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BMVP > Introduction to Microbiology > Flashcards

Introduction to Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

First person to describe microorganisms

A

Antoni Van Leeuwenhoek

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2
Q

Father of Microbiology

A

Antoni Van Leeuwenhoek

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3
Q

Designed the nomenclature system for all organisms

A

Caroleus Linnaeus

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4
Q

Father of Modern Microbiology

A

Louis Pasteur

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5
Q

Manner of reproduction for Prokaryotes

A

Binary Fission

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6
Q

Enumerate all the Bacterial Morphology

A

Cocci, Bacilli, Spirilla, Pleomorphic

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7
Q

Bacilli with tapered ends are known as?

A

Fusiform

Example: Corynebacterium

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8
Q

2 most common example of a pleomorphic bacteria

A

Mycoplasma & Ureaplasma

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9
Q

Enumerate the composition of the following parts of the bacteria:

Cell Wall:
Cell Membrane:
Capsule:
Pili:
Flagella:

A

Enumerate the composition of the following parts of the bacteria:

Cell Wall: PEPTIDOGLYCAN
Cell Membrane: PHOSPHOLIPID BILAYER
Capsule: POLYSACCHARIDE OR POLYPEPTIDE
Pili: PILIN
Flagella: FLAGELLIN

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10
Q

Gram staining was developed by?

A

Hans Christian Gram

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11
Q

What are the reagents used in gram staining? Enumerate the fxn of each.

A

Crystal Violet: Primary Stain
Gram’s Iodine: Mordant
95% Alcohol or Acetone: Decolorizer
Safranin red: Secondary Stain

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12
Q

What color do red blood cell present with when stained with Gram stain

A

Purple

Crystal Violet is a positively charges stain attracted to negative charged particles (Such as the teichoic acid of Gram + organisms). RBC have a negatively charged outer membrane (Zeta potential)

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13
Q

Unique bacteria with sterols on their membrane instead of Phospholipid bilayer

A

Mycoplasma & Ureaplasma

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14
Q

Unique only to the cell wall of gram positive organisms

A

Teichoic Acid

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15
Q

Unique to the cell wall of gram negative organisms

A

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

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16
Q

Unique to the cell wall of Mycobacterium

A

Mycolic Acid

Mycolic acid allows Mycobacterium to present as Acid Fast in acid fast staining

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17
Q

This part of the bacterial cell is also known as the K or Vi Antigen

A

Capsule

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18
Q

A well defined capsule is known as?

A

Glycocalyx

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19
Q

This is known as the “not-well defined capsule”

A

Slime Layer

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20
Q

All encapsulated microorganisms is made up of polysaccharide gel except for?

A

Bacillus anthracis = Poly-D-Glutamic Acid

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21
Q

This part of the bacterial cell is known as the H antigen

A

Flagella

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22
Q

Functions for adherence of bacteria to host cell

A

Ordinary Pili

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23
Q

Functions for bacterial conjugation

A

Sex Pili

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24
Q

This comprises the outermost membrane of gram negative bacteria

A

Lipopolysaccharide

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25
Q

LPS contain 3 regions:

A

Antigenic O
Core polysaccharide
Lipid A

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26
Q

Also known as the murein layer

A

Cell wall

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27
Q

Alternating sugar components of the cell wall

A

N-acetylmuramic & N-acetylglucosamine

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28
Q

Used for cell wall stain

A

Dyar Stain

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29
Q

Which among the gram negative & gram positive bacteria has a thicker peptidoglycan layer?

A

Gram positive

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30
Q

The periplasmic space is unique only to (gram pos or gram neg)?

A

Gram negative

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31
Q

This pili functions for the production of infection/pathogenicity (observed with N. meningitidis)

A

Virulence pili

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32
Q

Cytoplasmic granules are composed of?

A

Polyphosphate

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33
Q

Cytoplasmic granules of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

Volutin or Babes-Ernst or Metachromatic granules

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34
Q

Cytoplasmic granules of Mycobacterium

A

Much Granules

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35
Q

Cytoplasmic granules of Yersinia pestis

A

Bipolar bodies

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36
Q

The cytoplasmic granules of Yersnia pestis is stained with

A

Wayson stain

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37
Q

Endospores are composed of?

