

A

Riser card

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22
Q

What type of expansion card types allows remote communications over the phone or data lines?

A

Modem

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23
Q

You are performing some hardware upgrades on an old computer. You notice that the computer has an available Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) slot. What is an accurate characterization of this architecture?

A

The PCI architecture supports 32- and 64-bit data transfers.

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24
Q

You were recently hired as an IT technician. The IT supervisor informs you that many of the desktop computers have Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) motherboards. What is a TRUE statement for these computers?

A

An ATX motherboard can support a maximum of seven expansion slots.

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25
Q

What are the dimensions of an Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) motherboard?

A

12 inches wide by 9.6 inches deep

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26
Q

You are teaching a class on computer hardware to new IT technicians. You are discussing the component on an Advanced Technology eXtended (ATX) motherboard that supports communication between the central processing unit (CPU) and random access memory (RAM). What component provides this functionality?

A

Northbridge chip

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27
Q

Which motherboard component is most likely having an issue if the slower onboard peripherals like USB and LAN ports are not functioning properly?

A

Southbridge

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28
Q

What acronyms represents the extensible technology that supersedes and improves upon the role that the BIOS plays in traditional systems?

A

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)

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29
Q

What expansion slot uses a serial connection?

A

PCI Express (PCIe)

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30
Q

You have begun the process of replacing the CPU in your computer by physically installing the CPU. You must ensure that the motherboard recognizes the new CPU. What should you do first?

A

Update the firmware.

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31
Q

Which of the following allows a processor to execute instructions and to read and write data at a higher speed than the regular RAM?

A

Cache memory

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32
Q

While installing Hyper-V, you receive an error that software is unable to install. What configuration option will you check?

A

Virtualization support

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33
Q

A client, Warren, reports CMOS mismatch errors at startup. Further conversation with Warren reveals that he had forgotten the startup password he assigned in CMOS, and he had to clear all CMOS settings for his computer to complete a successful startup. Although he can now start his computer, he continues to observe CMOS errors each time he starts the computer. He replaced the CMOS battery, but the problem continues. What component should you investigate first to resolve the problem?

A

The system board jumper settings

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34
Q

You want to enable Hyperthreading (HT) technology in your computer that has an older processor. When you check the BIOS settings, you observe that the HT option appears dimmed. What should you do to enable the HT option in the BIOS?

A

Upgrade the processor.

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35
Q

Which of the following is a form of microprocessor parallelization where each physical processor is treated as two virtual processors?

A

Hyper-threading

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36
Q

What is a series of system checks performed during the initial boot-up of a computer system?

A

Power-On Self-Test (POST)

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37
Q

Aaron has been hired as the new PC repair technician. He has a motherboard that has a Socket AM3+. He has two different Socket AM3 CPUs that have lost their original packaging. What should Aaron do?

A

Install one of the AM3 processors into the AM3+ socket.

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38
Q

You perform several hardware upgrades on a user’s computer. You notice that the computer has an AMI BIOS. After completing the upgrades, you boot the computer. You hear seven short beeps. Which component should you check?

A

CPU

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39
Q

Beth’s computer keeps locking up, and she is not sure why. She was told by the intern at her company’s help desk that she should reboot her computer often. However, she has noticed that the computer freezes when she opens more than two programs at a time. Before she upgrades the RAM, what else can she do to help alleviate this problem?

A

Increase the size of the paging file.

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40
Q

During a class, the instructor discusses technology that allows a single processor to handle two independent sets of instructions at the same time. Which technology provides this functionality?

A

Hyper-Threading (HT) technology

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41
Q

Christine has a motherboard with a Socket 1156 and has called you to see if a Socket 1150 CPU could be used in its place. What would you recommend that she do?

A

Purchase a new motherboard that has an 1150 socket.

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42
Q

A user reports that his Windows computer often issues errors about running out of virtual memory. You want to increase the amount of available virtual memory. What should you do?

A

Edit the size of the paging file in the operating system.

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43
Q

What are you LEAST likely to see as a front-panel connector on a motherboard?

A

SCSI port

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44
Q

Which CPU-to-front-side bus ratio would provide best performance?

A

2:1

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45
Q

What CPU cooling method should you implement when other convective methods will not work?

A

Peltier cooling

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46
Q

After performing several upgrades on a computer, the user reports that he is having trouble with an overheating problem. You want to make recommendations to help prevent the computer from overheating during use. What should you recommend?

A

Keep the computer cover closed and secured.

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47
Q

Your company has decided to make several computers that will be used for specialized functions. You have been tasked with assembling these computers. Management wants you to ensure that computers will not experience any overheating issues. What components are used to help with this?

A
  1. Thermal Compound
  2. A Fan
  3. A Heat Sink
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48
Q

You are repairing a computer that contains two processor cores in a single processor package. What processor technology provides this?

A

Dual-core technology

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49
Q

You have decided to enable overclocking to increase the performance of a computer. On which computer components can you specifically enable overclocking?

A
  1. RAM
  2. System Bus
  3. Processor
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50
Q

You want to ensure that a computer has a 64-bit architecture and is able to fully utilize 64-bit computing. Which component is NOT important for this purpose?

A

Memory

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51
Q

You need to assemble a new computer. You have an AMD Opteron processor. Which of the following CPU sockets will NOT support this?

A

FM1

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52
Q

You are teaching a class for new IT technicians. As part of the unit on central processing units (CPUs), you discuss the architecture used to build CPU sockets. What architecture should you cover?

A

Pin Grid Array (PGA)

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53
Q

Your company has recently purchased computer hardware inventory so that its IT technicians can make custom computers for certain users. The processors that were purchased include the Hyper-Threading (HT) technology. What benefit does this technology provide?

A

Uses virtual processors to perform multitasking

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54
Q

During class, an instructor shows a picture of a Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) socket. What component can you connect using this socket?

A

Central processing unit (CPU)

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55
Q

An instructor is describing a component that is always located on the CPU and accelerates the processing of instructions. What component is being discussed?

A

The L1 cache

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56
Q

An instructor is explaining a technology that allows a central processing unit (CPU) to execute two separate instructions concurrently. What technology provides this functionality?

A

Hyper-threading

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57
Q

You have determined that several computers on your company’s network need to have the BIOS updated. What change to your computer would MOST likely require that you flash a computer’s BIOS afterward?

A

Upgrading the CPU

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58
Q

A new computer has been purchased that includes an integrated GPU. What is the primary purpose of this component?

A

Processing video and graphics

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59
Q

You have a motherboard that includes an LGA 1155 CPU socket. What CPU would NOT be supported with this motherboard?

A

Core 2 Duo

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60
Q

A customer wants a computer for performing a single-threaded task as quickly as possible. What CPU characteristics is the most important?

A

Clock speed

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61
Q

Every time a Windows 8 computer boots, you receive an error message stating that the cover was previously removed. You want to prevent this alert from being displayed. What location should you look under to disable this alert?

A

In the BIOS

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62
Q

What are standard AMD processor socket types?

A
  1. FM1

2. AM3

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63
Q

What CPU characteristics allows the processor to classify and separate memory areas where application code can and cannot execute?

A

Execute disable bit (EDB)

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64
Q

Which components must pass a computer’s power-on self-test (POST) before an operating system will load?

A
  1. Video Card
  2. Memory
  3. Central Processing Unit (CPU)
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65
Q

A user’s computer is experiencing overheating problems. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

A

Dust

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66
Q

A user has recently moved to the United States from the United Kingdom. He contacts you asking how to switch his desktop computer to the appropriate voltage. What should you tell him to do?

