IR oral exam

Question 1

Where In part-FCL will I find the privileges of the IR

Answer 1

Part FCL Subpart G FCL.605

Question 2

How long is an IR valid for?

Answer 2

1 year

Question 3

when shall an IR be revalidated?

Answer 3

within the preceding 3 months of the date of the ratings expiry

Question 4

how is an IR renewed?

Answer 4

refresher training carried out at an ATO followed by a test.

Question 5

when is a full IR test required for renewal?

Answer 5

if the rating has been lapsed for 7 years or more

Question 6

what is RVSM airspace?

Answer 6

RVSM airspace in the North Atlantic (NAT) region covers the same flight levels as in the EUR RVSM area. RVSM is the generic term for a reduction in vertical separation from 2000 FT to 1000 FT that can be applied to approved operators of approved aeroplanes operating between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive.

Question 7

what are the certification and approval requirements for B-RNAV in the UK?

Answer 7

To be eligible for B-RNAV operations on-board navigation equipment will be required to provide en-route lateral track keeping accuracy of +/- 5 nm or better for 95% of the flight time (RNAV 5). For UK operators and UK registered aircraft the only approval required under the ANO is that B-RNAV equipment and its installation in the aircraft conform to the provisions outlined in the UK Air Navigation Order.

Question 8

What must an aircraft be equipped with to fly an RNAV approach?

Answer 8

The aircraft navigation system shall include at least one GPS receiver. The navigation system must be approved to conduct :

a) RNAV (GNSS) Approaches or;
b) Approaches with RNP 0.3 or RNP-RNAV 0.3.

Question 9

what radio equipment must we carry when IFR?

Answer 9

The carriage and operation of two independent VHF 8.33 kHz channel spacing aircraft radio equipment suitable to maintain continuous two-way radiotelephony communication with the appropriate ATC units on the in- tended route.

Question 10

What navigation equipment do we need to fly public transport flights under IFR?

Answer 10

Duplicated VOR receiver, DME, ADF, and a 75 MHz marker beacon receiver.EASA or State approved equipment, which meets the RNAV5 requirement.Radio navigation equipment capable of receiving signals from one or more aeronautical radio stations on the surface to enable the aircraft to be guided to a point from which a visual landing can be made at the aerodrome at which the aircraft is to land.

Question 11

How are VDF bearings classified?

Answer 11

Class A: accurate to within ±2 degrees;
• Class B: accurate to within ±5 degrees;
• Class C: accurate to within ±10 degrees.

Question 12

what is an NDB’s range based on?

Answer 12

a daytime protection ratio between wanted and unwanted signals that limits bearing errors at that distance to ±5 degrees or less.

Question 13

how far out does an ILS glide path provide coverage?

Answer 13

10nm unless stated otherwise

Question 14

what is the localisers useable coverage sector?

Answer 14

35 degrees at 10nm 10 degrees at 18nm

Question 15

at what level should we fly when IFR?

Answer 15

at least 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 5nm except if the aircraft is in the UK, flying above 300f0ft with the surface in sight and visibility is greater than 800m

Question 16

when is an IFR flight required to make position reports?

Answer 16

An IFR flight operating outside controlled airspace and required by the appropriate ATS authority to:
submit a flight plan,
maintain a listening watch on the appropriate radio frequency and establish two-way communication, as necessary, with the air traffic services unit providing flight information service, shall report position as specified in SERA.8025 Position Reports for controlled flights.
shall report position as specified in SERA.8025 Position Reports for controlled flights.

Question 17

what is the semi-circular rule?

Answer 17

fly at odd thousands flying eastbound and even levels flying westbound

Question 18

what is minimum en route altitude?

Answer 18

the altitude between 2 navaid fixes that above which guarantees the best navigational signal coverage and also guarantees obstacle clearance

Question 19

How do we activate a previously filed flight plan?

Answer 19

Smallprop 123, activating VFR flight plan, departed Hometown, one two tree five, to destination Springfield

Question 20

do we need to activate our flight plan at a controlled airport?

Answer 20

no, it is done automatically

Question 21

how do we request to leave an airway?

Answer 21

G-DOSB, request to leave control airspace to the west/east/by descent. controller will then pass instructions along with RPS

Question 22

What is the format for filing an airborne flightplan?

Answer 22

1. Aircraft identification and type.
2. Position and heading.
3. Level and flight conditions.
4. Departure aerodrome.
5. Estimated time at entry point.
6. Route and point of first intended landing.
7. True airspeed.
8. Desired level on airway or advisory route.

Question 23

explain an approach ban?

Answer 23

an approach must not be continued either: below 100f0ft or;

if the MDA/H DA/H is above 1000ft the approach cannot be continued into the final approach segment

if RVR falls below minima after the 1000ft point the approach can be continued td DA/MDA/

Question 24

what is the difference between RVR and visibility?

Answer 24

visibility is the lowest visibility in any direction while RVR is the visibility in runway directions

Question 25

what should ATC pass to you if you cancel your IFR flight plan?

Answer 25

Any meteorological information which could make VFR challenging

Question 26

what does a mode A transponder squawk?

Answer 26

an identifying code only

Question 27

what does a mode C transponder squawk?

Answer 27

a code, Flight level/altitude

Question 28

what does a mode S transponder allow on top of mode C capabilities?

Answer 28

data exchange

Question 29

how do we go around from a circling approach if necessary?

Answer 29

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the missed approach specified for that particular procedure shall be followed. The transition from the visual (circling) manoeuvre to the missed approach should be initiated by a climbing turn, within the circling area, towards the landing runway, to return to the circling altitude or higher, immediately followed by interception and execution of the missed approach procedure.

Question 30

when would we fly a circling approach?

Answer 30

It is accomplished any time the final approach course is not within 30° of the runway or when landing on a different runway from the approach being flown