Investigation Viva Flashcards

1
Q

Differential of a supratentorial CONVEXITY extra-axial mass lesion?

A

Meningioma (enhances) Metastasis (enhances) Arachnoid cyst (follows CSF) Epidermoid (restricted diffusion) Porencephalic cyst (WM lined) / Schizencephaly (GM lined)

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2
Q

Differential of a supratentorial intra-axial mass lesion?

A

Glioma - HGG or LGG Metastasis Abscess Demyelination Lymphoma Pilocytic astrocytoma / ATRT in a child

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3
Q

Differential of a sella / suprasellar mass lesion?

A

Pituitary adenoma Craniopharyngioma Rathke’s cleft cyst OPG Meningioma Chordoma (Rare: Aneurysm / GCT / metastasis / schwannoma)

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4
Q

Differential of an intraventricular lesion?

A

Meningoma / metastasis SEGA / Subependymoma Colloid cyst / Craniopharyngioma / Choroid plexus papilloma Ependymoma Neurocytoma / Glioma Teratoma R Abscess / AVM / Aneurysm Lipoma

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5
Q

Differential of an infratentorial extra-axial mass lesion?

A

Vestibular schwannoma Meningioma Epidermoid AVM

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6
Q

Differential of a infratentorial intra-axial mass lesion?

A

Metastasis Haemangioblastoma Cavernoma Ependymoma In paeds: Medulloblastoma / pilocytic astrocytoma / brainstem glioma

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7
Q

Differential of a infratentorial intraventricular mass lesion?

A

Ependymoma Choroid plexus papilloma Metastasis

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8
Q

How does fMRI work?

A

Based on the differential paramagnetic parameters of oxy- and deoxy-Hb the blood oxygen level-dependent (BOLD) signal can be measured and modelled to calculate changes in blood flow and infer metabolism. This can be performed at rest (Default mode network) or during task-based assessments. Statistical parametric mapping can then be used to identify statistically significant rises in blood flow.

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9
Q

What is the difference between T1 and T2?

A

T1 is spin-lattice relaxation i.e. the time for protons to realign themselves with the magnetic field. T2 is the spin to spin relaxation i.e. the time for protons to return to their out of phase state.

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10
Q

What types of MR angiography are there?

A

Contrast-enhanced and non-contrast methods. Non-contrast includes TOF, ASL ad Phase contrast. TOF (velocity dependant) and ASL are for arterial flow. Phase contrast is best for venous.

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11
Q

A 15-year-old girl with headaches and lower limb weakness. What are the important factors in the history?

A

Site of headaches - frontal / retro-orbital? suggests HCP/raised ICP. Occipital? suggests Chiari. Leg weakness - one or both? distal or proximal? Power? Gait? UL or LL only? Onset - Sudden = vascular / demyelinating, subacute and progressive = neoplastic lesion and chronic stable = congenital lesion. Characteristic - sharp lancinating pain? = TN or chronic burning pain? = dysaesthesia Radiation - Within TN distribution? Associations - UL / gait / falls / dizziness / hearing loss / visual disturbance / diplopia? Timing - Constant headache or comes and goes? Exacerbations - Worse with cough / straining?

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12
Q

A 15-year-old girl with headaches and lower limb weakness has a cerebellar lesion. How do you explain the symptoms?

A

The headache may be due to raised ICP or dural irritation. The lower limb weakness is difficult to explain from a cerebellar lesion if there is no brainstem compression. There may be other lesions in the supratentorial compartment or in the brainstem (crossed cranial nerve and hemiparesis) or spinal cord.

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13
Q

How would you examine a 15-year-old girl with headaches and lower limb weakness that has a cerebellar lesion?