A

Dipicolinic acid or Calcium dipicolinate

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38
Q

What are the two common endospore forming bacteria

A

Bacillus & Clostridium

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39
Q

True or false: Endotoxin are present in both gram pos and neg bacteria

A

FALSE: Only in gram neg

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40
Q

Protein A, Polysaccharide capsules, and M protein are examples of?

A

Antiphagocytic factors

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41
Q

Which among the endotoxin and exotoxin are heat stable and heat labile?

A

Exotoxin: Heat labile
Endotoxin: Heat stable

Exotoxin: destroyed rapidly by heating at >60 deg c
Endotoxin: withstand heating at >60 deg c

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42
Q

Which among the endotoxin and exotoxin are highly immunogenic?

A

Exotoxin

Exotoxin: Highly immunogenic thus it stimulates formation of high-titer toxin
Endotoxin: Weakly immunogenic

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43
Q

True or false: Exotoxin can be converted to antigenic toxoids

A

TRUE

Endotoxin: is not converted into toxoids

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44
Q

The phase of bacterial growth in which the bacteria is most metabolically active

A

Log phase (Exponential phase)

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45
Q

Phase of bacterial growth where the bacteria is most susceptible to antibiotics

A

Log phase (Exponential phase)

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46
Q

Bacterial growth phase in which the bacteria attempts to adapt to the new environment

A

Lag phase (Adjustment/Physiologic phase)

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47
Q

Phase of bacterial growth where waste products accumulate and nutrients are depleted

A

Plateu (Stationary phase)

Also known as the phase where the number of dying organisms is equal to the number of viable/living organisms

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48
Q

Phase of bacterial growth where the number of dying organisms are greater than the number of viable organisms

A

Decline (Death phase)

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49
Q

True or False: During the Decline/Death phase the decrease in the number of living bacteria affects the number of total bacterial count

A

FALSE

There is a decrease in living organisms but not i the total bacterial count. (Nandiyan pa rin yung “katawan” ng patay na bacteria)

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50
Q

Examples of psychrophilic clinically significant bacteria are?

A

Listeria monocytogenes
Yersinia enterocolitica

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51
Q

These are anaerobes which can grow in the presence of oxygen

A

Facultative aerobe

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52
Q

These are aerobes which can grow in the absence of oxygen

A

Facultative anaerobe

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53
Q

These type of bacteria are capable of growth in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric O2 but grow best under anaerobic conditions

A

Aerotolerant

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54
Q

Ambient air is composed of?

A

21% oxygen
0.03% carbon dioxide

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55
Q

Capnophile organisms require incubation in?

A

Candle Jar, CO2 incubator, or bag

It requires 5% to 10% CO2 and ~15% O2

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56
Q

Incubation requirement for Microerophile

A

Reduced O2 (5% - 10%)
Increased CO2 (8% - 10%)

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57
Q

This refers to both capnophiles and microaerophilic organisms

A

Microaerobic

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58
Q

Give 2 clinically significant capnophilic organisms

A

Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria gonnorhoea

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59
Q

Give 2 clinically significant microaerophiles

A

Helicobacter pylori
Campylobacter jejuni

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60
Q

These are salt-loving organisms that grows at pH of 8.0 - 10.0

A

Halophilic organisms

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61
Q

Medically important halophilic organism

A

Vibrio

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62
Q

Example of an acidophilic organism

A

Lactobacillus acidophilus

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63
Q

Organisms that require organic substance (carbohydrate or peptone)

A

Heterotrophic/Organotrophic

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64
Q

Organisms that require inorganic substance

A

Autotrophic/Lithotropic

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65
Q

A process that kills all forms of microbial life, including bacterial endospores

A

Sterilization

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66
Q

A process that destroys pathogenic organisms, but not necessarily all micoroorganisms, endospores, or pions

A

Disinfection

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67
Q

The process of removing pathogenic organisms so items are safe to handle or dispose of

A

Decontamination

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68
Q

Incineration requires burning hazardous materials to temp of what?

