Clinical Scenarios part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Differentials for SOB and peripheral oedema?

A

Seconds to minutes – acute asthma attack, anaphylaxis, pneumothorax), inhaled foreign body, acute PE
Hours to days – Pneumonia, Heart Failure, Pleural Effusion, acute PE
Weeks to months – worsening COPD, chronic asthma, heart failure, pulmonary fibrosis, anaemia, pulmonary hypertensive, obesity.

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2
Q

Investigations for SOB and peripheral oedema?

A

I would send blood tests for FBC, U+Es, CRP as well as a troponin if it is indicated from the history. Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) may be the cause of the decompensated HF.

I will organise an urgent ECG to assess for any cardiac arrhythmia - especially as the patient has a history of AF - as well as any evidence of acute ischemic changes.

A CXR will be important to look for signs of pulmonary oedema. A CXR will also exclude pneumothorax and consolidation.

An ABG will be useful to assess the PaO₂ and PaCO₂.

I would continue to monitor the patient’s saturations. However, this may be inaccurate if the patient is peripherally shut down.

If there are signs of sepsis I would send off a septic screen – sputum, urine, blood cultures.

When the patient is more stable I will need to arrange an echocardiogram to assess the cardiac function.

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3
Q

CXR signs of pulmonary oedema ?

A

I would look for interstitial shadowing, enlarged hila, prominent upper lobe vessels, pleural effusion and Kerley B lines. Cardiomegaly may or may not be present.

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4
Q

Management of pulmonary oedema?

A

Sit up right and start high flow oxygen
Furosemide - the dose should be doubled at two-hour intervals as needed up to the maximum recommended doses. Urinary catheter - monitor urine out put

Vasodilator therapy - with urgent need for after load reduction (e.g. severe hypertension) It is recommended as an adjunct to diuretic therapy when there has been inadequate response. Therefore, based on the response to the above and if the SBP is >90 mmHg and the patient does not have aortic stenosis, then I could start an IV infusion of GTN and titrate the dose against the BP.

If BP < 90 - consider contacting ITU for inotropic support

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5
Q

Causes of decompensation of HF?

A

Chronic stable heart failure may easily decompensate. This most commonly results from an intercurrent illness (such as pneumonia), acute coronary syndrome, cardiac arrhythmias (such as AF), uncontrolled hypertension, or the person’s failure to maintain an adequate fluid restriction, diet, or a lack of compliance with medication.

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6
Q

Classification of heart failure?

A

New York heart association function classification

I - Cardiac disease, but no symptoms and no limitation in ordinary physical activity, e.g. no shortness of breath when walking, climbing stairs, etc.

II - Mild symptoms (mild shortness of breath and/or angina) and slight limitation during ordinary activity.

III- Marked limitation in activity due to symptoms, even during less-than-ordinary activity, e.g. walking short distances (20–100 m).
Comfortable only at rest.

IV - Severe limitations. Experiences symptoms even while at rest. Mostly bedbound patients.

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7
Q

What medications improve morbidity and mortality in patients with heart failure?

A

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor and single-agent angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB), have both been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. A well known study is the SAVE trial that demonstrated a 19% reduction in mortality with captopril compared to placebo.

In addition, beta-blockers and mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (such as Spironolactone) have also been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in these patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction.

It is important to initiate these treatments in these patients once they have been stabilised following their acute admission. They should be up titrated to the highest tolerated dose.

Recent evidence from the DELIVER trial suggests a role for SGLT2 inhibitors in reducing morbidity and mortality for patients with heart failure and a reduced ejection fraction, although these drugs are not yet part of the routine management as per the NICE guidelines (Reference).

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8
Q

Counselling on DOAC?

A
  • importance of adherence
  • no monitoring required
  • Signs and symptoms of unusual bleeding and to seek urgent medical attention
  • they may notice they are more at risk of bleeding from small innocuous events
  • they need to inform doctor/dentist if having any planned procedures
  • should carry a patent alert card
  • provide written information
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9
Q

A-E assessment in epilepsy?

