investigations Flashcards

1
Q

What are haematinics?

A

Haematinics are the nutrients needed by the bone marrow to make blood cells in the process of haematopoiesis. Without adequate amounts of these nutrients, cytopenia(s) and related symptoms can develop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

clinical signs of anaemia on examination

A

General and conjunctival pallor
Atrophic glossitis
Angular cheilitis
Koilonychia (spoon-shaped nails) – less common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Ferritin?

A

Ferritin is an intracellular protein complex that binds iron and is responsible for most iron storage in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is Ferritin related to iron storage?

A

Small amounts of ferritin are released into the serum to transport and absorb excess iron and therefore act as a surrogate serum marker for body iron storage.

There is a direct correlation between serum ferritin levels and overall iron stores in health. However, serum ferritin is an acute-phase protein, and so increases in inflammatory states, chronic kidney disease, liver disease, and malignancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What level of ferritin indicates IDA?

A

The British Society for Haematology (BSH) guidelines suggest a serum ferritin level of <15 μg/l is indicative of an iron deficiency in those aged >5 years.

A level of <150 μg/l should act as a trigger to consider further investigations for potential iron deficiency if a patient has a concurrent inflammatory condition (acute or chronic) or renal impairment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is transferrin saturation?

A

Transferrin saturation is the ratio of total serum iron (or the total iron-binding capacity) to transferrin expressed as a percentage.

Transferrin is the primary serum iron transporter molecule in the body. In an iron-deficient state, the body produces more transferrin to increase the total iron-binding capacity and so acquire more iron for its cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what would be seen on a blood film in iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Blood film features which make iron deficiency more likely include anisocytosis, microcytosis, hypochromia, pencil cells, target cells, and elliptocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

serum iron….

A

Serum iron only measures a fraction of the iron in the blood. It can only measure the ferric form (Fe3+) and not the iron incorporated in haemoglobin molecules.

Serum iron levels show diurnal variation and are sensitive to recent iron intake therefore, measuring serum iron in isolation has no role in determining a patient’s iron stores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is total iron binding capacity?

A

The TIBC is calculated by taking a serum sample and adding excess iron to fully saturate the iron carrying molecules.

The TIBC is a measurement of the total iron concentration in the sample when fully saturated.

TIBC can rise in an iron-deficient state, but specificity is poor. Hence, BSH does not recommend routinely using this to assess iron stores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Transferrin…

A

Transferrin is the main serum iron transporter molecule which can be measured in a patient’s serum.

Like TIBC, transferrin can rise in iron deficiency as the body tries to increase the total iron-binding capacity. However, transferrin is a negative acute-phase protein and so decreases in inflammatory states.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

causes of B12 deficiency ?

A

Malabsorption: pernicious anaemia, Crohn’s, coeliac disease, gastric/bariatric surgery, atrophic gastritis
Dietary: vegetarians/vegans
Infection: H.pylori, giardia, tapeworm
Infants: congenital causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What antibodies should you test for in b12 deficiency ?

A

Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies (Anti-IF)

Anti-gastric parietal cell antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How to interpret a CXR?

A

Dr S ABCDE

Details - name, DOB, sec, PA/AP, inspiratory, date time

Ripe - assess the image quality
rotation, inspiration (5-6 anterior ribs in MCL or 8-10 posterior ribs above the diaphragm), Picture (straight vs oblique, entire lung fields), Exposure (penetration - IV disc spaces, spinous processes to ~T4, L) hemidiaphragm visible through cardiac shadow.)

Soft Tissue and bones - Ribs, sternum, spine, clavicles – symmetry, fractures, dislocations, lytic lesions, density.

Airway - trachea, paratracheal/mediastinal masses or adenopathy, Carina and RMB and LMB, mediastinal width, aortic know left hilum is usually higher (2cm) and squarer than the V-shaped right hilum.

Breathing - Lung fields
Vascularity, pneumothorax, lung field outlines - abnormal opacity/lucency, atelectasis, collapse, consolidation, bull. Horizontal tissue on the right lung, pulmonary infiltrates, cavitary lesion.
Pleural reflections, pleural thickening

Circulation
Heart size, heart borders, heart shape, aortic shape
Heart borders – R) border is R) atrium, L) border is L) ventricle & atrium

Diaphragm
Diaphragm shape/contour
Cardiophrenic and costophrenic angles – clear and sharp
Gastric bubble / colonic air
Subdiaphragmatic air (pneumoperitoneum)

Extras
ETT, CVP line, NG tube, PA catheters
ECG electrodes, PICC line, chest tube
PPM, AIDC, metalwork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Abdominal XR interpretation?