A

Slide the voltage switch on the side of the power supply to the appropriate voltage.

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67
Q

You are a desktop engineer for DreamSuites Corporation. Irene Jones has joined DreamSuites as an HR executive. You configure a new computer for Irene. You have set the voltage selector switch on the back of the computer to 115 volts. However, the computer is not powering up, and you have been asked to troubleshoot the problem. What action is NOT required to troubleshoot the problem?

A

Set the power output of the wall outlet to 230 volts.

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68
Q

You need to replace a computer’s power supply. When you purchase the new power supply, you notice a single 6+2 pin power connection. For what device type is this connection intended?

A

PCI Express devices

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69
Q

You have purchased a new 20-pin power supply to replace one that failed. However, the motherboard only has a 24-pin connector. What should you do?

A

Plug the 20-pin power supply into the motherboard, leaving pins 11, 12, 23, and 24 on the motherboard unconnected.

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70
Q

When you start your computer, a CMOS checksum error is caused. After investigating, you discover that the CMOS battery is causing the problem. You want to measure the voltage of the CMOS battery before replacing it with a new one. What device should you use?

A

Volt ohm meter

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71
Q

You are explaining the significance of the wires running from a power supply. The Power Good signal sends power to the motherboard to indicate that the electrical power is sufficient and can prevent the computer from booting. What voltage is used by the Power Good signal?

A

+5

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72
Q

What are the two most important factors to consider when selecting a replacement power supply for a desktop computer?

A
  1. Form Factor

2. Output capacity in Watts.

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73
Q

John, a user, complains that his DVD drive is not working. Maria, a technician, needs to ensure that the power coming to the DVD drive is correct, and therefore, she has to check its voltage. What type of tool will she use?

A

Multi-meter

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74
Q

After you start your computer, you hear an unusual, high-pitched noise. The source of the noise is the fan mounted inside the power supply. After a few minutes, the noise goes away. What action should you take?

A

Replace the power supply.

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75
Q

. You need to test the output from a UPS using a multi-meter. What multi-meter setting should you use?

A

AC Voltage

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76
Q

What parameter is the most important for you to consider when choosing a power supply unit (PSU)?

A

Wattage

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77
Q

A user complains that his computer automatically reboots after a short period of time. What computer components will you change to perform preventive maintenance on the computer?

A

CPU cooling fan

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78
Q

Susan has just been hired as your new tech support. You are explaining different RAM types to her. What random access memory (RAM) technology would you tell her fetches 4 bits of data per clock cycle and uses 1.8 V to operate

A

DDR2 SDRAM

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79
Q

Ann, a technician, wants to enhance the security of an organization by providing hardware-based cryptographic processing and secure key storage for full-disk encryption. What should she implement to achieve this task?

A

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

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80
Q

James is tasked to update a computer’s BIOS and firmware. What would be the reasons for this update?

A
  1. To fix bugs that prevent the operating system from installing or running properly
  2. To Provide support for new hardware
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81
Q

You have several different RAM modules that you can use in a new computer. You need to ensure that the fastest memory is used. What speed denotes the fastest memory?

A

7ns (nano-seconds)

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82
Q

A technician has replaced a faulty 500 GB HDD with a 1 TB HDD in a laptop. However, after the replacement, the laptop is still detecting the new 1 TB HDD as the older 500 GB HDD. What will the technician do to resolve this problem?

A

Flash the BIOS.

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83
Q

A computer receives a parity check error message. Which component should you check first?

A

Memory

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84
Q

Steven wants to upgrade the RAM in his gaming system. What features are important considerations before he adds memory modules to a computer’s system board?

A
  1. Parity

2. Access Speed

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85
Q

What UEFI feature that verifies an operating system’s start-up loader is electronically signed by the vendor before it loads?

A

Secure boot

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86
Q

What is a small program that contains executable code to work as a loader for the installed operating system?

A

Master Boot Record (MBR)

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87
Q

The primary hard drive in your Windows computer has failed. You purchase a new hard drive and install it in your computer. What should you do first?

A

Change the hard drive configuration settings in the computer’s BIOS.

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88
Q

You have a bootable DVD that includes virus-scanning software. However, when you insert the DVD into a computer’s DVD drive and reboot the computer, the computer still boots normally. What is the problem?

A

You need to change the BIOS boot order.

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89
Q

You are teaching a one-week computer repair class. Early Monday morning, you discover that a student from the previous week protected his computer with a BIOS startup password, and you are unable to contact the student to obtain the password. This week’s class starts in one hour, and all seats are taken. What should you do to make the computer available to a student in this week’s class?

A

Use a system board jumper.

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90
Q

Your company implements a new policy that all computers must use drive-level encryption for security. You want to enhance the security provided by BitLocker. What should you enable?

A

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

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91
Q

Susan called the help desk to ask about which type of BIOS password she should configure to restrict access to the BIOS setup program. What password type would you explain?

A

Supervisor password

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92
Q

Which of the following would be the best to keep the data on a laptop safe if the laptop is lost or stolen?

A

Full disk encryption

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93
Q

George, a user, receives a blue screen error when attempting to access a third-party application on his computer. When you are troubleshooting the computer, you get a blue screen error that lists the same memory location for the error. What should you do?

A

Replace the defective memory module.

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94
Q

Which of the following must be configured when trying to start a machine using a DVD?

A

Boot sequence

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95
Q

What type of computer memory module uses 168 pins?

A

Dual inline memory modules (DIMMs)

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96
Q

When Kevin was hired, he inherited a box of different types of RAM. What RAM would you ask him to set aside if you needed to increase the number of data wires available from 64 to 128?

A

Dual-channel

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97
Q

A server needs a RAM upgrade, and a technician has been tasked to retrieve the RAM from storage and then install it. What is the best RAM type for the technician to retrieve?

A

DDR4 SDRAM

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98
Q

You need to upgrade your Windows Vista computer to Windows 7. You put the Windows 7 DVD into its drive and reboot the system. The system does not boot from the DVD. What should you do first to solve this problem?

A

Configure BIOS to boot from the DVD drive.

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99
Q

You have been tasked with performing several upgrades in a computer. Which hardware component will require the least amount of time to replace?

A

Memory module

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100
Q

James, a technician, needs to replace the memory in laptops that are being brought to him for repair. What type of memory modules can he use?

A
  1. 72-pin SODIMM

2. 144-pin SODIMM

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101
Q

What types of memory can be installed in laptops?

A
  1. So-DIMM

2. Micro-DIMM

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102
Q

What memory modules is used if it is labeled as 4 GB PC 1333?

A

Double Data Rate (DDR3)

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103
Q

You must purchase new RAM to install in a computer. The company policy states that RAM must be able to detect both single-bit and multi-bit errors. What component should the RAM you order have?

A

Error correction code (ECC)

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104
Q

Which connections are typically on the external PC chassis?

A
  1. eSata

2. IEEE 1394

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105
Q

You have been asked to upgrade the hard drives in several legacy computers. Management wants you to upgrade them to the hard drive specification that has the fastest theoretical bus speed. Of the options given, what hard drive specification should you implement?

A

SATA 3

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106
Q

What are the main differences between VGA and DVI connectors?

A
  1. VGA and DVI video signals travel at different speeds.

2. VGA connectors and cables carry analog signals, while DVI can carry both analog and digital signals.

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107
Q

You have to interconnect a notebook computer and a cell phone. The notebook computer supports Bluetooth, USB, FireWire, and IEEE 1284 connections. However, you do not have any cables to connect the two devices and do not want to purchase any. What should you do?