A

Open the airway by laying the patient on her side in a semiprone position.
If possible try to place an OP or NP airway.

B - high flow oxygen

E - look for head injury

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10
Q

causes of seizure?

A

If has diagnosis of epilepsy - usual presentation of seizure, new medication, reduced dose, poor compliance, withdrawal of medication

Alcohol
Overdose - e.g. tricyclic
Electrolyte disturbance
Infection - meningitis
head injury
hypoglycaemia
Space occupying lesion

Can be divided into
Metabolic and Electrolyte Disturbance - hypo/hyperglycaemia, hypo/hypernatraemia, hypocalcaemia, uremia, hepatic encephalopathy

Central Nervous System (CNS) pathologies - traumatic brain injury, stroke, tumours or lesions, CNS infections

Substance related causes - alcohol withdrawal, illicit drugs, carbon monoxide

Hypoxia
Eclampsia

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11
Q

Investigations for seizure?

A

Bloods - U&E’s CBG, calcium, magnesiums, liver enzymes, and FBC
toxicology screen

***blood levels for anticonvulsants

ECG
monitoring observation

CT head
MRI head
EEG

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12
Q

management of seizure?

A

stabilise patient - most seizure terminate without any intervention - supportive management through oxygen< IV fluids and treat hypoglycaemia

> 5 minutes - benzes - Rectal diazepam or IV lorazepam.

if continues - ITU referral
IV infusion of phenytoin

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13
Q

why is lorazepam better than diazepam ?

A

Because lorazepam has strong cerebral binding, a long duration of action and does not accumulate in lipid stores, it has distinct advantages over diazepam in early status epilepticus.

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14
Q

what is status epileptics?

A

Status epilepticus is a single epileptic seizure lasting more than five minutes, or two or more seizures within a five minute period, without the person returning to normal in between them.

Status epilepticus can be divided into both convulsive and non-convulsive. Non-convulsive status can be difficult to diagnose.

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15
Q

what is refractory status and how is it managed?

A

Refractory status is where seizures continue beyond 60 minutes after initial therapy.

Refractory status should be treated by transferring the patient to ITU as they will require general anaesthesia (either propofol or thiopental). EEG monitoring should be commenced.

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16
Q

complications of status?

A

Hyperthermia
Acidosis (secondary to raised lactate)
Hypotension
Respiratory failure
Rhabdomyolysis
Aspiration

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17
Q

What is important to tell a patient presenting with seizures for the first time?

A

Driving - inform DVLA
not driving 6 months

LGV or passenger carrying vehicle should not drive for 5 years

Advice should be given about risks such as bathing – they should shower instead. A patient should be advised not to swim alone.

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18
Q

Describing SVT on ECG?

A

describe if regular or irregular

Are there p waves - no waves could be due to the rate nd may be buried in the preceding T wave. Not being able to see P waves indicates SVT rather than sinus tachy

look at QRS complex
ST depression or elevation
comment on the rate

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19
Q

causes of SVT?

A

Cardiac causes – MI, Heart Failure, Cardiomyopathy – anything which interferes with the conduction systems in the heart

Respiratory causes – the most common presentation of PE is tachycardia! Should be high on your initial differentials, however, normal sats point against this.

Infection – the most common cause of SVT presenting to hospital. You will want to look for other symptoms and signs. Lack of temperature reduces this possibility

Metabolic causes – Thyroid problems can cause arrhythmias
Volume loss – anaemia or volume loss secondary to increased GI loss

Electrolyte imbalance – Hypo/Hyperkalaemia (although there are no specific signs in this ECG, it should still be included), Hypomagnesaemia

Drugs and alcohol – caffeine, alcohol, beta-agonists (salbutamol), amphetamines

Pain and stress – A differential that should not be forgotten as it can be easily treated. May be linked with one above – e.g. MI

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20
Q

How do you manage SVT?

A

My management of tachycardia would then be determined by whether the patient is stable or unstable, the type of tachycardia, and the likely cause.

I would use an ABCDE approach to first establish this, and ensure the following key parts of the management are enacted.

