Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Flying > IR - DA42 > Flashcards

IR - DA42 Flashcards

1
Q

Stalling speeds (max weight)

A

V(S0) - 62kt
V(S1) - 66kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

V(X)

A

90kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

V(Y)

A

90kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

V(YSE)

A

85kt - BLUE LINE
= V(SSE) minimum control speed for training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

V(MCA)

A

76kt (per Stapleford)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

V(R)

A

80kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Operating speed range in ice

A

118 - 156 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

V(FE) - approach & landing

A

Approach - 133kt
Landing - 113kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

V(LE)

A

188kt
Extension AND extended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

V(LOR)

A

152kt
Retraction speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

V(REF)

A

84kt (86kt flapless)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

V(NO)

A

151kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

V(NE)

A

188kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MTOM

A

1900kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MLM

A

1805kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MZFM

A

1765kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Empty mass

A

1450kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Max baggage
- Nose
- Cockpit
- Rear extension

A

Nose: 30kg
Cockpit: 45kg
Rear extension: 18kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When does landing gear warner go off

A

Landing gear retracted and:
- Flaps in LDG position; or
- Power < 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Maximum load factor

A

3.8G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Max crosswind component

A

20kt Stapleford
(25kt pilots handbook)

[Gusting >25kt, Paul says don’t go]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fuel types

A

Jet-A, Jet-A1 and some others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Total fuel useable (and total)

A

50 USG useable
[51 USG total]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Typical fuel flow rate

A

10 USG/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Max difference between fuel content in L and R tanks

A

5 USG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Autopilot operation speed limits

A

90-180 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Autopilot operation height limits

A

200ft AGL in approach and departure
800ft AGL other phases

28
Q

Critical Engine

A

Left

29
Q

“Pitot Fail” meaning

A

Pitot heat failure; or
Overheat on the ground leading to temporary thermal cutout

30
Q

“LOI” warning

A

GPS integrity insufficient for phase of flight

31
Q

Max starter time

A

10 seconds

32
Q

Engines
- # cylinders
- # stroke
- sump type

A

4 cylinder
4 stroke
Wet sump

33
Q

Feathering rpm limit

A

Switching off engine master feathers the engine, but only if rpm is above 1300rpm.

34
Q

Validity of instrument rating

A

12 months from skills test
Revalidation by proficiency check within 3 months of expiry date

35
Q

Privileges of Instrument Rating

A

Able to fly in IFR conditions down to decision height of 200ft

36
Q

Semi-circular rule (IFR)

A

Track 0 - 179: Odds FL30, FL50,…
Track 180 - 359: Evens FL40, FL60,…

37
Q

ATS services

A

Traffic: Pilot must advise before changing level or route. Controller provides information about traffic only, not deconfliction instructions.

Deconfliction: Only IFR flights. Pilots must follow instructions from controller. ATC will provide instructions to achieve deconfliction minima.

Procedural service: Non-radar version of deconfliction based only on information available to the controller.

Pilots ALWAYS responsible for terrain clearance.

38
Q

Minimum En-route Altitude vs
Minimum Safe Altitude

A

MEA is min alt between two fixes ensuring terrain clearance and navaid coverage.
MSA is a more general term that allows you to determine an altitude for a phase of the flight to ensure terrain clearance.

39
Q

RVR vs visibility

A

RVR is specific to the runway and takes into consideration runway lighting.
General visibility is usually lower.

40
Q

Visual references required to pass DA/MDA

A

Main runway lights

41
Q

LPV vs LNAV/VNAV

A

LPV uses augmented GPS system to establish point in 3d space and give 3d guidance to touchdown zone. NOT precision approach though.

LNAV/VNAV uses GPS data for the 2d approach (LNAV) and uses barometric data to generate 3d guidance.