A

870 deg to 980 deg c

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69
Q

This is known as the safest method to ensure that not infective materials remain in samples or containers when disposed

A

Incineration

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70
Q

A method of sterilization that uses steam under pessure

A

Autoclave

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71
Q

Autoclave setting for biologic waste (broth or solid media) also known as the displacement sterilizer

A

15 lbs psi at 121 deg c for 30 min

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72
Q

Autoclave setting for pre-vacuumed sterilizer

A

15 lbs psi at 132 deg c for 4 min

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73
Q

Autoclave setting for infectious medical waste (body fluids or blood)

A

15 lbs psi at 132 deg c for 30 to 60 min

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74
Q

Biological indicator for autoclave

A

Bacillus stearothermophilus

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75
Q

Method used to sterilize glassware, oil, petroleum, or powders

A

Oven

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76
Q

Setting for sterilization using oven (dry heat)

A

160 to 180 for 1.5 to 3 hrs

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77
Q

Biological indicator for oven sterilization

A

Bacillus subtilis var nigger

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78
Q

Method of sterilization for heat sensitive substances such as antibiotic solution, toxic chemicals, radioisotopes, vaccines, and carbohydrates

A

Filtration

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79
Q

Method of sterilization for disposables such as plastic syringes, catheters, or gloves before use

A

Ionizing (gamma) radiation

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80
Q

Most common chemical sterilant used for sterilizing heat-sensitive objects

A

Ethylene oxide

81
Q

This chemical sterilant is an oxidizing agent used to sterilize HEPA filters in BSC, metals, and non-metal devices such as medical instruments

A

Vapor-phase hydrogen peroxide

82
Q

Disinfection using boiling method requires (setting)

A

100 deg c for 15 min

83
Q

Kills food pathogen without damaging the nutritional value or flavor

A

Pasteurization

84
Q

This pasteurization technique kills milk-borne pathogens and vegetative forms

A

Batch method

85
Q

Batch method (setting)

A

63 deg c for 30 min

86
Q

Flash method of pasteurization (setting)

A

> 72 deg c at 15 sec

87
Q

Method of disinfection that uses UV light and is commonly used in BSC

A

Non-ionizing radiation

88
Q

This type of sterilization technique is composed of short wavelength and high energy gamma rays

A

Ionizing (gamma) radiation

89
Q

This method of disinfection uses long wavelengths and low energy rays

A

Non-ionizing radiation

90
Q

This type of chemical disinfectant is used for cold sterilization

A

Glutaraldehyde

91
Q

Examples of Halogen disinfectants

A

Iodine tincture
Iodophor
Chlorine

92
Q

What is the difference between tincture of iodine and iodophor

A

Tincture of iodine: iodine + alcohol
Iodophor: povidone iodine

93
Q

One of the most effective disinfecting agents against HIV and HBV. (How many minutes of exposure?)

A

Chlorine
HIV = 2 min
HBV = 10 min

94
Q

Disposal of this hazardous waste requires double bagging of said waste and decontamination by autoclaving or incineration

A

Infectious waste (agar plates, tubes, reagent bottles)

95
Q

Disposal of this hazardous waste requires placing said waste into rigid carboard containers before disposal

A

Pipets, swabs, and other glass materials

96
Q

Disposal of this hazardous wastes requires placing said waste in thick boxes lined with plastic biohazard bags and when full is incinerated or autoclaved

A

Broken glass

97
Q

Disposal of this hazardous waste requires said waste to be placed in a sharps container and is incinerated or autoclaved when full

A

Sharp objects

98
Q

HEPA filters removes organisms larger than __ um

A

0.3 um

99
Q

Most clinical microbiology uses what type of BSC

A

Class IIa or IIb

100
Q

Centrifuges must be placed inside what type of BSC to prevent emitted aerosols from dispersing widely

A

Class III BSC

101
Q

Type of BSC with an open front, with negative pressure, ventilated to the outside

A

Class I BSC

102
Q

This type of BSC sterilizes air that flows over the infectious material, as well as air to be exhausted

A

Class II BSC

103
Q

Also known as the vertical laminar flow BSC

A

Class II BSC

104
Q

This type of Class II BSC recirculate 70% of air and is self contained

A

Class IIA

105
Q

In this type of class II BSC exhaust air is discharged outside the building. This is commonly used for radioiosotopes, toxic chemicals, or carcinogens

A

Class II b

106
Q

This type of BSC is completely enclosed, with negative pressure. This provides maximum protection to workers

A

Class III BSC

107
Q

Class I and Class II BSC are used for what type of BSL

A

BSL 2 & 3

108
Q

Class III BSC is used for what type of BSL

A

BSL 4

109
Q

Biologic agents with no known potential for infecting healthy people and are well defined and characterized belong to what biosafety level group?