A

Enable Bluetooth technology on both the computer and the cell phone, and then connect the two.

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108
Q

What types of external ports would a technician use to connect a keyboard to a computer?

A
  1. PS/2

2. USB

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109
Q

You need to connect a piano keyboard to a PC. What interface should you look for on a piano keyboard to connect it to the PC?

A

Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI)

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110
Q

What type of communication does an HDMI port and cable transmit.

A

Both video and audio

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111
Q

What connection type can be used simultaneously for video, storage, and audio?

A

Thunderbolt

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112
Q

James, a technician, is upgrading the firmware on an older KVM switch. The specifications call for a serial port to connect to the computer on one side, and an Ethernet jack to connect to the switch on the other side. What connectors does he need for this cable?

A
  1. RJ-45

2. DB-9

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113
Q

What connector is used for parallel applications

A

DB-25

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114
Q

Vincent has a computer with two DVI ports and wants to connect it to an HDMI display. What is the easiest solution?

A

Purchase a DVI-to-HDMI cable or adapter.

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115
Q

You work for your company’s IT help desk. A customer named Sam asks you how to get his iPhone to wirelessly play louder. He also indicates that sometimes, he wants to play his iPhone through his laptop speakers. What two options would you recommend?

A
  1. Bluetooth Speakers

2. A USB-to-Bluetooth dongle

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116
Q

You need to install a new video card in a Windows 10 computer. You need to ensure that the installed technology supports both analog and digital transmissions. What technology should you install?

A

DVI-I

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117
Q

What is the greatest distance that can separate the USB 2.0 device from the computer?

A

5 Meters

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118
Q

You are trying to help your customer connect a Universal Serial Bus (USB) 3.0 printer to her laptop and desktop computer. The laptop computer has only USB 1.1 ports and PCIe slots available. What would be the most logical and affordable option to recommend to her?

A

Install a USB 3.0 card in the PCIe slot

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119
Q

Maria wants to use the mobile payment service on her smartphone but the device is unable to perform the payment service. What feature is missing from her smartphone?

A

Near field communication (NFC)

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120
Q

Abigail works in Europe. She has a laptop with a standard VGA port that she uses for presentations at client sites. When she gets to the United States, she realizes that the companies she’s presenting for all have HDMI displays and interfaces. What would you recommend she purchase for her travel bag as the most cost-effective solution?

A

Purchase a VGA-to-HDMI adapter.

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121
Q

How many devices can you connect using the single USB hub?

A

4

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122
Q

What interface is capable of transmitting high-quality and high-bandwidth streams of audio and video between devices?

A

High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI)

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123
Q

Doug of Wonder Web is coming to your office to show the trainers the ports they will use to connect different devices for the presentations. What ports will he most likely need to demonstrate?

A
  1. USB Port Adapters
  2. DisplayPort Ports
  3. VGA ports
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124
Q

What connectors will you use to connect a serial port and an Ethernet port on a switch?

A
  1. DB-9

2. RJ-45

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125
Q

Jane is responsible for making sure her team has all the items it needs when traveling for business. One of her users has a laptop with no active Ethernet port. Which accessory should she purchase for that team member?

A

USB-to-RJ-45 dongle

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126
Q

What are true statements regarding USB 3.0 and USB 2.0?

A
  1. Unlike USB 2.0, USB 3.0 supports dual simplex communication pathways
  2. Unlike USB 2.0, USB 3.0 supports continuous bursting
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127
Q

What expansion port would be used to enable the transfer of power, data, and video to peripheral devices on an Apple computer?

A

Thunderbolt

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128
Q

What type of charging and data port has a non-directional connector?

A

USB Type-C

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129
Q

What serial communication standards provide hot-swap capability?

A
  1. USB

2. IEEE 1394

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130
Q

What type of USB connector standards is designed for USB peripherals, such as printer, upstream port on a hub, or other larger peripheral devices?

A

USB Type-B

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131
Q

Steven’s computer includes a hard drive that connects to the computer’s motherboard using a 7-wire cable with a single interface. What hard drive interface is used by Steven’s disk drive?

A

Serial ATA

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132
Q

Management has mandated that hard disks installed in servers provide the best disk performance and speed. You need to ensure that you purchase hard disks that conform to this mandate. What factors should you consider?

A
  1. Faster Seek Time

2. Higher Rate of Revolutions Per Minute

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133
Q

You are explaining to a group of new IT technicians the workings of a magnetic hard drive. As part of this discussion, you must cover the different parts. What term is used to identify the concentric circles on a hard disk platter?

A

Track

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134
Q

An NTFS folder named Research is backed up on a regular basis. You restore the folder onto another hard drive but notice that the file permissions were not restored. What is the MOST likely reason this happened?

A

The files were restored on a FAT partition.

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135
Q

You work in a customer call center. Martin is on the phone asking about the difference between solid-state drives (SSDs), hybrids, and magnetic hard drives for his laptop. He is going to use for web surfing, emailing, and creating documents. What hard drive would provide the best performance and reliability?

A

A solid-state drive (SSD)

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136
Q

A technician is dispatched to troubleshoot a user’s computer. After performing diagnostics, the technician determines that drive thrashing is occurring. What are the factors that can affect this?

A
  1. Paging File
  2. Running Processes
  3. Hard Drive
  4. Memory
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137
Q

A customer wants to upgrade a PC’s internal storage to have more room to store backups, photos, and videos. The new storage should be economical and large enough to avoid expanding again next year. What drive option best meets this need?

A

3 TB HDD

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138
Q

A customer brings you a computer that he wants to upgrade to SATA drives. Currently, all the drives in the system are EIDE drives. What should you do first?

A

Make sure that the motherboard will support SATA drives.

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139
Q

A user reports slow computer performance in his PC, which has RAID configuration, to a technician. The technician uses the manufacturer’s diagnostic software, and the computer passes all tests. The technician then uses a de-fragmentation tool and hears clicking noises. Which of the following should the technician identify and replace?

A

Hard Disk Drive (HDD)

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140
Q

Your computer only boots with a bootable DVD. It is not able to boot without a bootable DVD. What could be the possible reasons for this problem?

A
  1. Bad Hard Disk

2. Corrupt Operating System

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141
Q

You have been asked to implement a technology that detects failing hard drives by analyzing the hard drive and providing a warning of impending failure. Which technology should you implement?

A

Self-Monitoring Analysis and Reporting Technology (S.M.A.R.T.)

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142
Q

You are the system administrator for your company. You are troubleshooting a network computer that displayed the following error message: “Boot Error Press F1 to Retry”. What should you do to fix the problem?

A

Restore the master boot sector.

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143
Q

Randy wants to know the cost differences between several hard drives for his laptop. He knows that flash memory can serve as a hard drive, but he needs to know what type of drive to order. What should you tell him to purchase?

A

Solid-state drive

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144
Q

If you were explaining to your company’s IT personnel the difference between their old hard drive technology and newer solid state drives, What is a false statement about SSDs?

A

They use a read/write assembly.

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145
Q

Replacement of which of the following components on a laptop will typically require re-installation of the OS?

A

hard disk drive (HDD)

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146
Q

A user contacts you stating that she received an error stating that the MBR is corrupt. You need to ensure that this issue is resolved. Where is the MBR stored?

A

Hard disk

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147
Q

What is an example of a solid-state drive?

A

USB flash drive

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148
Q

Martha, a customer, reports to a technician about file system errors on her external hard drive. Which of the following commands will the technician use to repair these errors on the drive?