Check airway, breathing, and circulation.
Give oxygen if the oxygen saturation is less than 94% or the patient is short of breath.
Perform a 12 lead ECG if the patient is stable.
Identify rhythm.
Check blood pressure.
Obtain IV access. A fluid challenge can be given to see if tachycardia is responsive to volume status.
Identify and treat reversible causes if the rhythm is sinus tachycardia.

If the ECG was SVT and patient stable - attempt to reverse the using vagal manoeuvres

if unsuccessful - follow ALS guidelines of management of SVT. Escalate to my senior
essential to continue assessing using the A-E approach.

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21
Q

Investigations for SVT?

A

Bedside: ECG; ABG/VBG (quickly alert you to electrolyte imbalance. An ABG would be more useful if underlying respiratory cause is suspected); Blood pressure.

Bloods: FBC (anaemia and infection markers); U+Es + Mg (electrolyte imbalances and kidney function – may have AKI if hypovolemic); TFTs; LFTs (if alcohol or medications are suspected); CRP (infection); Troponin (If MI is being considered)

CXR – underlying chest infection. Signs of cardiomegaly. Signs of heart failure

ECHO – to look for structural heart disease

24 hour tape – this is more of a long-term investigation if SVTs are thought to be secondary to cardiac arrhythmias or paroxysmal.

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22
Q

medications for SVT?

A

important for treating the underlying cause
IV fluids, Abx, ACS protocol etc

Adenosine 6mg, followed by a further 12mg in no initial effect
(if adenosine worked - the tachycardia can be considered nodal in origin (if it is atrial in origin, adenosine will only transiently block it. It can self terminate but often reverts back)

If tachycardia resumes - could consider beta blockers or CCB (diltiazem)

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23
Q

contraindications for adenosine?
what should you tell a patient before giving adenosine?

A

nd or 3rd degree heart block without a pacemaker; Long QT syndrome; decompensated heart failure; Asthma. B
Before giving you should explain to the patient that they may experience flushing, nausea, light-headedness associated with a ‘sense of impending doom’. This is secondary to TRANSIENT asystole following IV administration.

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24
Q

Patient with SVT - The patient starts becoming hypotensive, with a BP of 80/50 mmHg, HR 170 bpm, and sats 88%. What would you now do?

A

This patient is now UNSTABLE. At this point you should call a senior for help and put out a 2222 call. This shows to the examiners you have identified early that this patient could deteriorate further! Following this you should start IV fluid resuscitation and give oxygen.

As per ALS guidelines, since this patient has an SVT and is haemodynamically unstable, he should be considered for immediate DC cardioversion.

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25
Q

How to differentiate SVT?

A

SVTs can be broken down by site of origin and rhythm regularity. Is the SVT atrial in origin or atrioventricular? Is the rate regular or irregular?

Atiral tachycardias - AF, A flutter, focal atrial tachycardia.

AV node-dependent tachycardia - AVNRT (most common type of SVT), AVRT (involving an accessory pathway - Wolff-parkinson-white)

Can be classified based on mechanism (re-entry, focal or triggered) or site of origin (atrial, AV node dependent, or junctional)

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26
Q

what is DKA?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious and potentially life-threatening complication of diabetes mellitus, characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis.

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27
Q

What leads to DKA?

A

DKA results from an absolute or relative deficiency of insulin, leading to increased hepatic glucose production, decreased peripheral glucose utilization, and enhanced lipolysis with subsequent ketone body formation.

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28
Q

Precipitants of DKA?

A

Infection - Acute infections can increase insulin requirements by inducing a state of physiological stress and elevating counter-regulatory hormones.

Non compliance with treatment
Newly diagnosed diabetes

Certain medications: Drugs such as glucocorticoids, thiazide diuretics, atypical antipsychotics and sodium-glucose co-transporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitors can increase the risk of DKA by raising blood glucose levels or decreasing insulin sensitivity

myocardial infarction, stroke, pancreatitis, or medication non-compliance

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29
Q

Clinical features of DKA?

A

Hyperglycaemia - will lead to osmotic diuresis = polyuria and polydipsia, blurred vision, headache, and lethargy

Acidosis - thi will lead to deep rapid breathing (kussmaul) as a compensatory mechanism to expel carbon monoxide

Ketosis - due to insulin deficiency increased lipolysis leads to production of ketone - ketosis presents with characteristic sweet, fruity, or acetone odour on the breath

Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance - particularly hypokalaemia which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias

Neurological symptoms - altered mental status due to the effects of acidosis and hyperosmolarioty on cerebral function, seizures may be observed in severe cases

abdominal symptoms - abdo pain, nausea and vomiting are common due to ketones and delayed gastric emptying - the abdo pain can mimic an acute abdomen

Polyuria and polydipsia
Dehydration
weight loss
weakness
Hyperventilation or breathlessness
The acidosis can cause Kussmaul’s respiration (rapid deep breathing)
Abdominal pain - DKA may present as an acute abdomen
Vomiting
Confusion
blurred vision, headache, lethargy

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30
Q

DKA - key things to remember in A-E

A

A - as normal
B - as normal C - remember ECG, remember to start IV fluids, may need arterial line - easy access to get ABGs - contact ITU if these are required. Remember cap refill and urinary catheter
D- remember to check BM and ketones

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31
Q

Investigations for DKA?

A

ABG and blood glucose
Routine bloods
Serum osmolality
Blood cultures for underlying infection
urine sample and CXR as infection screen

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32
Q

DKA Diagnosis

A

British Diabetes Societies
CBG > 11
PH < 7.3
bicarb < 15
Ketones > 3 or urinary ketones +++

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33
Q

How is DKA managed?

A

I would follow the trust protocol

FLuid replacement - average fluid loss in DKA is 100mL/kg.
STAT bags as quickly as possible

Fixed rate insulin infusion should be started following fluid resuscitation - 0.1unit/kg/hour

Review response hourly
If blood glucose is not dropping by 5mmol/h and capillary ketones by 1mmol/L the infusion is increased by 1 unit/hour.

This is continued until capillary ketones <0.6, venous pH >7.3 and venous bicarbonate >18. At this point if the patient is eating and drinking regularly, you can change to a SC insulin regimen and stop the FRIII Insulin.

If the patient is on long-acting insulin this should be continued at their usual dose from the day of admission.

once blood glucose is < 14 mmol/l an infusion of 10% dextrose should be started at 125 mls/hr in addition to the 0.9% sodium chloride regime

Closely monitor potassium.
Can fall quickly with insulin treatment
may need to be added to replacement fluids

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34
Q

what is resolution of DKA defined as?

A

pH >7.3 and
blood ketones < 0.6 mmol/L and
bicarbonate > 15.0mmol/L

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35
Q

Indicators for early referral to ITU in DKA?

A

pH < 7.1
Severe DKA by the following criteria: Ketones >6 mmol/L or Bicarbonate <5 mmol/L
Hypokalaemia on admission (<3.5)
GCS < 12
Systolic BP < 90
Significant co-orbidities
pregnant

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36
Q

Complications of DKA?

A

Gastric stasis

thromboembolism (hypercoagulable state)

Arrhythmias due to hyper/hypokalaemia

Iatrogenic due to incorrect fluid therapy - cerebral oedema, hypokalaemia, hypoglycaemia

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

AKI

37
Q

cerebral oedema in DKA?

A

A rare but life-threatening complication of DKA, particularly in children
The exact aetiology is not well understood but may involve rapid shifts in osmolality during treatment.
It usually occurs 4-12 hours following the commencement of treatment but can present at any time.
Clinical manifestations include headache, altered mental status, seizures, and focal neurological deficits
If there is any suspicion a CT head and senior review should be sought
If untreated, cerebral oedema can lead to brain herniation and death.

38
Q

how do you manage patient with DKA prior to discharge?

A

discuss with patient the importance of understanding what precipitates DKA
seek medical advice if she feels she is becoming unwell
early treatment of underlying infection

Get her to see diabetes team to discuss treatment and compliance

Ensure she is under regular review for complications of diabetes

39
Q

what is HHS?