A

BSL 1

110
Q

Biologic agents acquired by ingestion or exposure to percutaneous or mucous membrane belong to what BSL

A

BSL 2

111
Q

Biologic agents most commonly being sought in clinical specimens and are used in diagnostic, teaching, and other laboratories belong to what BSL

A

BSL 2

112
Q

Biologic agents which are potential agents for aerosol transmission belong to what BSL

A

BSL 3

113
Q

Biologic agents which are considered exotic agents that are considered high risk and can cause life threatening diseases belong in what BSL

A

BSL 4

114
Q

Wrong site, wrong procedure, and wrong patient errors are termed as never events or…

A

Sentinel events

115
Q

Interpretation of specimen results by the microbiologist belong under what step of the total testing process

A

Analytical step

116
Q

Interpretation of report by the clinician belong to under what step of the total testing process

A

Post-analytical

117
Q

Long term storage of aerobes or anaerobes can be done through the use of?

A

Lyophilization

118
Q

The process that combines dehydration and freezing to prevent microorganisms from reproducing and to store them for future use

A

Lyophilization

119
Q

Nonfastidious, aerobic organisms can be saved up to ________ on _________

A

1 year on trypticase soy broth

120
Q

Frozen nonfastidious organisms should be thawed, reisolated, and refrozen every ________

A

5 years

121
Q

Frozen fastidious organisms should be thawed, reisolated, and refrozen every ________

A

3 years

122
Q

It is the process of being dessicated or thoroughly dried

A

Dessication

123
Q

Specimens for culture must be collected during ___________ and before ________

A

Specimens for culture must be collected during the acute phase of infection (within 2-4 days of viral infection) and before antimicrobial, antifungal, or antiviral administration

124
Q

____________ is used to neutralize antimicrobials in a sample if patient is already on antimicrobial

A

Thiol broth

125
Q

This removes antimicrobials before culture

A

Antimicrobial removal device (ARD)

126
Q

For anaerobe which type of specimen is preferred

A

Aspirates are preferred to swabs

127
Q

For swab specimens what type of swabs should be used

A

Dacron or polyester-tipped swab on plastic shaft

128
Q

Calcium alginate inactivates what virus?

A

Herpes simplex virus

129
Q

Cotton and calcium alginate is toxic to what type of bacteria

A

Neisseria gonorrheae

130
Q

Wooden shaft are toxic to what bacteria?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

131
Q

After collection specimens must be placed in a biohazard and transported to the laboratory ideally within __________

A

30 min, preferably within 2 hours

132
Q

This transport medium consists of swabs in a test tube with transport media that can be activated by crushing an ampule

A

Stuart’s medium

133
Q

This type of transport medium contains sodium thioglycolate and can maintain bacteria up to 72 hrs

A

Buffered semisolid agar

134
Q

Also known as the modified stuart’s medium

A

Amies medium

135
Q

This transport medium is used for transport of stool specimen and for enteric pathogen

A

Cary-blair medium

136
Q

This is the most commonly used anticoagulant for microbiology specimen

A

Sodium polyanethol sulfonate

137
Q

Concentration of sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) for microbiology specimens

A

0.025%

138
Q

Anticoagulant of choice for viral cultures

A

Heparin

139
Q

Anticoagulant of choice for isolation of Mycobacterium spp. from blood

A

Heparin

140
Q

This type of specimens for microbiology must not be refrigerated

A

Anaerobes, CSF, specimens suspected of harboring N. gonorrhoea

141
Q

Are specimens fixed in formalin acceptable for processing in the microbiology lab

A

No (Rejected)

142
Q

True/False: Specimens contaminated with barium, chemical dyes, or oily chemicals are still acceptable specimens for the microbiology lab

A

False

143
Q

True/False: Gastric washings are acceptable specimens for anaerobic culture

A

False

144
Q

These specimens are critical specimens and must be processed immediately in the lab

A

CSF, tissue specimens, blood specimens, sterile fluid

145
Q

Blood specimens for culture must be collected _________ the fever spike

A

30 - 45 min BEFORE

146
Q

Specimens suspected of harboring Brucella organisms should be incubated for?