A

The chkdsk command

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149
Q

What is a characteristic of a hybrid drive?

A

A drive that has both HDD and SSD components

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150
Q

While performing routine maintenance for a customer, you hear a grinding noise coming from inside the computer case. What component should you suggest the customer replace?

A

Hard drive

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151
Q

Lucy, a Chief Information Officer (CIO), has summoned an administrator due to the datacenter power bill being significantly higher than normal. The administrator explains that a new array was installed for a 20 TB application. What would provide a new performance benefit and also reduce power consumption in the given scenario?

A

Solid State Drives (SSDs)

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152
Q

Cathy’s mother is getting ready to buy her a new laptop for college. She knows that the laptop may not always be handled with care. She wants to ensure that the device can withstand dropping. What kind of hard drive is her best option?

A

solid-state drive (SSD)

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153
Q

What types of cables are most likely to be used to connect to an external hard drive?

A
  1. USB 3.0

2. eSATA

154
Q

What RAID levels uses a minimum of four disks in two disk mirrored blocks?

A

RAID 10

155
Q

What are the advantages of using solid state hard drives (SSDs) over traditional magnetic hard disk drives (HDDs)?

A
  1. Do Not Have Moving Parts
  2. More Reliable and less Susceptible to Damage
  3. Consume Less Power
156
Q

You find that your system is performing slow and taking a long time in opening large database files placed on the local hard drive. What tool will you use to resolve the issue?

A

DEFRAG

157
Q

A user complains that his computer is taking a long time to boot. During the boot process, you observe that the hard drive activity light is staying on. You discover that the hard drive is nearing its maximum capacity. The computer contains a single 150 GB hard drive. What should you do?

A

Add an identical hard drive and configure a RAID-0 volume.

158
Q

You have a system with two physical drives in which you want to implement Redundant Arrays of Independent Disks (RAID) with striping. Which of the following RAID levels will you use to accomplish the task?

A

RAID 0

159
Q

What is an IP-based storage networking standard that facilitates data transfers over intranets?

A

Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI)

160
Q

James, a technician, needs to configure a computer system for the maximum safety of stored data while staying cost-effective. What RAID level should he use?

A

RAID 1

161
Q

What RAID type should be used to configure two drives for maximum performance?

A

RAID 0

162
Q

A user is notified of file system errors on an external hard drive. What tool can be used to repair common errors on the drive?

A

The chkdsk command

163
Q

A customer has a Windows 7 computer with a HD DVD drive. He is asking about DVD compatibility. What type of disk will he be unable to use in his computer?

A

Blu-ray disks

164
Q

What is the minimum number of physical disk drives required in RAID 5?

A

3

165
Q

A user needs to transport a 1,100 MB file. Which media types could be used?

A
  1. DVD+R

2. DDS-3

166
Q

On what physical component is the data stored in a magnetic hard disk drive?

A

Platter

167
Q

A technician is talking to end users about the specifications for an upgraded application server. The users of the application report that there cannot be any unscheduled downtime or data loss. Additionally, they would like the performance of the application to improve over the previous server in any way possible. The previous running server was RAID 5. What RAID solutions should be implemented according to this scenario?

A

RAID 10

168
Q

A company executive wants to view company training videos from a DVD. What component would accomplish this task?

A

Optical drive

169
Q

A server technician has been given a task to select the appropriate RAID levels that can recover the lost data if the server’s hard drive crashes. What RAID levels should the technician select that can help to achieve this task?

A
  1. Raid 1
  2. Raid 5
  3. Raid 10
170
Q

A user needs to install a DVD drive in his desktop system. The DVD drive needs to be capable of backing up his system files. He wants to install the DVD drive that is capable of storing the most data. What DVD specification should he install?

A

DVD+R DL

171
Q

You need to implement a RAID level that duplicates a partition on another physical disk, providing two identical copies of the data. What RAID level should you use?

A

RAID Level 1

172
Q

You need to remove several devices from a computer. For what type of device should you use the Safely Remove Hardware icon to stop the device’s operation before removing it from the computer?

A

USB flash drive

173
Q

You have a desktop computer that supports both IEEE 1394 and USB 2.0. You are purchasing some devices that will connect to these ports. What characteristic distinguishes the two ports?

A

USB supports more devices on a single bus.

174
Q

Penny has a desktop computer that she is replacing with a laptop. She wants to know why everyone is raving over their new flash memory drives. What is the top reason to purchase a laptop with a flash memory drive rather than a conventional hard drive?

A

Quiet sound

175
Q

An IT technician decides to calibrate a touchscreen monitor. Why should he do this?

A

To align the touchscreen’s coordinates with the display

176
Q

What peripheral is most likely to be used to input actions into a PC?

A

Mouse

177
Q

What device functions by converting light energy into digital data?

A

Webcam

178
Q

What is NOT considered an input device?

A

Printer

179
Q

What would allow for multiple computers to share display and input devices?

A

KVM switch

180
Q

John, a technician, needs to allow multiple PCs to share a common display, keyboard, and mouse. What device will he use?

A

KVM switch

181
Q

Why would you implement a KVM switch?

A

To reduce device needs in a data center

182
Q

Your company purchases a new USB mouse for a server. What statement characterizes this mouse?

A

You can plug it into a computer while the computer is on.

183
Q

What device will allow a technician to use a single set of input devices on several computers?

A

KVM switch

184
Q

A user reports that he is having problems with his monitor. He explains that his laptop’s liquid crystal display (LCD) is no longer spreading the light over the entire screen. What component of the LCD is most likely causing this problem?

A

Diffuser

185
Q

What video display types can give flexible displays?

A
  1. Organic light emitting diode (OLED)

2. Organic liquid crystal displays (OLCDs)

186
Q

Your computer has an American Megatrends, Inc. (AMI) BIOS program, and the computer generates one long beep followed by eight short beeps at startup. What item is most likely to be defective?

A

The video card

187
Q

A user complains that his monitor is not working. You must diagnose the problem to return the monitor to normal operation. What are the four primary sources of display problems?

A

1, Video Cable

  1. Monitor
  2. Video Adapter Card
  3. Video Driver
188
Q

Jennifer, a user, is watching a training education video and notices dark pin-sized dots in the same location on her laptop LCD screen. What is the cause of this issue?

A

Dead pixels: These are pixels that do not display the light as expected.

189
Q

Jennifer, a user, has installed a new monitor on an existing system. She calls a support technician and reports that everything on the new display is fuzzy. What will the technician most probably do to fix this issue?

A

The display resolution needs to match the native resolution.

190
Q

A user is watching a training education video and notices black-colored and pin-sized dots in the same location on his laptop LCD screen. What is the cause of this issue?

A

Dead pixel

191
Q

You need to disable the onboard video card. Where should this card be disabled?

A

In the BIOS

192
Q

Question : You are troubleshooting a problem with a Windows computer. When you boot up the computer, you hear the hard disks start, the computer beeps once, and everything appears normal except the display. The display is blank. You confirm that the monitor’s power switch is on and the monitor is plugged in. What should you do next to troubleshoot this problem?

A

Replace the monitor.

193
Q

What does the number of pixels that make up the dimensions of a display represent?

A

Resolution

194
Q

You have replaced the memory in a laptop computer. What would cause the reported memory to be lower than the actual physical memory?

A

Shared video memory

195
Q

A user is having trouble moving and opening icons with a finger on a tablet. A technician has checked the preferences and configured the speed and sensitivity, however, the problem remains. What action should the technician advise the user to take?

A

Clean the screen.