A

I would start by an examination of the cranial nerves and cerebellum followed by an UL and LL examination. In the cranial nerves, I would focus on fundoscopy to identify any papilloedema, pupillary response for parinaud’s syndrome, eye movements, nystagmus, and the lower cranial nerves for any bulbar or pseudobulbar palsies. As part of the cerebellar examination, I would assess for Rhomberg’s sign, dysmetria, ataxic gait, intention tremor, hypotonia and slurred speech. In the upper and lower limbs, I would try to identify if there is a pyramidal pattern of weakness and a potential sensory level.

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14
Q

You suspect the patient has a haemangioblastoma. What investigations would you request?

A

Opthalmology to investigate for retinal angiomas. CT-CAP to identify phaeochromocytomas, renal cell carcinomas, pancreatic cysts. MRI whole neuroaxis for brain or spinal cord haemangioblastomas and endolymphatic sac tumours. BP and urine metanephrines. FBC for polycythaemia.

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15
Q

What is the normal screening for a patient with VHL?

A

Annually: Opthalmology review, urine and serum metanephrines, MRI abdomen and Brain and whole spine MRI.

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16
Q

What are the implications for children in patients with VHL?

A

I would refer a geneticist and obstetrician for pre-implantation counselling as this is an autosomal dominant condition meaning there is a 50% chance of the child having the mutation.

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17
Q

What is the natural history of haemangioblastomas in VHL?

A

Haemangioblastomas exhibit a growth phase and a quiescent phase where they remain static for many years. In asymptomatic patients, it may be reasonable to undertake a period of surveillance imaging and intervene only if the patient becomes symptomatic. In paediatric populations, there is a tendency for the lesion to grow and surgery is recommended even if asymptomatic. The size of the cystic component appears predictive of whether the lesion will become symptomatic and need treatment.

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18
Q

Should you resect the cyst wall with haemangioblastomas?

A

If it enhances this suggests tumour within the cyst wall.

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19
Q

What is the diagnosis of this 20-year-old patient?

A

VHL

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20
Q

What is this lesion and what condition is it associated with?

A

Endolymphatic sac tumour in VHL.

The CT shows a lytic and infiltrative lesion within the posterior petrous bone. The MRI shows that the lesion returns heterogenous T1 signal.

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21
Q

What is this lesion?

A

There is an infiltrative and exophytic lesion of the posterior petrous temporal bone. There is also abnormal signal intensity within the left vitreous humour. Taken together this would be indicative of a patient with VHL that is exhibiting a left endolymphatic sac tumour and left intravitreal haemorrhage most likely from a retinal angioma. Further screening of the remainder of the neuroaxis, as well as a CT-CAP of the abdomen and serum and urine metanephrines, should be taken. BP and FBC for polycythaemia.

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22
Q

Describe the components of the ICP wave.

A

P1 = percussion = arterial pulsation

P2 = tidal = intracranial compliance

P3 = dichrotic = aortic valve closure

If the P2>P1 this suggests a loss of intracerebral compliance and raised intracranial pressure.

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23
Q

What type of ICP monitors do you know?

A

The gold standard is through measurement of CSF pressure int he frontal horn of the lateral ventricle using an EVD.

Other methods include parenchyma, subdural and epidural locations.

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24
Q

How do ICP monitors work?

A

There are 3 main types:

  1. Piezoelectric strain gauge devices (Codman)
  2. Fibreoptic (Camino)
  3. Pneumatic sensor (Spiegelberg) - does not need zeroing and recalibrates every hour reducing the risk of drift.
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25
Q

How do you measure cerebral oxygenation?

A

This can be measured directly from the cerebral parenchyma using pBO2 bolts or inferred indirectly from the metabolites using microdialysis catheters via the lactate to pyruvate ratio, which if raised suggests anaerobic respiration.

The partial pressure of the oxygen supplied to the brain can be measured using an arterial line or the saturations.

Central venous saturation from the central line can also be used.

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26
Q

How do you monitor Cerebral Blood Flow?

A

Clinical status

TCDs

Katy Schmidt method with Xe-133 perfusion CT based on the Fick principle.

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27
Q

A patient with renal failure has a sudden onset of severe headache, how would you investigate them acutely and during follow up?

