Clinical Haematology/Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Causes of anaphylaxis?

A

Foods

Insect venom

Medications (penicillin, NSAIDs, Chemotherapy)

Latex

Idiopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pathophysiology of anaphylaxis?

A

Primarily and IgE mediated hypersensitivity reaction involving the rapid release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells and basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Clinical features of Anaphylaxis

A

Airway problems may include:
swelling of the throat and tongue →hoarse voice and stridor
Breathing problems may include:
respiratory wheeze
dyspnoea
Circulation problems may include:
hypotension
tachycardia

generalised pruritus
widespread erythematous or urticarial rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acute Management of Anaphylaxis?

A

IM adrenaline
< 6months 100-150mcg

6 months - 6 years - 150mch

6-12 years 300mcg

> 12 years and adults - 500 mcg

Adrenaline can be given every 5 minutes if needed.
The best site for adrenaline is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Management of anaphylaxis following stabilisation?

A

Non-sedating oral antihistamines

Serum tryptase levels will be raises in true episode of acute anaphylaxis and rain elevated for up to 12 hours.

Refer to specialist allergy clinic

Adrenaline injector provided to patient - should be prescribed 2 and training on how to use it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is defined as refractory anaphylaxis?

A

defined as respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite 2 doses of IM adrenaline
IV fluids should be given for shock
expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when should patients be discharged after anaphylaxis?

A

fast-track discharge (after 2 hours of symptom resolution):
good response to a single dose of adrenaline
complete resolution of symptoms
has been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it
adequate supervision following discharge

minimum 6 hours after symptom resolution
2 doses of IM adrenaline needed, or
previous biphasic reaction

minimum 12 hours after symptom resolution
severe reaction requiring > 2 doses of IM adrenaline
patient has severe asthma
possibility of an ongoing reaction (e.g. slow-release medication)
patient presents late at night
patient in areas where access to emergency access care may be difficult
observation for at 12 hours following symptom resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Neutropenic sepsis?

A

Neutropenic sepsis is a relatively common complication of cancer therapy, usually as a consequence of chemotherapy. It most commonly occurs 7-14 days after chemotherapy. It may be defined as a neutrophil count of < 0.5 * 109 in a patient who is having anticancer treatment and has one of the following:
a temperature higher than 38ºC or
other signs or symptoms consistent with clinically significant sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Aetiology of neutropenic sepsis?

A

coagulase-negative, Gram-positive bacteria are the most common cause, particularly Staphylococcus epidermidis
this is probably due to the use of indwelling lines in patients with cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what can be used as prophylaxis of Neutropenic spepsis?

A

if it is anticipated that patients are likely to have a neutrophil count of < 0.5 * 109 as a consequence of their treatment they should be offered a fluoroquinolone

e.g. ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Management of neutropenic sepsis?

A

abx should be started immediate
Pip/taz

Assessed by a specialist and risk stratified to see if they may be able to have OP treatment

if patients are still febrile and unwell after 48 hours an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem is often prescribed +/- vancomycin

if patients are not responding after 4-6 days the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT), rather than just starting therapy antifungal therapy blindly

there may be a role for G-CSF in selected patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the features of SVC obstruction?

A

dyspnoea is the most common symptom
swelling of the face, neck and arms - conjunctival and periorbital oedema may be seen
headache: often worse in the mornings
visual disturbance
pulseless jugular venous distension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

causes of SVC obstruction?

A

common malignancies: small cell lung cancer, lymphoma
other malignancies: metastatic seminoma, Kaposi’s sarcoma, breast cancer
aortic aneurysm
mediastinal fibrosis
goitre
SVC thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Management of SVC obstruction

A

Management is dependant on the individual patient and malignancy and advice should be taken from the oncology team. Options include:
endovascular stenting is often the treatment of choice to provide symptom relief
certain malignancies such as lymphoma, small cell lung cancer may benefit from radical chemotherapy or chemo-radiotherapy rather than stenting
the evidence base supporting the use of glucocorticoids is weak but they are often given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how may blood product transfusion complications classified?

A

immunological: acute haemolytic, non-haemolytic febrile, allergic/anaphylaxis
infective
transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)
other: hyperkalaemia, iron overload, clotting

Infective
Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (leucodepletion has reduced this risk)

Platelets - Common contaminants include Staphylococcus epidermidis and Bacillus cereus.
RBC- BCs are primarily at risk for transmitting viral agents such as HIV, HBV, and HCV. Bacterial contamination is less common but possible, particularly from skin flora during collection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is non-haemolytic febrile reaction
what are the features
and how is it managed?

A

Thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage.
Due to WBC HLA antigens

Red cell transfusion 1-20%
Plt transfusion 10-30%

Features
Chills, fevers

Management - Slow or stop the transfusion, paracetamol, monitor

17
Q

What is Minor allergic reaction in transfusion complication?

A

minor allergic reaction - through to be caused by foreign plasma proteins

Features - pruritus, urticaria

Management - temporarily stop the transfusion, antihistamine, monitor

18
Q

anaphylaxis in transfusion reaction - features and management?

A

Can be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies

Features
Hypotension, dyspnoea, wheezing, angioedema

Tx - stop the transfusion
IM adrenaline
ABC support - oxygen, fluids

19
Q

What is acute haemolytic reaction - features and management?

A

ABO-incompatible blood e.g. secondary to human error - leads to massive intravascular haemolysis

Features - fever, abdominal pain, hypotension

Tx
Stop the transfusion

Confirm diagnosis - check the identity of patient/name on blood product
send blood for direct Coombs test, repeat typing and cross-matching

Fluid resuscitation and supportive care

20
Q

What is transfusion associated circulatory overload (TACO)

A

Excessive rate of transfusion, pre-existing heart failure

Features - pulmonary oedema, HTN

Management
Slow or stop transfusion
Consider IV loop diuretics and oxygen

21
Q

Transfusion related acute lung injury - features and management?

A

Non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema thought to be secondary to increased vascular permeability caused by host neutrophils that become activated by substances in donated blood

Features
Hypoxia, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, fever, hypotension

Management
stop transfusion
supportive care

22
Q

causes of Thrombophilia?

A

Gain of function polymorphisms
factor V Leiden (activated protein C resistance): most common cause of thrombophilia
prothrombin gene mutation: second most common cause

Deficiencies of naturally occurring anticoagulants
antithrombin III deficiency
protein C deficiency
protein S deficiency

Acquired - anti phospholipid syndrome