196
Q

You are replacing an old PCI video card in your computer with a new PCI Express video card. You remove the old video card. You insert the new video card into an available slot and reattach all the cables. However, no display is shown when the computer boots. What should you do?

A

Re-seat the video adapter.

197
Q

A user contacts you stating that his laptop is making a weird buzzing noise. When you examine the laptop, you notice that the buzzing noise is coming from the bottom of the display assembly. What device should you probably replace?

A

The inverter board

198
Q

A customer’s laptop display has suddenly become very dim. The image on the display can only be seen with a bright, external light, as adjusting the brightness/ contrast does not cause much change. What component most likely needs to be replaced?

A

Inverter

199
Q

A user complains that the image on his monitor flickers a lot. This flickering occurs no matter which application the user has opened. What should you do?

A

Configure the video card driver to use a higher refresh rate.

200
Q

Whatlayer of the TCP/IP model manages end-to-end communication between hosts, error detection and correction, and message reordering?

A

The Transport layer

201
Q

What is NOT an Internet appliance?

A

Domain Name System (DNS)

202
Q

Which of the following combines firewall, IPS, and antivirus into one central management point?

A

Unified Threat Management (UTM)

203
Q

When choosing a type of storage that integrates with the existing network infrastructure, the storage must be easily configurable to share files and should communicate with all existing clients over TCP/IP. What is the best technology for the network administrator to implement in the given scenario?

A

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

204
Q

A network administrator must install a device that will proactively stop outside attacks from reaching the LAN. What device would best meet the organization’s needs?

A

Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

205
Q

What protocols work at the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model?

A
  1. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

2. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

206
Q

James, a technician, wants to syndicate the security controls of some of the network devices in the company. His company does not have sufficient resources to manage the security of its large infrastructure. What method would best accomplish his goal?

A

Unified Threat Management (UTM)

207
Q

Under what layer of the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) model do ATM cells operate?

A

Network Interface

208
Q

A technician wants to ensure sensitive data is not exfiltrated from the system electronically. What should be implemented?

A

Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

209
Q

What network type spans a small area, such as a single building, floor, or room?

A

Local Area Network (LAN)

210
Q

What can be used to assign priority to certain types of network traffic?

A

Quality of service (QoS)

211
Q

A company wants to ensure that its cloud infrastructure is secure as well as fully available. The company also wants to be alerted in the event of a security breach. What solution will meet this requirements?

A

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

212
Q

According to the TCP/IP model, at what layers is the routing of packets across multiple logical networks controlled?

A

The Internet Layer

213
Q

According to the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) model, at what layer is the application data broken up into the segments or datagrams and sent over the network?

A

The Transport Layer (Layer 3)

214
Q

What monitors network traffic and restricts or alerts when unacceptable traffic is seen in the system?

A

Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)

215
Q

What is a point-to-point logical network created by grouping selected hosts, regardless of their physical location

A

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

216
Q

What networking device is used to implement network security policies for an environment?

A

Firewall

217
Q

What device should a network administrator configure on the outermost part of the network to block unsolicited traffic?

A

Firewall

218
Q

What is a passive monitoring system designed to alert administrators when something suspicious happens, but take no action on their own?

A

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

219
Q

What device can be used to merge traffic between two different network topologies?

A

Bridge

220
Q

A network administrator is setting up a web-based application that needs to be continually accessible to end users. What concepts would best fulfill this requirement?

A

High availability

221
Q

A network engineer is asked to implement a network encompassing the five-block town center and nearby businesses. The inclusion of smartphones and portable devices is crucial to the plan. What is the network engineer being asked to implement?

A

metropolitan area network (MAN)

222
Q

What are features of a firewall?

A
  1. Filters inbound and outbound communication
  2. Enables or disables port security on certain ports
  3. Protects systems from malware and spyware
223
Q

A network engineer wants to segment the network into multiple broadcast domains. What device can he use?

A

A Layer 3 switch

224
Q

What device transmits data to all ports regardless of the final destination?

A

A hub also known as a multi-port repeater.

225
Q

A host with an IP address of 15.0.0.126/25, in the sub net 15.0.0.0, needs to transfer data to a host with an IP address of 15.0.0.129/25, in the sub net 15.0.0.128. What device will be required for this purpose?

A

Router

226
Q

James, a network analyst, wants to create broadcast domains to eliminate the need for expensive routers. What will help him accomplish the task?

A

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

227
Q

What allows server operating systems to access the shared storage list as if it were a locally attached drive?

A

Storage Area Network (SAN)

228
Q

What devices operate at the Data Link layer of the OSI model?

A
  1. Switch

2. Bridge

229
Q

What networking device must be used to have full-duplex communication between two host devices?

A

Switch

230
Q

A user, has requested assistance with choosing the appropriate Internet connectivity for her home. Their home is in a rural area and has no connectivity to existing infrastructure. What Internet connection methods should most likely be used?

A

Satellite Internet system

231
Q

A client’s computer is not connecting to a website. What commands will allow the technician to view the route/number of hops between the host and remote systems?

A

The tracert (Windows) and traceroute (Mac OS X, Linux) command

232
Q

There are 20 laptops in a room and they all need to connect wireless to a wired network. What would be the best device to use?

A

wireless access point (WAP)

233
Q

What Internet connection types transports high-bandwidth data over a simple telephone line?

A

Digital subscriber line (DSL)

234
Q

What device actively works to prevent collisions by making sure not to send data to a segment that is already busy?

A

Bridge

235
Q

You are hired to train a group of new users to become technicians. One of your lessons is on how to construct Cat5 and Cat6 Ethernet cables. To make sure they know the difference between 568A and 568B cables, what are the two most important areas you would focus on during the training?

A
  1. Use the correct color scheme pattern for a T568A and T568B cable.
  2. A cable with one end wired as 568A and the other end wired as 568B is called a crossover cable, and a cable with both ends wired with the same standard is called a straight-through cable.
236
Q

Jennifer, a network technician, is installing a new network switch and is looking for an appropriate fiber optic patch cable. The fiber optic patch panel uses a twist-style connector. What of the following connector types should the fiber patch cable have?

A

Straight Tip (ST) connector

237
Q

A user reports to a technician that his desktop is having intermittent issues with locking up and system errors. The technician starts troubleshooting and suspects that the issue might be the motherboard is not getting enough power. What tool should the technician use to verify that his assumption is correct?

A

Multimeter

238
Q

You’re troubleshooting a connection issue between a switch and a wall jack. You went into the switch room to check if the cable is plugged into the switch but you didn’t recognize the cable because none of the cables were labeled. What tool will you most likely use to find the cable in the given scenario?

A

Toner probe

239
Q

You are adding a new computer to an existing 1000BaseT network. What cable connector is used in this network?

A

RJ-45

240
Q

Your company has recently purchased cabling that has a rating of “plenum.” What does this indicate about the cable?

A

It will not produce toxic gas when it burns.

241
Q

You need to set up a network that needs to span multiple buildings. For this reason, you want to use the cabling that supports the longest maximum cable length. What network topology provides this?

A

10BaseF

242
Q

You are an IT technician for your company. The company has 10BaseT, 100BaseT, and 1000BaseT networks that are interconnected. What is the maximum segment distance for data transmission on these networks?

A

100 meters (328 feet)

243
Q

You are setting up a new subnetwork on an existing network. Management has asked that you use existing cabling that the company has already purchased. However, you need to ensure that the cabling can be used on a 10BaseT network. What is the minimum category of UTP cable you can use?

A

Category 3

244
Q

You plan to install an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network that supports data transfer speeds up to 100 Mbps. What cable should you use?