A

Acutely they should have a CTA or DSA. In patients with renal dysfunction there is the risk of developing contrast-induced nephropathy. I would discuss this with the renal physicians but the patient’s pre-procedure risk should be stratified (e.g. Mehran classification). If the patient’s risk is low I would encourage oral hydration before the contrast administration. If the risk of moderate or high I would discontinue nephrotoxic drugs, consider high dose statin, provide IV prehydration, N-acetyl cysteine, use the lowest dose of contrast agent and provide IV post-hydration monitoring for any renal dysfunction.

In the longer term, they can have a TOF MRA that does not require contrast and removes the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. Gadolinium carries the risk of nephrogenic systemic fibrosis.

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28
Q

What are the causes of delayed deterioration following SAH?

A

Rebleed

Hydrocephalus

Metabolic derangements - hyponatraemia

DNID

Seizure

Other - UTI / chest infection / PE / MI etc

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29
Q

How do you interpret TCDs?

A

Using the Lindegaard ratio = MCA velocity / ICA velocity

<3 = hyperaemia

>3 = mild vasospasm

>6 = severe vasospasm

MCA velocity >120 m/s suggests vasospasm.

30
Q

What are the windows for TCD insonation?

A

Temporal

Orbital

Suboccipital

Through the temporal window, the MCA flows towards the probe and ACA flows away.

The PCA flows towards the probe but is further away and slower than the MCA.

31
Q

When is screening recommended for aneurysms?

A

When a patient as two or more first-degree relatives with an aneurysm.

32
Q

Describe the histological slide

A

Nuclear atypia with pleomorphism and high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio.

Increased cell density.

Microvascular proliferation with endothelial hyperplasia forming glomeruloid tufts.

Necrosis with pseudopalisading.

The central necrosis and the high-grade features would be in keeping with a WHO grade 4 IDH-WT GBM.

33
Q

How would you manage a patient who was assaulted and has a depressed skull fracture?

A

I would ensure that they have been assessed as part of the ATLS protocol, their C-spine has been immobilised, the Airway is patent and the patient is self-ventilating with normal saturations and paO2>13 and paCO2<5. I would also ensure that they are haemodynamically stable and all other life-threatening injuries have been ruled out. I would then examine the patients neurological status including the GCS, pupillary response, cranial nerve followed by UL/LL examinations.

I would then examine the scalp to determine if this is an open fracture, if there is any gross contamination with foreign material and if there is CSF visible.

In the case of an open fracture, I would administer IV antibiotics prophylactically (2g Ceftriaxone) as well as pneumovax. I would commence AEDs if the patient has had a seizure.

I would obtain a CT scan for an associated subdural, extradural and contusion as well as extension of the fracture into the adjacent skull base / sinuses.

34
Q

What are the indications for the elevation of a depressed skull fracture?

A

Cosmesis

Underlying brain injury

Open fracture requiring debridement / closure

CSF leak

35
Q

What is the diagnosis?

A

A Type 1 split cord malformation - there are two dural sacs with an intervening fibro-osseous intermedian septum. This is due to a failure of gastrulation in which two notochords were present resulting in two distinct spinal cords.

A Type 1 split cord malformation would have two cords within a single dural sac.

36
Q

What are the histological features of LGG?

A

Diffuse astrocytoma has a low cell density but there is nuclear atypia.

Oligodendroglioma is characterised by perinuclear halos giving a fried egg appearance. There is also chicken wire vasculature.

The oligoastrocytoma has both astrocytic and oligodendroglial components.

37
Q

What are the different Ki-67 values for different WHO grade gliomas?

A

1 = <5

2 = <10

3 = 30

4 = 40

38
Q

Why do split cord malformations have a delayed onset of neurological deterioration?

A

Patients may deteriorate during growth spurts as a result of the intermedian septum resulting in tethering of the cord.

39
Q

What other investigation would you perform in a patient with a split cord malformation?

