Ischemic Heart Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Why is PCI preferred over thrombolytic therapy for severe heart failure?

A

Because they will probably end up needing assistive devices anyways (balloon pump, impella, etc)

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2
Q

Indications for Percutaneous Coronary Intervention for a STEMI:

A
  • If there is contraindications to thrombolytic therapy
  • Severe HF and/or pulmonary edema
  • Symptoms present for 2-3 hours
  • Mature clot
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3
Q

The combination of what 2 things provide the maximum chance of achieving normal antegrade coronary blood flow and decreases the need for a subsequent revascularization procedure?

A

Intracoronary stents and antiplatelet drugs

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4
Q

What is the ideal timeframe to perform an angioplasty for a STEMI?

A

Within 90 minutes of arrival and within 12 hours of symptom onset

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5
Q

What situations would need a CABG for a STEMI?

A
  • Coronary anatomy that inhibits PCI
  • Failed angioplasty
  • Evidence of infarction-related ventricular septal rupture or mitral regurg
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6
Q

Causes of unstable angina/NSTEMI:

A
  • Reduction of myocardial oxygen supply
    Rupture or erosion of a coronary plaque
  • Dynamic obstruction due to vasoconstriction
  • Worsening coronary luminal narrowing
  • Inflammation
  • Myocardial ischemia
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7
Q

Presentation for unstable angina/NSTEMI:

A
  • Angina at rest - lasting >10 minutes
  • Chronic angina pectoris - more frequent and more easily provoked
  • New-onset angina - severe, prolonged or disabling
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8
Q

Why is chronic angina pectoris more easily occuring in unstable angina?

A

Because of the narrowing of the vessel so there’s less blood flow

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9
Q

What is the acute phase of treatment for unstable angina/NSTEMI directed at?

A

Decreasing myocardial oxygen demand and stabilizing culprit lesion

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10
Q

What is the longer term phase of treatment for unstable angina/NSTEMI directed at?

A

Prevention of disease progression and future plaque erosion and rupture

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11
Q

Treatment for unstable angina/NSTEMI:

A
  • Bedrest, oxygen, analgesia, and B-blocker therapy
  • Sublingual or IV nitroglycerin
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Aspirin, clopidogrel, prasugrel or ticagrelor and heparin therapy
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12
Q

_____ _____ is not indicated in UA/NSTEMI and has been shown to increase mortality.

A

Thrombolytic therapy

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13
Q

Risks for PCI:

A
  • Thrombogenesis from vessel injury
  • Bleeding/rupture
  • Can increase ischemia (completely occluding artery for a short period of time)
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14
Q

What are the 3 types of PCI?

A
  • Balloon angioplasty
  • Bare-metal stent
  • Drug eluding stent
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15
Q

Reendothelialize after balloon angioplasty-

A

2-3 weeks

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16
Q

Reendothelialize after bare-metal stent placement-

A

12 weeks

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17
Q

Reendothelialize after drug-eluting stent:

A

A full 1 year or longer

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18
Q

____ ____ discontinutation is the most significant independent predictor of stent thrombosis

A

P2Y12 inhibitor

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19
Q

Most common combination of meds for dual antiplatelet therapy:

A

Aspirin with P2Y12 inhibitor

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20
Q

How soon do you D/C DAPT before surgery to reduce bleeding risk?

A
  • Clopidogrel or ticagrelor - 5 days
  • Prasugrel - 7 days
  • Continue ASA if possible
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21
Q

Timing of the operation after PCI

A
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22
Q

What are important parts of the pre-op assessment for ischemic heart disease?

A
  • Determine presence of risk factors
  • Evaluate METs
  • Co-existing non-cardiac disease
  • Physical exam
  • Specialized testing
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23
Q

Ischemic heart disease medications:

A
  • Beta blockers
  • Alpha 2 agonists (decrease sympathetic outflow, BP and HR)
  • ACE Inhibitors
  • Statins
  • DAPT
  • Control hyperglycemia
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24
Q

Revised Cardiac Risk Index:

A
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25
Q

Components of RCRI:

A
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26
Q

Functional Capacity:

A
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27
Q

It is suggested that more than __ days should elapse after a recent MI before noncardiac surgery is undertaken

A

60

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28
Q

Active cardiac conditions that may increase the risk of perioperative adverse cardiac events:

A
  • Unstable coronary syndromes
  • Unstable or severe angina
  • Decompensated heart failure
  • Severe valvular heart disease
  • Significant dysrhythmias
  • Age
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29
Q

What are risk factors for ischemic heart disease? (1st 2 are most important)

A

Male Gender
Increasing Age
Hypercholesterolemia
HTN
Smoker
DM
Obesity
Sedentary lifestyle
Genetics

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30
Q

____% of surgical patients have ischemic heart disease

A

30%

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31
Q

What are the first manifestations of ischemic heart disease?