A

Cat5

245
Q

What cable contains a center conductor made of copper surrounded by a plastic jacket with a braided shield over it?

A

Coaxial

246
Q

You need to install a network that uses cable that can operate at up to 10 gigabits per second (Gbps). What cabling should you use?

A

Cat6

247
Q

Maria, a technician, is troubleshooting an expansion card in a computer that allows the computer to receive faxes over a VoIP line. The line connected to the expansion card is most likely what cable?

A

CAT6

248
Q

You need to connect two computers for a customer. The customer does not have a network and does not wish to purchase a concentrator, but both computers include functional Ethernet network interface cards with RJ-45 connectors. What component will allow you to meet your customer’s needs?

A

A crossover cable

249
Q

What connector terminates a coaxial cable?

A

Bayonet Neill-Concelman (BNC)

250
Q

You are tasked to connect a new cable to an open port on the patch panel. What tool will you most likely use?

A

Punch-down tool

251
Q

Smith, a user, complains that his CD drive is not working. Lucy, a technician, verifies that it is completely dead. Lucy needs to ensure that the power coming to the CD drive is correct, and therefore she has to check its voltage. What tool will Lucy use?

A

Multimeter

252
Q

You are creating a crossover cable. You know that each end of the crossover cable must be configured differently. Which pins contain the Blue wire?

A

Pin 4/Pin 4

253
Q

What type of cable is most often used to connect two devices of the same type, such as two computers or two switches to each other?

A

Crossover

254
Q

What provides protection against network eavesdropping and signal interference and works at the physical layer of the OSI model?

A

Fiber optic cable

255
Q

You are installing a new fiber-optic network. What connectors are used in this type of network?

A
  1. ST

2. SC

256
Q

You are responsible for managing your research department’s network. This network uses RG6 coaxial cabling. What is TRUE regarding this network?

A

It is thicker than RG59 coaxial cable.

257
Q

You have a network that uses single-mode fiber optic cable. What is the transmission distance supported by this network?

A

Approximately 20 miles

258
Q

You are setting up a network for a new company. Management is primarily concerned with EMI or signal capture. Which network medium is the least susceptible to these issues?

A

Fiber optic

259
Q

What networking cables transmits digital signals using light impulses rather than electricity?

A

Fiber optic

260
Q

You have both UTP and STP cable available to set up a new subnetwork on an existing network. What is the main difference in the physical composition of these two cable types?

A

Mesh shielding

261
Q

Jack has several areas in the office where he needs to install cabling. He has coaxial cable on hand, and he would like to use splitters to connect the different computers and areas. If he runs multiple splitters, what effects should he anticipate?

A
  1. Service quality issues
  2. Connection speed issues
  3. Signal Loss
262
Q

A company has a network that uses a light-emitting diode (LED) to transmit data. What cable is being used on this network?

A

Multi-mode fiber optic cable

263
Q

What server role is responsible for the assignment of IP addresses?

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server

264
Q

What IP address is used by a Class A private network?

A

10.0.0.0

265
Q

What properties are true regarding IPv6?

A
  1. It uses 128-bit addresses

2. It has 340 undecillion available addresses

266
Q

What type of address does a hardware vendor assign?

A

Physical device address

267
Q

What is the network prefix that is used to denote an unsubnetted Class C IP address?

A

/24

268
Q

What improvements does IPv6 provide over the current IP addressing scheme?

A
  1. The IP header options allow more efficient forwarding and less rigid length limits.
  2. Some header fields have been dropped or made optional.
269
Q

What is an example of a MAC ADDRESS

A

AD-4F-C1-A9-12-CB

270
Q

You administer computers on a Microsoft Windows 2003 TCP/IP network. On the network, you want to use a domain name-to-Internet Protocol (IP) address name resolution system that provides a central database on a server to resolve domain names to IP addresses. What option should you implement on your network?

A

The Domain Name System (DNS)

271
Q

What is an example of an IPv6 address?

A

fe80::200:f8ff:fe21:67cf

272
Q

How should you configure the Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) Properties dialog box on the user’s laptop while expending the least administrative effort?

A

Configure the General tab to use the DHCP server at the head office. Configure a static IP address from the branch office network range on the Alternate Configuration tab.

273
Q

Which statement is TRUE concerning DHCP?

A

DHCP is used to automate IP address assignment.

274
Q

You administer a TCP/IP network. You want to enable the hosts on your network to be automatically configured with IP configurations such as an IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway address. The IP configurations should be leased to the clients for a limited period. What protocol should you use to accomplish this task?

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

275
Q

What TCP/IP configuration information must a computer on a network have before it can communicate with the Internet?

A
  1. Default Gateway
  2. Subnet Mask
  3. TCP/IP Address
276
Q

What protocol do most man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks utilize?

A

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

277
Q

What is an example of a valid Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address?

A

169.254.2.120

278
Q

Maria, a network administrator, is working in an organization. A device connected to the organization’s network is having an IP address 120.168.1.1. She wants to verify that the device has a TCP/IP stack loaded. What address should she ping?

A

127.0.0.1

279
Q

For what purpose have IP addresses in the 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255 range been reserved?

A

Private networks

280
Q

What IP address is used by Class B private networks?

A

172.16.0.0

281
Q

A technician has been informed that multiple users are receiving duplicate IP address warnings on their workstations, and they are unable to browse the Internet. What server should the technician log in to in order to resolve the problem?

A

DHCP server

282
Q

Joe, a user, contacts the network administrator to request a list of all static IP addresses in the building. What server would the network administrator most likely examine to find that information?

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server

283
Q

What is an example of a class A address?

A

2.134.213.2

284
Q

What is the default subnet mask for IP address 196.132.74.10?

A

255.255.255.0

285
Q

You use a computer named Wkst1 on a TCP/IP network, which is installed with an application that uses UDP to send a file from your computer to a computer named Wkst2. Data collisions occur, and several data packets are lost during transmission. What will most likely occur as a result of losing the packets during transmission?

A
  1. The Protocol will drop the packets

2. The application will automatically re-transmit the packets.

286
Q

What well-known UDP port does DNS use?

A

53

287
Q

What applications use UDP?

A

NFS, TFTP, SNMP

288
Q

What security protocol combines digital certificates for authentication with public key data encryption?

A

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

289
Q

A technician wants to block remote logins to a server. What port should be blocked?

A

port 23

290
Q

What allows a user to remotely log in to a networked device and uses port 3389 as the default port?

A

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

291
Q

Andrew, a network analyst, is tasked to provide security to the network traffic by ensuring data confidentiality, data integrity, sender and recipient authentication, and replay protection. What will help him accomplish the task?

A

Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

292
Q

A user reports the inability to access a company server using the FTP protocol. A technician finds other ports to the server seem to work normally. The technician has determined the problem is an incorrectly configured software firewall on the user’s machine. What is most likely the cause?

A

Outgoing connections on port 21 are blocked.

293
Q

James, a security analyst, is hardening an authentication server. One of the primary requirements is to ensure there is SSO on this server. Given these requirements, what technology should he configure to accomplish the task in the given scenario?

A

Kerberos

294
Q

A junior network technician is setting up a new email server on the company network. Which default port should the technician ensure is open on the firewall so the new email server can send an email?

A

25

295
Q

A user asks a technician to set up emails on his mobile device. The user also wants the server to retain a copy of the email. What port will be the best for the technician to use for this purpose?

A

143

296
Q

What is a directory service protocol that defines how a client can access information and perform operations?