A

MR abdomen to rule out an associated neuro-enteric cyst

Urodynamic testing

**In all spinal dysraphism consider the neuro, uro and orthopaedic sequelae.

40
Q

Should the split cord malformation or spinal cord tethering be treated first?

A

The split cord malformation should be treated first with the removal of the intermedian septum before cord untethering as the spinal cord will retract and be damaged by the septum.

41
Q

Delayed presentation after a facial injury with a unilateral red eye?

A

Carotico-cavernous fistula - bruit, chemosis and proptosis

Ocular injury / infection / foreign body

Sinusitis / Keratitis / Corneal ulcer

42
Q

How do you classify CC fistulas?

A

Barrow classification:

A - Direct high flow shunt between ICA and cavernous sinus

B - Indirect low flow ICA meningeal branches to cavernous sinus

C - Indirect low flow ECA meningeal branches to cavernous sinus

D - Indirect low flow ICA and ECA meningeal branches to cavernous sinus

43
Q

What factors influence management of a CCF?

A
  1. High flow
  2. Raised IOP
  3. Symptomatic visual deterioration
  4. Proptosis
  5. Cortical venous reflux
44
Q

What investigations are undertaken as part of an NAI investigation?

A

CT/ MRI brain - subdurals of different ages

Skeletal survey - old fractures

Opthalmology - retinal haemorrhages

45
Q

How do you assess ICP in a child?

A

GCS - irritability

Fontanelle palpation or manometry

Head circumference

46
Q

The mother of a child is a Jehovah’s witness and does not want blood given to her child?

A

If the child is old enough I would involve them in the decision making.

If the child is in extremis I would given blood products to save their life.

If the child is well enough I would ascertain what blood products the mother would allow (FFP / cryo) and involve the child protection team, a senior colleague and the hospital solicitors. If the mother continues to refuse a ruling from child protection court may be needed.

47
Q

What law allows Advanced Directives to be put in place?

A

The Mental Capacity Act 2005

48
Q

What are the rules around treating Jehovah’s witness patients?

A

Adults with capacity can refuse whole blood or blood products even if that results in death.

Young patients (16-17 years) that refuse blood or their parents refuse blood for them must be taken to the courts for a ruling. If the child is in extremis then blood should be given to save their life if all feasible clinical alternatives have been exhausted.

If the young person (16-17 years) refused but the parents agree to the blood then the transfusion can be lawfully given as the patient has not reached adulthood. If this is not an emergency then the courts / a high court judge should be approached.

49
Q

What does the performance score tell you?

A

A patients general health - this is used in oncology practice to determine if patients are fit enough to undergo aggressive treatment.

50
Q

How would you investigate a patient with a PICA infarct (Wallenberg’s syndrome) on CT?

A

CT-A

MRI + DWI

Young patients should also have ECHO with bubble studies, ECG, thrombopilia screens etc.

I would place an EVD if there is hydrocephalus prior to suboccipital decompression.

51
Q

What are the NICE guidelines for prophylactic anticoagulation in neurosurgery?

A

Mechanical VTE prophylaxis should be offered in all cases unless there is a contraindication (PVD). TEDs or Flowtrons = intermittent pneumatic compression.

LMWH should start within 24-48 hours according to clinical judgement and continue until the patient is mobile or discharged.

Do not give LMWH to patients with vascular malformations incl. aneurysms until the lesion is secure.

Giving LMWH to patients <18 years is off-label.

52
Q

What are the surgical options for a central calcified midthoracic disc prolapse?

A

I would gain the assistance of a cardiothoracic surgeon and favour a right-sided transthoracic discectomy. Other options include a retropleural / extracavitatory approach.

53
Q

What is the difference between spinal shock vs neurogenic shock?

A

Spinal shock is a flaccid areflexic physiological loss of sensory and motor function below the level of the spinal cord injury. It is transient. The BCR (lost) can be used to detect this.