A
  • Angina pectoris
  • Acute MI
  • Sudden death (dysrhythmias)
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32
Q

Stable angina develops in partial occlusion or >____% narrowing of coronary artery

A

70%

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33
Q

How is stable angina characterized?

A

Chest pain relieved by rest

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34
Q

What vital sign changes are associated with decreased coronary blood flow? What about if you are under GA?

A
  • ↓BP and ↑ HR
  • EKG changes when under anesthesia
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35
Q

What causes Angina Pectoris?

A

Imbalance between coronary blood flow and myocardial O2 consumption

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36
Q

________ is the most common cause of impaired coronary blood flow resulting in angina

A

Atherosclerosis

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37
Q

What mediators are released with angina and what do they do?

A
  • Release of adenosine and bradykinin

-Stimulate cardiac nociceptors→ afferent neurons coverage T1-T5 sympathetic ganglia→ produce thalamic and cortical stimulation causing chest pain

-Slow AV conduction and decrease cardiac contractility (attempting to balance O2 supply and demand)

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38
Q

What are common signs and symptoms of angina pectoris

A
  • Retrosternal chest pain, pressure, heaviness
    -Radiates to neck, left shoulder, left arm, or jaw
  • SOB, Dyspnea
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39
Q

Which group of people have atypical presentation of angina pectoris?

A
  • Diabetics
  • Females

Me ;)

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40
Q

What are some things discussed in class that can cause chest pain?

A
  • Physical exertion
  • Emotional tension
  • Cold weather
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41
Q

Describe chronic stable angina:

A

Chest pain that does NOT change in frequency or severity in 2-month period

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42
Q

What causes chronic stable angina?

A

Distal occlusions

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43
Q

What are characteristics of unstable angina?

A

Angina at rest (>10min)

Unstable angina is chest pain increasing in frequency and/or severity without increase in cardiac biomarkers

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44
Q

What are some chest pain differential diagnoses?

(I’m sorry I simply could not type this one)

A
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45
Q

What diagnostic tests can be done when someone presents with chest pain?

A
  • 12 lead EKG
  • Exercise stress test
  • Nuclear stress imaging
  • Echo
  • Coronary Angiography
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46
Q

What EKG changes correlate with likelihood of significant coronary artery disease?

A

Greater ST depression = more significant CAD

47
Q

Which test has the greatest sensitivity for detecting ischemic heart disease?

A

Nuclear stress imaging

48
Q

What does the nuclear stress imagining assess?

A
  • Coronary perfusion
  • Size of perfusion abnormality
  • Estimates LV systolic size/fxn
  • Differentiates new from”Old” MI
49
Q

What tracers are used for nuclear stress imaging?

A
  • Thallium
  • Atropine, Dobutamine, Pacing
  • Adenosine, Dipyridamole
50
Q

What diagnostic study is used to diagnose Prinzmetal angina?

A

Coronary angiography

51
Q

What does and area of ischemia look like in an echo?

A

Wall motion abnormalities

52
Q

Which diagnostic for chest pain can determine the location of occlusive disease?

A

Coronary angiography

(does not measure stability of plaque)

53
Q

Non-pharmacologic treatment for angina?

A
  • Stop smoking
  • Lose weight
  • Low fat/low CHO diet
  • Regular exercise
  • HTN treatment
54
Q

Primary drug therapy for angina pectoris:

A
  • ASA
    -Platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIa receptor antagonists
  • P2Y12 inhibitors
  • Prasugrel (short term in cathlab)
  • Nitrates
  • Beta blockers
  • CCB
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Statins
55
Q

All patients with suspected AMI should receive ______.

A

Aspirin

if allergic should get P2Y12 inhibitor

56
Q

MOA of aspirin and dose:

A
  • Irreversibly inhibits COX-1 (thromboxane A2)
  • 75 – 325 mg/day
57
Q

MOA of glycoprotein IIb/IIa receptor antagonists:

A
  • IV, more effective than ASA (short half lives)
  • Inhibit platelet activation, adhesion, and aggregation
58
Q

What is a typical platelet lifespan?