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

297
Q

Maria, a technician, needs to check the running configuration of a remote router securely. What protocols will she utilize to accomplish the task in the given scenario?

A

Secure Shell (SSH)

298
Q

Maria, a network administrator, wants to block the availability of nonwork-type websites. What type of server should she use for this purpose

A

Proxy server

299
Q

What might you find on a network in a legacy system?

A

NetBEUI protocol

300
Q

Whayprotocol is used for file sharing between MAC OS and Windows OS workstations on a LAN?

A

Server Message Block (SMB)

301
Q

What protocol is used by Active Directory?

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

302
Q

While configuring a firewall, a system engineer accidentally blocked port 443. What will be unavailable?

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

303
Q

Jeffrey wants to purchase some software for his department from Dreamsuites.com. After researching company policies, you inform him that he can only make the purchase if it is from a secure site. What port and protocol qualify as secure?

A

Port 443 HTTPS

304
Q

What enables a server to provide standardized and centralized authentication for remote users?

A

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

305
Q

You administer your company’s 100BaseTX Ethernet network. TCP/IP is the networking protocol used on the network. You want the routers on the network to send you notices when they have exceeded specified performance thresholds. What protocol should you use to enable the routers to send the notices?

A

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP

306
Q

James, a technician, wants to transfer files between two systems. What of the following protocols will help him?

A
  1. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP)

2. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

307
Q

What is a specification for a suite of high-level communication protocols used to create personal area networks with small and low-power digital radios?

A

Zigbee

308
Q

What wireless connection types utilize MIMO on non-overlapping channels?

A

802.11n and 802.11ac

309
Q

Your company has a wireless network for its small office network. The wireless network does not broadcast its service set identifier (SSID). You configure a user’s Windows Vista computer to connect to the wireless network by manually setting the SSID. You need to ensure that the user’s computer does not send probe requests to discover if the wireless network is in range. What should you do?

A

Ensure the Connect even if the network is not broadcasting option on the Connections tab of the wireless connection is cleared.

310
Q

What is used primarily to manage sensors such as fitness trackers, medical devices, and watches?

A

ANT+

311
Q

What radio frequency band does the 802.11b standard use?

A

2.4 GHz

312
Q

Which encryption types is used with WPA2

A

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

313
Q

A user needs to connect to a wireless network. Which information must be provided to connect?

A

Service set identifier (SSID)

314
Q

You need to ensure that the access points choose separate channels to prevent interference, using the least amount of administrative effort. What should you do?

A

Start each wireless access point at a separate time.

315
Q

What is the operating range for Class 2 Bluetooth devices?

A

10 meters or 33 feet

316
Q

Smith, a technician, needs to configure a wireless network for a company. What wireless standard can he choose to get 600 Mbps bandwidth over either the 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency spectrum?

A

802.11n

317
Q

What is the maximum data transmission speed for Bluetooth 2.0 technology?

A

3 Mbps

318
Q

You want to set up a wireless network with data throughput of 54 Mbps. What two wireless specifications will provide a data throughput of 54 Mbps?

A

802.11a or the 802.11g

319
Q

What device can cause interference with the WLANs?

A

Microwave ovens

320
Q

What channel would commonly be used on an 802.11b/g wireless network?

A

6

321
Q

Jennifer, a technician, wants to set up a virtual private network for a small office. She also wants to ensure that the network traffic is routed to the correct machine. What will she use on the router to accomplish this task?

A

Port forwarding

322
Q

Your company has decided to implement a wireless network. The wireless network users must be able to connect to resources on your internal network, including file, print, and DHCP services. Which options should you implement?

A
  1. Infrastructure Mode

2. Wireless Access Point

323
Q

Users are having trouble accessing resources by computer or host name. What device is likely causing the problem?

A

Domain Name System (DNS)

324
Q

What operating frequency band is used by Bluetooth technology?

A

2.4 GHz to 2.485 GHz

325
Q

A user named Brad calls and reports that he is unable to connect to a file server on your 100BaseT network, although he is able to connect to folders on other computers. A single hub exists on the network. What hardware problems should you investigate?

A
  1. A Defective Hub Port

2. A Defective NIC in the File Server

326
Q

What technology is the most secure form of wireless encryption?

A

Wi­Fi Protected Access (WPA)

327
Q

A user is not able to access shared folders on the network. While troubleshooting the problem, the technician first checks for the link lights on the Network Interface Card (NIC). The technician observes that the link lights are not on or blinking on the NIC. What actions should the technician perform to resolve the problem by using the least amount of administrative effort?

A
  1. Replace the network cable

2. Check that the switch is on and the other end of the cable is connected to the switch.

328
Q

You are checking connectivity between two devices using the ping command. You want the ping command to continue sending messages until interrupted. What parameter of the ping command should you use?

A

-t

329
Q

Your 100BaseT network uses the TCP/IP protocol suite exclusively, and workstations on your network obtain addresses dynamically from a server. From your computer, you can contact all servers and workstations on your own network segment, but you are unable to gain access to network resources on other segments. What factors should you investigate?

A
  1. The Routers

2. The Default Gateway

330
Q

You need to obtain the IP address for your local Windows computer. What tool should you use?

A

ipconfig

331
Q

You are the network administrator for Nutex Corporation. You have configured a wireless network for a group of users to provide Internet access. However, users complain that they are facing intermittent loss of wireless connection. You have verified the hardware and software configuration of both your Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) modem and wireless router and your DSL line from the Internet Service Provider (ISP). What could be causing your problems?

A

Cordless phones

332
Q

You recently discovered that Marketing1 can connect to Admin1, and Admin1 can connect to Marketing1, but neither of these computers can connect to RemoteWkst. You suspect that there is a problem with one of the routers between RemoteWkst and the network you administer. What TCP/IP utility should you use to troubleshoot this connectivity problem

A

tracert

333
Q

You suspect that a hacker has compromised a computer using one of its open ports. What command would allow you to view the open ports on the computer?

A

The netstat command

334
Q

You are unable to access your company’s website using its fully qualified domain name (FQDN). However, if you use the IP address of the website, you can access the home page. What may be the cause of the problem?

A

The Domain Name System (DNS) server is down.

335
Q

You work for a company whose network contains several subnets. You move your computer from the Development subnet to the Research subnet, which resides in a different building. You turn on the computer and attempt to connect to a computer named COMP5 on the Development subnet, but you are unable to do so. However, you can connect to all of the other computers on the Research subnet, and other Research computers can connect to COMP5 on the Development subnet. What would explain your computer’s communications problem?

A

An incorrect default gateway

336
Q

You are troubleshooting a connectivity problem on an Ethernet network that contains both NetWare and Windows servers. A Windows client cannot connect to the Internet or any network resources. However, other computers on the same subnet as the client can access network resources and the Internet. You issue the ipconfig command at the workstation and find that the IP address assigned to the system’s network adapter is 169.254.184.25 and its subnet mask 255.255.0.0. This IP network and subnet are different from the IP network and subnet that other computers on the same segment are using. What is the most likely problem?

A

The computer selected the IP address using APIPA.

337
Q

George, a user, is having trouble connecting to network resources, including shared folders on the local network and Internet resources. Yesterday, he was able to connect with no problems. You need to ensure that he can connect to these resources. What tool should you use FIRST?

A

ipconfig

338
Q

Daniel is a subscriber to your company’s online tech forum and is complaining that he can no longer access it, although no other subscribers have called. You have no problem connecting to the tech forum. What would you tell Daniel to do?

A

Check his Ethernet connection.