A

3 weeks (21 days)

147
Q

CFU count significant for UTI

A

100,000 or 1 x 10^5 CFU/mL

148
Q

CFU count significant for UTI in S. saprophyticus

A

10 000 CFU/mL or 1 x 10^4 CFU/mL

149
Q

Measurement for the calibrated inoculating loop used for all urine specimens

A

0.001 mL (1uL)

150
Q

Calibrated inoculating loop used for specimens from women with suspected acute urethral syndrome and suprapubic aspirates

A

0.01 mL (10uL)

151
Q

Most common pathogen in throat culture

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

152
Q

Pathogen for oral thrush

A

Candida albicans

153
Q

Pathogen for epiglotittis

A

Haemophilus influenzae

154
Q

This type of specimen is used to detect the carrier state of staphylococcus aureus

A

Nasal swab

155
Q

This is the specimen of choice for Bordatella pertussis isolation

A

Nasopharyngeal swab

156
Q

This specimen is used for detection of carrier state of N. meningitidis

A

Nasopharyngeal swab

157
Q

This assesses the quality of sputum samples

A

Bartlett’s classification

158
Q

Revised criteria for indication of mucosal or saliva contamination

A

> 25 epithelial cells per LPF

159
Q

All spiral organisms are reported as (Gram pos or neg)?

A

Gram negative

160
Q

All yeasts are gram pos of neg?

A

Gram positive

161
Q

Auramine-rhodamine method is used for?

A

Acid fast organisms

162
Q

Mycobacterial cells appear _________ when stained using the Auramine-Rhodamine method

A

Bright yellow or orange against a greenish background

163
Q

This type of acid fast staining method differentiates M. smegmatis & M. tuberculosis

A

Pappenheim method

164
Q

This type of acid fast staining method differentiates M. leprae & M. tuberculosis

A

Baumgarten Method

165
Q

Type of acid fast staining method useful for the identification of coccidian oocytes, and ideal for cryptosporidia and cyclospora

A

Modified acid fast stain

166
Q

Oocytes appear _________ when stained using the Modified Acid Fast Stain

A

Magenta against a blue background

167
Q

Special stain for Cell wall

A

Dyar stain

168
Q

Special stains for Capsule

A

Anthony’s, Hiss’, Gin’s

169
Q

Special stain for metachromatic granules

A

Albert, Neisser

170
Q

Special stain for endospore

A

Dorner, Schaeffer-Fulton

171
Q

Schaeffer-Fulton stain is composed of?

A

Malachite green and Safranin red

172
Q

Stains flagella

A

Gray, Leifson

173
Q

Stains DNA

A

Feulgen

174
Q

Stains spirochetes

A

Levaditi’s, Fontana-Tribondeau

175
Q

Stains Rickettsia

A

Gimenez

176
Q

Demonstrates metachromatic granules and characteristic morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae from Loeffler coagulated serum medium

A

Methylene Blue

177
Q

Example of an indirect or negative stain

A

India ink/Nigrosin

178
Q

Used to stain specimens directly for the presence of fungi

A

Calcofluor white

179
Q

Produces Chartreuse fluorescence when exposed to UV light

A

Fusobacterium nucleatum

180
Q

Produces a brick-red fluorescence under UV

A

Prevotella porphyromonas

181
Q

Produces red color under UV

A

Veilonella

182
Q

Produces pyoverdin that fluoresces under UV light

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

183
Q

Produces a green pigment

A

P. aeruginosa

184
Q

Produces a brick red pigment

A

S. marsescens

185
Q

Produces a blue pigment

A

Kluyvera spp

186
Q

Produces a brown-black pigment

A

Prevotella melaninogenica

187
Q

Produces a purple pigment

A

Chromobacterium violaceum

188
Q

Old sock odor

A

S. aureus

189
Q

Fruity or grape like odor

A

P.aeruginosa

190
Q

Putrid odor

A

P. mirabilis

191
Q

Musty basement, mousy or mouse nest odor

A

Haemophilus spp., Pasteurella

192
Q

Mushroom odor

A

Pasteurella

193
Q

Freshly plowed field odor

A

Nocardia

194
Q

Horse stable odor

A

C. difficile

195
Q

Burnt chocolate, chocolate cake odor

A

Proteus

196
Q

Gold standard for molecular techniques in microbiology

A

Polymerase chain reaction

197
Q

Most abundant normal flora of throat and nasopharyngeal cultures

A

Streptococcus viridans

198
Q

Most common pathogen of throat and nasopharyngeal cultures

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

199
Q

Preservative of choice for urine culture

A

Boric acid

BMVP (5 decks)

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