Neurogenic shock is due to a a loss of sympathetic outflow from lesions above T6 and results in hypotension and bradycardia.

54
Q

How do you manage OPLL?

A

Cervical laminectomy and fixation or multilevel cervical laminoplasty.

55
Q

What is the Canterbury classification for Carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

1 = Very mild - only on sensative tests i.e. comparison to other limb

2 = Mild - slowed sensory CV <50

3 = Moderate - DML>4.5 preserved SNAP

4 = Severe - DML >4.5 loss of SNAP

5 = Very severe - DML >6.5

6 = Extremely severe - DML >6.5 with CMAP <0.2mV

Note - for median nerve CV >50 m/s, SNAP amplitude >10 microV and CMAP >5 mV. The median nerve amplitudes are larger than the Ulnar and less than the radial nerve.

Slowing suggests demyelination. Reduction in amplitude suggests axonal loss.

56
Q

How would you manage a patient with a unilateral perched facet?

A

I would acquire an MRI scan in addition to the CT scan. A CTA should be performed if a fracture extends to the foramen transversarium.

The MRI would aid in identifying the extent of the ligamentous injury including disc space rupture, as well as any spinal cord signal change and haematoma.

In the absence of a neurological deficit, I would apply traction to try and reduce the dislocation prior to cervical fixation.

If there is a neurological deficit I would undertake an open reduction by drilling the locked facet joint and then undertaking a posterior cervical fixation. Decompression/evacuation of a haematoma if needed.

57
Q

How do you take a history in ATLS?

A

AMPLE:

Allergies

Medications

PMHx

Last meal

Events

58
Q

How do you distinguish a complete from an incomplete spinal cord injury?

A

The presence of sacral sparing.

59
Q

Describe the ASIA classification.

A

A = Complete

B = Incomplete with sensory preservation but no motor

C = Incomplete with >50% of motor <3/5

D = Incomplete with >50% of motor >3/5

E = Normal

60
Q

How do you distinguish cauda equina syndrome from conus medullaris syndrome?

A

Conus medullaris has a combination of UMN and LMN signs. There are reduced reflexes at the level of the injury (radicular LMN) and hyperreflexia below the level with increased tone.

Not CES is purely LMN.

61
Q

What blood pressure should be maintained in patients with SCI?

A

MAP>90 for the first 7 days. Recommended by the UK National Spinal Cord Injury Strategy Board.

62
Q

What is a Wada test?

A

Intracarotid injection of sodium amytal to create a temporary disturbance to the function of that hemisphere. Now replaced by fMRI.

63
Q

What are the different persistent fetal circulations?

A

PCom is the most common.

Persistant trigeminal = arises proximal to the cavernous sinus, travels lateral to the sella connects to the basiar between the AICA and SCA.

Persistant otic = petrous ICA to Basilar at below AICA. Passes through the IAM.

Persistant hypoglossal = From the cervical ICA to the Basilar.

Persistant proatlantal = From cervial ICA to the VA between the O-C1 or C1-2

64
Q

What are the surgical options for bilateral HS?

A

Neuromodulation through the use of VNS or Responsive neural stimulation. Medical management.

65
Q

What does the histology show?

A

WHO grade 1 meningioma subtypes

66
Q

What does the histology show?

A

WHO grade 2 meningioma subtypes

67
Q

What does the histology show?

A

WHO grade 3 meningiomas

68
Q

What are the histological requirements for a Grade 2 meningioma?

A

5-10 mitoses per 10 microscopic hpf (40×), or the presence of 3 of the following criteria: sheet-like growth, spontaneous necrosis, high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio, prominent nucleoli, increased cellularity and brain invasion.

69
Q

What is Ki-67?

A

This is a cellular marker for proliferation and is expressed in all stages of the cell cycle except for G0. MIB-1 is the antibody to Ki-67.

70
Q

What are the characteristic histological features of a meningioma?

A

Meningothelial whorls and psammoma bodies