A

Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State (HHS) is characterised by hyperglycaemia, hyperosmolarity and dehydration, without significant ketoacidosis. Most patient’s present with severe dehydration.

HHS most commonly presents in type 2 diabetics who have a concomitant illness that causes reduced fluid intake.

40
Q

How Is HHS managed?

A

The most important aspect of management in HHS is fluid resuscitation. This is to avoid cardiovascular collapse and to perfuse vital organs. The average fluid loss is typically 8-10L. Osmolality should be reduced by 3-8 mOsm/kg/hr. Insulin is not required initially and blood glucose will fall with IV fluids alone. Initiation of IV insulin should be based on local hospital guidelines.

41
Q

pathophysiology of DKA?

A

absolute/relative deficiency in insulin which = decreased uptake of glucose by peripheral tissues = hyperglycaemia as glucose remains in blood stream instead of into cells for energy use

The lack of insulin also trigger gluconeogensis and glycogenolysis - further contributing to elevated blood glucose levels.

Osmotic Diuresis - hyperglycaemia causes an osmotic diuresis as glucose is excreted in the urine along with water and electrolytes such as sodium and potassium. This can lead to volume depletion, hypotension, and renal impairment if not promptly managed.

Lypolysis and ketoacidosis
In response to cellular starvation caused by lack of glucose utilisation, lipolysis occurs in adipose tissue releasing free fatty acids (FFAs). These FFAs are converted into ketone bodies - acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate, and acetone - in the liver through a process called ketogenesis. In high concentrations, these ketone bodies decrease the blood pH leading to metabolic acidosis - hence ‘ketoacidosis’.

Ketone bodies are also excreted in the urine (ketonuria), which can further exacerbate dehydration and electrolyte imbalances

Respiratory compensation to increase blood pH

The combination of osmotic diuresis and acid-base disturbance leads to significant electrolyte imbalances, particularly hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia and hypokalaemia.

42
Q

when is gluconeogenesis?

A

Gluconeogenesis is a metabolic process that creates glucose from non-carbohydrate sources. It’s a vital process that helps maintain blood glucose levels, especially during fasting

43
Q

what is glycogenolysis?

A

Glycogenolysis is the process of breaking down glycogen into glucose.

44
Q

what is glucagon ?

A

helps regulate blood sugar
released when BM drops
converts stored glucose into a usable form and releases it into the blood stream
prevents liver from storing glucose

45
Q

pathophysiology of HHS?

A

The pathophysiology involves insulin deficiency and increased counter-regulatory hormones, leading to excessive hepatic glucose production and impaired renal excretion. This results in elevated serum osmolality and triggers a shift of water from intracellular to extracellular space, causing cellular dehydration.

46
Q

How is HHS managed?

A

Management includes aggressive fluid replacement, correction of electrolyte imbalances particularly potassium, and cautious insulin therapy

47
Q

clinical features of HHS

A

fatigue, lethargy, nausea and vomiting

Neurological: altered level of consciousness, headaches, papilloedema, weakness
Haematological: hyperviscosity (may result in myocardial infarctions, stroke and peripheral arterial thrombosis)
Cardiovascular: dehydration, hypotension, tachycardia

48
Q

Diagnosis of HHS?

A

Hypovolaemia
Harker Hyperglycaemia (> 30 ) without significant ketonaemia or acidosis
Significant raised serum osmolarity

48
Q

Differential Diagnosis for acute confusion

A

sepsis
metabolic disorder (vitamin deficiency, endocrine disease, adrenal cortex disorders
Electrolyte disturbances - her/hypoglucose, Na Calcium

MI
organ failure
Uraemia in CKS

Drugs and toxins - OD< alcohol, new medications

CNS disorder
Demential
CVA
ICH
Infection (meningitis, encephalitis)
trauma
Malignancy
cerebral vasculitis

49
Q

Investigations for confusion?

A

Bedside investigations -
Bloods - fbc, u&e, CRP, calcium
VBG to check metabolic state
lactate
B12 folate thiamine and TFTs
Blood cultures

If on medication - drug levels on any medications I was concerned about

CXR
urine dip
CT head

If suspecting CNS infection - LP

50
Q

How do you assess acute confusion on admission?

A

Cognitive function can be assessed quickly using the abbreviated mental test score (AMTS). The benefit of this test is that it can then be repeated during the admission, giving an indication of response to treatment.
The Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) is a specific set of 4 questions designed for the diagnosis of delirium.

51
Q

what is in the AMT?

A

age
time
current year
address
what job do people do
DOB
year WW1 stared
current monarch
count backward from 20
recall address

52
Q

what is the confusion assessment method?

A

acute assessment and fluctuating course
inattention
disorganised thinking
altered level of consciousness

53
Q

managing acute confusional state?

A

treat underlying cause

may need sedaition - give haloperidol - may be better (benzos can exacerbate confusion)

supportive measures - correct hypoxia and dehydration

on-pharmacological treatments include nursing in a moderately lit room with repeated reassurance.
See if a family member can stay with the patient as this may be reassuring to them and may avoid the need for sedatives.
Making sure that the patient has their appropriate sensory aids (glasses, hearing aids etc.)

54
Q

Delirium vs Dementia?

A

Delirium is a sudden onset and fluctuating impairment in cognitive function and consciousness. It is transient and reversible.
Dementia is the progressive and irreversible decline in global function from a premorbid level, without any impairment in consciousness.

55
Q

What factors predispose a patient to delirium?

A

Age >65
Dementia
Multiple co-morbidities
Visual and hearing impairment
Recent surgery
Polypharmacy
Drugs and alcohol dependence

56
Q

Causes of dementia?

A

Primary causes of dementia -
Neurodegenerative conditions - Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s plus syndromes, frontotemporal dementia, CJD
Vascular dementia, normal pressure hydrocephalus

Secondary causes
Metabolic: folate, B12 and thiamine deficiency; Hypothyroidism; Cushing’s syndrome; Wilson’s disease
Vascular: Cerebrovascular disease; subdural haematoma*
Neoplastic
Inflammatory
Infections: Syphilis; HIV
Drugs and toxins: Heavy metal exposure

57
Q

How would you investigate dementia?

A

rule out reversible causes of dementia
test b12, folate and TFTs
CT head is important for anyone with a possible diagnosis of dementia to rule out reversible causes

GP to refer to memory clinic

58
Q

Treatment for Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as Donepezil may be considered in patients with mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Treatment should be initiated by a specialist in dementia. Memantine (an NMDA receptor antagonist) is licensed for use in severe Alzheimer’s disease (MMSE 3-14).

59
Q

what to do when you suspect person is having anaphylactic reaction?

A

I would call for help and make sure the nurses have contacted my seniors and 2222. I would check for life threatening features of anaphylactic reaction. These include:

Airway: swelling, hoarseness, stridor
Breathing: rapid breathing, wheeze, fatigue, cyanosis, SpO2 < 92%, confusion
Circulation: pale, clammy, low blood pressure, faintness, drowsy/coma.
If any of these are present I would give IM adrenaline. I would give high flow oxygen and maintain the patient’s airway. If there is no response I would give another IM adrenaline dose after 5 minutes along with IV fluids. I would recall for help if none had arrived.

60
Q

how do we learn from events?

A

It is important to be aware of systems in hospital for reporting serious events, especially where patients have come to harm. In this instance the examiners will want you to describe the Datix process and why this is important. Datix allow for proper investigation of serious events in hospital and looks at ways that they could have been avoided.

61
Q

communicating bad news to a patient relative- due to error?

A

examiners will want to see your human side
recognise potential confidentiality
find out from ward staff if they have seen family member before

take to a quiet place and turn off bleed
lead with a warning shot and then be direct

understand that they will be angry and upset and give time to process information

ask if they would want to speak to a senior doctor

62
Q

what is duty of candour?