339
Q

You are a desktop administrator for Nutex Corporation. Your organization uses Ethernet cable to connect network resources. A user reports that she is unable to access network resources on her portable computer. The portable computer is connected to the company’s network using an Ethernet cable. When you test the cable using a time-domain reflectometer (TDR), the signal returns too early. What should you do?

A

Replace the network cable.

340
Q

A user complains that his internal wireless network card in his laptop is no longer functioning. After troubleshooting, you decide to replace the wireless network card. You replace the wireless network card with the same model as the old card. You connect the internal antenna cables. You then reboot the computer. What should you do next?

A

Install the latest drivers for the wireless card.

341
Q

Users are having trouble accessing a server. You want to view the server’s DNS entry on the DNS server. What command should you use?

A

the nslookup command

342
Q

You are nearing the completion of an upgrade that involves implementing new network infrastructure and upgrading the operating systems running on your network servers. Currently, static IP addresses and HOSTS files are used. The upgrade has included implementing DNS, implementing DHCP, and moving servers and other resources to a new location with new IP addresses. However, you cannot access the resources that were moved using their host names from any of the client workstations. You can access them by their IP addresses. What should you do first?

A

Delete the HOSTS file on each workstation.

343
Q

You are the network administrator for your company. A user reports that he cannot access network resources from his computer. He was able to access the resources yesterday. While troubleshooting his computer, you find that his computer is issued an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address. All the network equipment in the user’s computer is functioning properly because you are able to access the user’s computer from a remote computer. What is most likely the problem?

A

The DHCP server is down.

344
Q

You have implemented a hardware firewall on a small office network. You need to ensure that all HTTP packets are automatically sent to the web server. What should you do?

A

Enable port forwarding.

345
Q

A user reports that his computer is having trouble accessing the Ethernet network. You need to trace the network cable back to the central wiring closet. What tool should you use?

A

A tone generator

346
Q

A company has two geographically separate locations that need to connect using a VPN. What device must be specifically configured to allow VPN traffic into the network?

A

Firewall

347
Q

Your company has both a wired and a wireless network. You have been asked to increase the security of the wireless network. What option should you implement?

A

MAC filtering

348
Q

Andrew works for a local law firm’s help desk and is getting complaints that employees cannot access the company’s intranet site. What is the first tool he should use?

A

ping

349
Q

An end-user device requires a specific IP address every time it connects to the corporate network. However, the corporate policy does not allow the use of static IP addresses. What of the following will allow the request to be fulfilled without breaking the corporate policy?

A

DHCP reservation

350
Q

Your company has a wired 1000BaseT small office network that connects to the Internet via a DSL connection. Users have been issued laptop computers that have wireless network cards. A wireless network must be set up for these users. The wireless network will need access to the internal network and the Internet. While configuring the wireless access point, you change the administrative username and password and change the SSID from its default setting. Then you disable SSID broadcasts. Finally, you enable MAC filtering and configure the list of MAC addresses that are allowed to connect via the wireless network. Now you need to connect the wireless access point to your local network. What device should it be connected to?

A

A router

351
Q

On a network that you administer, you cannot use a Windows computer named Wkst1 to connect to an Internet host with the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) www.transoft.com. You want to determine whether a WAN link between Wkst1 and www.transoft.com is down. You know that data normally passes through 10 hops in transit from Wkst1 to www.transoft.com. What command should you use to test connectivity?

A

tracert www.transoft.com

352
Q

What should you use to connect the end of the cable to an RJ-45 connector?

A

Wire crimper

353
Q

A customer needs a router that is able to handle all incoming and outgoing networking traffic independent of the rest of the building. The customer would like the PCs to immediately connect to the Internet and network resources without any additional configuration. What should the technician do to meet the requirements?

A

Configure the router for DHCP.

354
Q

You are responsible for managing the virtual computers on your network. What guideline is important when managing virtual computers?

A

Isolate the host computer and each virtual computer from each other.

355
Q

You want to connect to resources from an offsite location while ensuring the traffic is secured. What will you use to gain access to the secure network?

A

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

356
Q

What cloud type is an infrastructure operated solely for a single organization?

A

Private

357
Q

What term relates to the cloud computing concept that allows the provider to share services with multiple subscribers, as opposed to the subscriber having a dedicated cloud service?

A

Resource pooling

358
Q

You are responsible for managing a host computer that hosts several Windows 8.1 virtual computers. You need to install the latest patches for the operating system. Where should you install the patches?

A

On both the host computer and all Window 8.1 virtual computers

359
Q

An organization has subscribed to a cloud service and the cloud provider wants to monitor and meter the customer’s use of resources. What cloud computing concept does this represent?

A

Measured service

360
Q

What of the following is core virtualization software that enables multiple virtual computers to run on a single physical host?

A

Hypervisor

361
Q

A system administrator is configuring a server to host several virtual machines. The administrator configures the server and is ready to begin provisioning the virtual machines. What feature should the administrator utilize to complete the task?

A

Hypervisor

362
Q

John, a network administrator, has created a new virtual server according to specifications and verified that TCP/IP settings are correct. When the VM is powered on, an error message indicates that a network card MAC address conflict exists. What should John do to resolve this issue?

A

Remove the virtual NIC and configure another one.

363
Q

What cloud computing term refers to a feature that allows a provider to dynamically adjust resource allocation, based on demand?

A

Rapid elasticity

364
Q

An organization wants to create a server VM that is segregated from the rest of the servers. What should be configured?

A

VNIC

365
Q

What cloud type is a combination of two or more clouds that remain distinct but are bound together?

A

Hybrid

366
Q

What is the virtualization technology for providing and managing virtual desktops?

A

Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)

367
Q

What term refers to a foundation service upon which the other two foundation services are built?

A

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

368
Q

What cloud services typically provides the hardware and software necessary for application development?

A

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

369
Q

John, a customer, needs to run several virtual machines on his design workstation to work on cross-platform software. What should be maximized to improve workstation performance?

A
  1. RAM

2. Number of CPU Cores

370
Q

What term refers to a cloud infrastructure that provides services to many related organizations?

A

Community cloud

371
Q

You want to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an application. What cloud services will you use?

A

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

372
Q

What is the term for an application that is accessed over the Internet as opposed to being installed on a local device?

A

Software as a Service (SaaS)

373
Q

Maria, a network administrator, has been given a task to extend the network segment through which employees working from home will transmit data securely across the Internet. What will help her to complete the task?

A

VPN

374
Q

What cloud computing term refers to the availability of a resource as it is needed by the client?

A

On demand

375
Q

An end user has signed up to use a web-based calendar application. What solutions has the user purchased?

A

Software as a Service (SaaS)

376
Q

A feature that allows users to store files in cloud-based when necessary, but can be removed when space is freed up, is known as:

A

on-demand.

377
Q

In a virtual environment, which of the following allows all the VMs to have RAM allocated for use?

A

Resource pooling

378
Q

A cloud computing feature through which users can access additional storage, processing, and capabilities automatically, without requiring intervention from the service provider is known as:

A

On-demand self-service

379
Q

Maria is a technician at a medium-sized accounting firm that used cloud-based computing resources. During tax preparation season, the internal requirement for computing resources rises in the firm, and then after the taxes are filed, the computing capacity is no longer needed. She is being asked to find a way so that these computing resources can be accessed automatically when needed, without requiring intervention from the service provider. What cloud computing feature will help to meet her needs?

A

On-demand

380
Q

What the personal computing environment from a user’s physical computer?

A

Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)

381
Q

What is a technology through which one or more simulated computers run within a physical computer?

A

Virtualization