42
Q

Requirement to go below MDA on circling approach

A

1) Can identify threshold
2) Can descend at normal rate
3) Sufficient visibility for approach procedure
4) Suitable visual references (threshold itself, threshold lights or ALS)

43
Q

How to do missed approach from circling approach

A

Make an initial call towards the landing runway
Intercept the missed approach track and climb away

44
Q

Action on radio failure

A

Set 7600.
If VFR conditions continue flight under VFR and land ASAP.
Follow last clearance received, if not the filed route plan and aim to commence approach as close to the ETA as possible.

45
Q

Position report format

A

EXM [xx], CLN, 34, FL70, DET, 52

CLN - position
34 - time
FL70 - altitude/FL (add climbing XX if true)
DET - next position
52 - time @ DET

46
Q

Stapleford minima for TO & L

A

TO: 300ft AAL, 1000m
L: 1000ft AAL, 1500m
[Instrument procedures per the procedure minima]

47
Q

Electrical system

A

28v DC

48
Q

Backup batteries

A

30 minute backup for the ECU only
12V, 7.2 Ah batteries under each seat

49
Q

Main battery voltage

A

24V, 13.6 Ah

50
Q

Take off alternate
- When required
- What is required

A

Required if landing minima not met at the departure aerodrome.
For 2 engine aircraft must be within 1 hours OEI cruise.

51
Q

Destination alternate
- When required
- What is required

A

NOT required if VMC forecast for 1 hour either side of ETA.
Need 2 if weather conditions not satisfied at first one, distance must be considered in the fuel calcs.

52
Q

Documents always required on board (4)

A

Flight Manual
Details of flight plan (as filed)
Charts
Interception info

53
Q

Documents that can stay at airfield if planning to land at same airfield (6)

A

Original Cert of Registration
Original Cert of Airworthiness
Noise Cert
Radio Licence
Insurance Cert
Journey Log

54
Q

Conditions conducive to windshear

A

Thunderstorms, Cb

55
Q

Memory list - entering a climb

A

Set
Pitch
Power
Pressure

56
Q

Memory list - Main downwind checks

A

Ident
Icing
Missed Approach
and Minima
Set Comms and CDI

57
Q

Memory list - BUFLITH

A

Brakes
Undercarriage
Fuel Pumps
Landing light
Instruments (QNH x 3)
T’s & P’s
Hatches & Harnesses (“check yours”)

58
Q

Memory list - 500ft

A

Power 92%

G - Gear

F - Flaps up
E - T’s & P’s green
L - Landing light

59
Q

Memory list - Minima

A

DA/MDA
Bugging
Looking Up
ACA
RVR
ROD

60
Q

Memory list - TOC

A

Autopilot
Routing (delete waypoints)
Checklist (ATIS)
Descent (request)

61
Q

Pass your message

A

Exam XX
DA42
[Stapleford - Stapleford]
VFR/IFR
[Location]
[Altitude & QNH]

62
Q

Departure Brief

A

TO runway 21L
300ft noise
500ft power
800ft turn [initial track]
Initial climb to 2300ft

63
Q

Crew Take Off Brief

A

Full Power TO runway 21L
Crosswind [] within limits
I will rotate at 80kt
Malf. <80kt I will reject the takeoff
Malf. >80kt carry malf. into the air, deal with it according to checklist
Look to land back at Stapleford if possible, otherwise head to alternate [Cam/Snd] where forecast is above landing minima for ETA + 1hr

64
Q

2 engine power/pitch/speed
- Climb
- Cruise
- Descent
- Pattern
- Approach

A

Climb: 92%, 10 deg, 100kt
Cruise: 65%, - , 135kt
Descent: 30%, -2.5 deg, 135kt

Pattern: 55%, - , 125kt
Approach: 50%, -5 deg, 110kt

65
Q

1 engine power/pitch/speed
- Climb
- Cruise
- Descent
- Pattern
- Approach

A

Climb: 92%, 10 deg, 85kt
Cruise: 80%, - , 125kt
Descent: 45%, -2.5 deg, 125kt

Pattern: 80%, - , 125kt
Approach: 60%, -1 deg, 110kt

Flying (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions