ISBB Flashcards
COMPONENTS OF FIBRIN GLUE
cryoprecipitate (fibrinogen) and topical thrombin
Donor deferral, measles (rubeola) vaccination:
2 weeks
Providing an antibody with its corresponding antigen under optimal conditions so that the antibody will attach to the antigen, thereby removing the antibody from the serum
ADSORPTION
process whereby cells that are coated with antibody are treated in such a manner as to disrupt the bonds between the antigen and antibody
ELUTION
simplest type of mutation
Only one nucleotide in the DNA sequence is changed
Includes substitutions, insertions, deletions
POINT MUTATION
gene that does not appear to produce a detectable antigen; a silent gene
AMORPH
ANTI-A1 LECTIN:
DOLICHOS BIFLORUS
ANTI-B LECTIN:
BANDEIRAEA SIMPLICIFOLIA
ANTI-H LECTIN:
ULEX EUROPAEUS
ANTI-M LECTIN:
IBERIS AMARA
ANTI-N LECTIN:
VICIA GRAMINEA
phenomenon whereby an antibody reacts more strongly with a red blood cell carrying a double dose (homozygous inheritance of the appropriate gene) than with a red blood cell carrying a single dose (heterozygous inheritance) of an antigen
DOSAGE
portion of the antigen molecule that is directly involved in the interaction with the the antibody;ANTIGENIC DETERMINANT
EPITOPE:
antigenic characteristic of the red blood cell membrane that is unique to an individual or a related family of individuals and therefore is not commonly found on all cells (usually less than 1% of the population)
PRIVATE ANTIGEN
antigen characteristic of the red blood cell membrane found commonly among individuals, usually more than 98% of the population
PUBLIC ANTIGEN
small hemorrhagic spot, LARGER THAN PETECHIA, in the skin or mucous membrane, forming a rounded or irregular blue or purplish patch; also known as bruise
Ecchymosis
congenital defect of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches that affects thymic development, leading to a T-cell deficiency. Patients are subject to recurring viral and fungal infections
DiGeorge anomaly
dysproteinemia synonymous with gamma heavy-chain disease. This abnormality is characterized by the presence of monoclonal protein composed of the heavy-chain portion of the immunoglobulin molecule.
Franklin’s disease
molecule that when coupled to a hapten, makes the hapten capable of stimulating an immune response
CARRIER
simple chemical group that can bind to antibody once it is formed but that CANNOT stimulate antibody formation unless tied to a larger carrier molecule
HAPTEN
single antigenic determinant. It is functionally the portion of an antigen that combines with an antibody paratope
EPITOPE
part of the antibody molecule that makes contact with the antigenic determinant
PARATOPE
frequency of positive results obtained in testing a population of individuals who are positive for antibody
SENSITIVITY
proportion of negative test results obtained in the population of individuals who actually lack the antibody in question
SPECIFICITY
antigens that are expressed in the developing fetus and in rapidly dividing tissue, such as that associated with tumors, but that are absent in normal adult tissue
ONCOFETAL ANTIGENS
Plasmapheresis donor, total protein at least
6 g/dL.
Packed red blood cells LEAK _______ into the plasma or additive solution of the blood component during storage. Rapid infusion of a large volume of packed red blood cells may put patient populations such as neonates and patients with cardiac, hepatic, or renal dysfunction at risk of developing hyperkalemia.
The transient hyperkalemia related to massive transfusion appear to be related to the patient’s acid base balance, ionized calcium levels, and rate of infusion of the packed red blood cells.
POTASSIUM
HARMENING
• 4th edition: significant is 32
• 5th edition: significant is 16 to 32
• 6th edition: critical titer is 16
Significant Antibody titer in HDN
Antibody enhanced by ACIDIFYING THE PATIENT SERUM:
anti-M
Most common cause of transfusion reactions:
CLERICAL ERRORS
Donor unit SEAL HAS BEEN BROKEN:
DISCARD THE UNIT
Noticeable clots in RBC unit:
DO NOT ISSUE THE UNIT, indication of contamination or bacterial growth
FIRST STEP in laboratory investigation of transfusion reaction:
CHECK FOR CLERICAL ERRORS
SAGM, ADSOL shelf life:
42 days
or red blood cells may be performed up to 3 days after the red cell expire
REJUVENATION
Preparation of leukopoor RBCs:
filtering, centrifugation and washing
Component of choice for vWD:
CRYOPRECIPITATE
Transfusion of ______________IS BEST INDICATED for: NEWBORNS with severe infections
BUFFY COAT
Test performed on blood that will be transfused to an acidotic or hypoxic infant:
HEMOGLOBIN S
CD marker responsible for E-rosette formation between T cells and sheep RBCs:
CD2
Joining (J) chain:
IgM and secretory IgA
Ig that helps initiate the classical complement pathway:
IgM and IgG
Primary immune response:
IgM
Highest titer in secondary response:
IgG
Immunoglobulin crosslinks mast cells to release histamine:
IgE
Substance detected by RPR and VDRL test:
REAGIN
Test for HIV infection in infants who are born to HIV-positive mothers:
PCR
Best indicator of early acute HBV infection:
HBsAg
First antibody detected in serum after infection with HBV:
anti-HBc
Blood products are tested for which virus before being transfused to newborns:
CMV
Anti-smooth muscle (ASMA) antibodies:
chronic active hepatitis
urinary bladder cancer
Nuclear matrix protein
most frequently used animal is the RABBIT followed by goat, pig, sheep, horse, guinea pig and others
POLYCLONAL ANTIBODIES
MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES
MICE