59
Q

MOA of Clopidogrel (Plavix):

A
  • Inhibits ADP receptor P2Y12 and platelet aggregation
  • Irreversible, platelet life span
    -D/C ~ 80% of platelets recover to normal function
  • Prodrug: variability from person to person
60
Q

What class of drug is Prasugrel? When is it used?

A

P2Y12 inhibitor (Thienopyridines)

-More predictable pharmacokinetics than plavix
- Higher risk of bleeding (given short term in cath lab)

61
Q

What are characteristics of Nitrates?

A

-Decrease frequency, duration, and severity of chest pain

-Increase exercise to produce ST-segment depression

  • Dilate coronary arteries and collaterals
  • Decrease peripheral vascular resistance
  • Decreases preload
  • Potential anti-thrombotic effects
62
Q

What are drug interactions with Nitrates?

A
  • Synergistic with beta blocker and CCBs
63
Q

What diseases are nitrates contraindicated?

A

-Aortic stenosis
- Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

64
Q

What class of drug is the only drug to prolong life in CAD patients?

A

Beta blockers

65
Q

Do you stop beta blockers preop?

A

No, want to continue them or stop and give something similar (esmolol)

66
Q

Which drugs are B1 selective beta blockers?

A

-Atenolol
-Metoprolol
- Acebutolol
- Bisoprolol

67
Q

Beta 2 adrenergic blockers:

A

-Propranolol
- Nadolol

68
Q

What are the benefits of beta 1 blockade for angina?

A
  • Lower HR
  • Increase diastolic time
  • Decrease myocardial contractility
  • Decrease myocardial O2 demand
69
Q

Which patients do you want to avoid beta 2 blockers in?

A

Reactive airway → increase risk of bronchospasm

70
Q

What type of angina are CCB appropriate for?

A
  • Prinzmetal/ Variant Angina
  • Uniquely effective for decreasing frequency/severity of spasm
71
Q

What is the MOA of CCBs?

A
  • Dilated coronary arteries
    -Decreases vascular tone
  • Decreases contractility
  • Decreases O2 consumption
  • Decreases Systemic BP
72
Q

What do ACE inhibitors treat?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Heart failure
  • Cardioprotective
73
Q

ACE inhibitors block conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. What does angiotensin II do?

A
  • Increases myocardia hypertrophy
  • Increases interstitial myocardial fibrosis
  • Increases coronary vasoconstriction
  • Increases inflammatory responses
74
Q

What is the purpose of statins?

A
  • Coronary plaque stabilization
  • Decreases lipid oxidation
  • Decreases inflammation
  • Decreases matrix metalloproteinase
  • Decreases cell death
75
Q

What drug reduces mortality in noncardiac surgery and vascular sugery?

76
Q

When is revascularization (PCI) indicated?

A
  • Meds fail
  • > 50% L main coronary artery
  • > 70% epicardial coronary artery
  • Impaired EF <40%
77
Q

When is CABG preferred treatment over PCI?

A
  • 50% LAD occulsion
  • Coronary artery stenosis 70& occluded
  • 3 vessel coronary artery disease
  • DM pt who have 2-3 vessel CAD
78
Q

What is acute coronary syndrome?

A

Acute or worsening imbalance of myocardial oxygen supply to demand → leads to chest pain

79
Q

What are causes of acute coronary syndrome?

A
  • Atheromatous plaque
  • Coagulation cascade
  • Thrombin generation
  • Arterial occlusion
80
Q

What are the 3 categories of acute coronary syndrome based on 12-lead ECG and cardiac biomarkers?

A
  • STEMI
  • Non STEMI
  • Unstable angina (cardiac makers - )
81
Q

What causes an MI?

A
  • Coronary blood flow decreases abruptly
  • Acute thrombus formation
82
Q

What is the process of thrombus formation?

A

-Collagen, ADP, epinephrine, serotonin
- Thromboxane A2
- Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors
- Fibrin deposit

83
Q

When is the term myocardial infarction used?

A

When there is evidence of mycardial necrosis

84
Q

What diagnostic data is indicative of myocardial infarction:

A
  • Rise/fall of cardiac biomarkers (trop) AND evidence of myocardial ischemia indicated by at lease one of the following:

-Symptoms of ischemia
-ECG changes (new ST, T changes LBBB)
- Pathologic Q waves
- Imaging evidence of new loss of viable myocardium or new regional wall motion
- ID of intracoronary thrombus by angiography

85
Q

When does troponin increase?