A

Every healthcare professional must be open and honest with patients when something that goes wrong with their treatment or care causes, or has the potential to cause, harm or distress. This means that healthcare professionals must:

Tell the patient (or, where appropriate, the patient’s advocate, carer or family) when something has gone wrong
Apologise to the patient (or, where appropriate, the patient’s advocate, carer or family)
Offer an appropriate remedy or support to put matters right (if possible)
Explain fully to the patient (or, where appropriate, the patient’s advocate, carer or family) the short and long term effects of what has happened.

63
Q

Adrenal Crisis - A-E

A

B - remember to say During the immediate assessment of breathing, it is vital to diagnose and treat immediately life-threatening conditions (e.g. acute severe asthma, pulmonary oedema, tension pneumothorax, and massive haemothorax).

64
Q

What investigations would you order in patient who is hypotensive, tachycardia, with metabolic acidosis ?

A

Bedside - ECG
Bloods - FBC, U&E’s LFTs TFTs calcium magnesium and amylase, random cortisol
blood cultures as patient has signs of sepsis
CXR
CT abdomen - abdo pain and raised lactate
CT head if patient confused

65
Q

Differentials for a patient who is hypotensive, tachycardia with metabolic acidosis?

A

Septic shock

Acute pancreatitis
Liver failure

? intraabdominal pathology /trauma

hyponatraemia, hypoglycaemia and history of weight loss and lethargy, I would be concerned about adrenal crisis causing this presentation.

Hypothyroidism - myxoedema can present with similar symptoms - although you would expect to see an altered conscious level

66
Q

what is adrenal crisis?

A

medical emergency
potentially life threatening
Insufficient cortisol and the inability of the body to produce more cortisol in response to stressors

Patient present with constellation of symptoms - dizziness, vomiting, altered consciousness
Severe hypotension and signs of shock

67
Q

what may precipitate adrenal crisis ?

A

Adrenocortical insufficiency may be subclinical for days and months in otherwise well individuals. Stress precipitates the adrenal crisis due to the body’s inability to produce Cortisol in response to it.

Common stressors include infection, surgery , anaesthesia , trauma, exogenous steroid withdrawal

68
Q

How do you manage adrenal crisis?

A

Treatment may be required before diagnosis is confirmed

General measures - abx, fluids, oxygen, fluid balance monitoring

Iv fluids - 1L stat
make sure to closely monitor sodium - recheck in 4 hours

Administer glucocorticoid
IV hydrocortisone should be give IV hydrocortisone
Continue with IV hydrocortisone for 72 hrs before switching to oral

Mineralocorticoid replacement once the patient is stable is achieved with fludrocortisone.

69
Q

What symptoms and signs would support an underlying diagnosis of Addison’s disease?

A

Addisons = primary adrenal insufficiency - due to destruction or dysfunction of the entire adrenal cortex
effects glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid function

symptoms are often vague - weakness, fatigue, nausea, vomioting and weight loss

Hyeprpigmenation of the skin and mucous membranes

hypotension with significant orthostatic hypotension

Low BMI

70
Q

What other diseases is Addison’s disease typically associated with?

A

other autoimmune disease such as autoimmune thyroid disease, premature ovarian failure, type 1 diabetes mellitus, vitiligo, alopecia and coeliac disease

This spectrum of disorders is also referred to as autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome.

71
Q

educating patients with Addisons

A

patients should wear a medical alert bracelet

during times of stress - minor surgery, infections they should double or triple their usual steroid

Patients should know to contact their GP or seek medical help in times of severe stress when oral uptake of steroids may be compromised – for example in severe vomiting or diarrhoea. Patients should also be given instruction on how to administer IM injections in these scenarios.

72
Q

How would you investigate for primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

Short Synacthen test

The test is based on a measurement of serum cortisol before and after an injection of synthetic ACTH.

In acute adrenal crises, where delaying treatment could be life threatening, a blood sample for a random cortisol should be taken prior to starting hydrocortisone. A random plasma cortisol of greater than 25 mcg/dL effectively excludes adrenal insufficiency.

73
Q

Complications of correcting hyponatraemia rapidly?

A

The correction in sodium concentration must not exceed 10 mmol/L in the first 24 hours and 18 mmol/L in the first 48 hours. Rapid correction of hyponatraemia must be avoided as it can result in osmotic demyelination known as central pontine myelinolysis.

74
Q

what is Myxedema?

A

Myxedema is a severe form of hypothyroidism that can cause skin changes and organ dysfunction. In rare cases, it can lead to myxoedema coma, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention.

75
Q

Symptoms of Myxedema?

A

skin changes - thick, scaly plaques on the skin or skin that looks shinty and waxy
yellow, orange, brown, red or purple skin colour
Other symptoms - dry skin and hair, sparse hair, hoarse voice, confusion, drowsiness, hypothermia

76
Q

what is a thyroid storm?

A

Thyroid storm is a rare but life-threatening complication of thyrotoxicosis. It is typically seen in patients with established thyrotoxicosis and is rarely seen as the presenting feature. Iatrogenic thyroxine excess does not usually result in thyroid storm.

77
Q

what can lead to thyroid storm?

A

thyroid or non-thyroidal surgery
trauma
infection
acute iodine load e.g. CT contrast media

78
Q

Clinical features of thyroid storm?

A

fever > 38.5ºC
tachycardia
confusion and agitation
nausea and vomiting
hypertension
heart failure
abnormal liver function test - jaundice may be seen clinically

79
Q

How is thyroid storm managed?

A

symptomatic treatment e.g. paracetamol
treatment of underlying precipitating event
beta-blockers: typically IV propranolol
anti-thyroid drugs: e.g. methimazole or propylthiouracil
Lugol’s iodine
dexamethasone - e.g. 4mg IV qds - blocks the conversion of T4 to T3

80
Q

where do you give IM adrenaline?

A

anterolateral aspect of the middle 3rd of the thigh

81
Q

what is considered refractory anaphylaxis ?

A

failure to respond to 2 doses of IM adrenaline
if this happens you need to put out an arrest call

82
Q

what are the features suggestive of a acute life threatening anaphylaxis?

A

Airway: swelling, hoarse voice, stridor
Breathing: wheeze, shortness of breath, respiratory arrest
Circulation: pale, clammy, tachycardia, cardiac arrest, shock

83
Q

common c causes of anaphylaxis ?

A

Drugs and IV infusions – this can include antibiotics, IV infusions (blood products, IV immunoglobulins, contrast mediums)
Insect bites
Food – e.g. nuts, sea food
Other common causes: latex, hair dye

84
Q

how can a patients airway be maintained when intubation is not possible?

A

An emergency cricothyroidotomy can be performed in an emergency setting where intubation fails or cannot be undertaken. A 14G needle and insufflation with 100% oxygen can be used as a temporary measure until a definitive airway can be achieved.

85
Q

how should a drug error leading to anaphylaxis be managed?

A

In the first instance there is duty of candour towards the patient. The patient should be made aware of the error and apologised to. The most appropriate team member to do this may be the lead or accountable physician, but in some instances you may be the appropriate person to deliver this. In addition, the error should be highlighted to the team. A clinical incident form should be logged as serious harm came to the patient. This should then be fed back to the members of the disciplinary team involved in the incident.

86
Q

how would you class anaphylaxis as a hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Anaphylaxis, along with atopy and asthma attacks is classed as a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction.
IgE mediates it. It is a fast response that occurs in minutes, rather than hours or days.

Activated mast cells degranulate and result in the secretion of pharmacologically active mediators such as histamine, leukotrienes and prostaglandins that act on the surrounding tissue. The principal effect if these mediators is vasodilation and smooth muscle contraction.

87
Q

differential diagnosis for chest pain

A

Cardiac causes: Acute coronary syndrome, pericarditis, coronary spasm
Respiratory causes: Pulmonary Embolism, Pneumothorax, Pneumonia and subsequent pleurisy
Musculoskeletal Chest Pain
Gastrointestinal system: Oesophagitis, Pancreatitis, Cholecystitis, Boerhaave’s perforation of the Oesophagus, Peptic Ulcer Disease
Vascular causes: Aortic dissection, Aortic aneurysm
Psychiatric Causes: Anxiety

88
Q

investigations for chest pain?

A