A

BBC
Bowel and other organs: small bowel, large bowel, lungs, liver, gallbladder, stomach, psoas muscles, kidneys, spleen and bladder.
Bones: ribs, lumbar vertebrae, sacrum, coccyx, pelvis and proximal femurs.
Calcification and artefact (e.g. renal stones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how to differentiate small and large bowel types on AXR?

A

The small bowel usually lies more centrally, with the large bowel framing it.
The small bowel’s mucosal folds are known as valvulae conniventes and are visible across the full width of the bowel.
The large bowel wall features pouches or sacculations that protrude into the lumen, known as haustra. In between the haustra are spaces known as plicae semilunaris. The haustra are thicker than the valvulae conniventes of the small bowel and typically do not appear to completely traverse the bowel. This distinction is unfortunately unreliable as dilated large bowel can have a haustral pattern that does, in fact, traverse the bowel.
Faeces have a mottled appearance and are most often visible in the colon, due to trapped gas within solid faeces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is normal bowel diameter?

A

The upper limits for the normal diameter of different bowel segments are as follows:

Small bowel: 3cm
Colon: 6 cm
Caecum: 9 cm

17
Q

Small bowel obstruction on AXR?

A

Typical abdominal X-ray features of small bowel obstruction include dilation of the small bowel (>3cm diameter) and much more prominent valvulae conniventes creating a ‘coiled-spring appearance‘.

Adhesions are the most common cause of small bowel obstruction in the developed world accounting for 75% of all cases. Some other causes include abdominal hernias (10%) and either intrinsic or extrinsic compression by neoplastic masses. 9

When interpreting an abdominal X-ray you should always inspect the inguinal regions, particularly if considering a hernia as a cause of small bowel obstruction, as they are often fairly obvious (even on plain abdominal X-rays).

18
Q

Large bowel Obstruction on AXR ?

A

The most common causes of large bowel obstruction include colorectal carcinoma and diverticular strictures. Less common causes include hernias and volvulus.

Volvulus involves a twisting of the bowel on its mesentery and most commonly occurs at the sigmoid colon or caecum. Patients with volvulus are at high risk of bowel perforation and/or bowel ischaemia secondary to vascular compromise.

Typical abdominal X-ray findings in volvulus differ depending on the sub-type:

Sigmoid volvulus: a characteristic ‘coffee bean’ appearance.
Caecal volvulus: often described as having a fetal appearance.

19
Q

What is Rigler’s sign?

A

In healthy individuals, only the inner wall of the bowel should be visible on an abdominal X-ray. The presence of free air within the abdomen (pneumoperitoneum) can result in both sides of the bowel wall becoming visible (this is known as Rigler’s sign).

20
Q

what is maintenance fluids?

A

25-30 ml/kg/day of water and
approximately 1 mmol/kg/day of potassium, sodium and chloride and
approximately 50-100 g/day of glucose to limit starvation ketosis

So, for a 80kg patient, for a 24 hour period, this would translate to:
2 litres of water
80mmol potassium

21
Q

DVLA Neurological disorders?

A

first unprovoked/isolated seizure: 6 months off if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met then this is increased to 12 months

for patients with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures:
may qualify for a driving licence if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months
if there have been no seizures for 5 years (with medication if necessary) a ‘til 70 licence is usually restored
withdrawawl of epilepsy medication: should not drive whilst anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for 6 months after the last dose

Syncope
simple faint: no restriction
single episode, explained and treated: 4 weeks off
single episode, unexplained: 6 months off
two or more episodes: 12 months off

stroke or TIA: 1 month off driving, may not need to inform DVLA if no residual neurological deficit
multiple TIAs over short period of times: 3 months off driving and inform DVLA
craniotomy e.g. For meningioma: 1 year off driving*
pituitary tumour: craniotomy: 6 months; trans-sphenoidal surgery ‘can drive when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving’
narcolepsy/cataplexy: cease driving on diagnosis, can restart once ‘satisfactory control of symptoms’
chronic neurological disorders e.g. multiple sclerosis, motor neuron disease: DVLA should be informed, complete PK1 form (application for driving licence holders state of health)

22
Q

DVLA cardiovascular disorders?

A

angioplasty (elective) - 1 week off driving
CABG - 4 weeks off driving
acute coronary syndrome- 4 weeks off driving
1 week if successfully treated by angioplasty
angina - driving must cease if symptoms occur at rest/at the wheel
pacemaker insertion - 1 week off driving

implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)
if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia: cease driving for 6 months
if implanted prophylactically then cease driving for 1 month. Having an ICD results in a permanent bar for Group 2 drivers

successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia- 2 days off driving
aortic aneurysm of 6cm or more - notify DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review.
an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving
heart transplant: do not drive for 6 weeks, no need to notify DVLA