A

Increase within 3 hours after myocardial injury

86
Q

What cardiac lab test is more specific for cardiac damage than CK-MB?

87
Q

When would fentanyl be given over morphine for patient having an MI?

A

Fentanyl over morphine to avoid hypotension

88
Q

Drug therapy for Acute coronary syndrome:

A

-MONA
- P2Y12 inhibitors
- Platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors
- Unfractionated heparin
- βblockers

89
Q

What meds are used for thrombolytic therapy?

A
  • tPA
  • Streptokinase
  • Reteplase
  • Tenecteplase
90
Q

What is the time frame to give tPA?

A
  • Earlier the better
  • 30-60min of hospital arrival, within 12 hours of symptom onset
91
Q

What is the goal of thrombolytic therapy?

A

Restore normal anterograde blood flow in occluded coronary artery

92
Q

What is the urgency of surgery if life or limb would be threatened if surgery did not proceed within 6 hours or less?

93
Q

What is the urgency of surgery is life or limb would be threatened if surgery did not proceed within 6 to 24 hours?

94
Q

What is the urgency of surgery if delays exceeding 1 to 6 weeks would adversely affect patient outcomes?

A

Time-sensitive

95
Q

Pre-op Cardiac Risk Assessment Algorithm

96
Q

ACC/AHA algorithm recommends that a patient with a functional capacity of ____ METs should proceed directly to surgery

97
Q

Preoperative _____ ______ is most suitable for patients with stress test results suggesting significant myocardium at risk

A

coronary angiography

98
Q

What are the goals for anesthesia in patients with ischemic heart disease?

A
  • Prevent myocardial ischemia
  • Monitor for ischemia
  • Treat ischemia
99
Q

What are anesthetic considerations for prevention of ischemic heart disease?

A
  • Persistent tachycardia
  • Systolic HTN
  • SNS stimulation
  • Arterial hypoxemia
  • Hypotension
    **Maintain BP and HR within normal awake baseline
100
Q

What things are a result of decreased oxygen delivery?

A
  • Decreased coronary blood flow
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypotension
  • Hypocapnia
  • Coronary artery vasospasm
  • Decreased oxygen content
  • Anemia
  • Arterial hypoxemia
  • Shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left
101
Q

In patients with Ischemic HD, hyperventilation must be avoided because _____ may cause coronary artery vasoconstriction

A

Hypocapnia

102
Q

What things increase oxygen requirements in patients with ischemic HD?

A
  • SNS stimulation
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypertension
  • Increased myocardial contractility
  • Increased afterload
  • Increased preload
103
Q

Why might opioids be preferred at the principal anesthetic?

A

Patients with severely impaired LV function may not tolerate anesthesia induced myocardial depression

104
Q

What meds would you give if HTN exists longer than 15 seconds while intubating and why?

A

Laryngotracheal lidocaine, IV lidocaine, esmolol, fentanyl, remifentanil and precedex
- they can all blunt the increased HR caused by intubation

105
Q

Anesthetic considerations for ischemic heart disease:

A
  • Succinylcholine, vec, roc, cis
  • DL 15 seconds or less
  • Volatile anesthetics
  • Nitrous oxide
  • Opioids
  • Neuraxial anesthesia
106
Q

Why would volatile anesthetics be beneficial in patients with ischemic hd?

A

they decrease myocardial oxygen requirements and may precondition the myocardium to tolerate ischemic events

107
Q

Why could volatile anesthetics be detrimental in patients with ischemic hd?

A

they lead to a decrease in blood pressure and an associated reduction in coronary perfusion

108
Q

What are the risks of using epidural or spinal anesthesia in patients with ischemic hd?

A

They decrease blood pressure - prompt treatment of hypotension that exceeds 20% of the preblock blood pressure is necessary

109
Q

What is the drug of choice for tachycardia in patients with ischemic hd?

110
Q

What is the drug of choice for bradycardia in patients with ischemic hd?

A

Glycopyrrolate (over atropine)

111
Q

Treatment for hypotension in patients with ischemic hd:

A
  • Fluid bolus
  • Sympathomimetic drugs: ephedrine preferred over epi because it won’t make you tachycardic
112
Q

Monitoring for Ischemic HD:

113
Q

Vessel occlusion: