Introduction To Criminal Litigation Flashcards

1
Q

which offences (in the syllabus) are indictable only offences?

A

Murder
robbery
domestic burglary
aggravated burglary
Rape
GHB/Wounding with intent (s. 18)

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2
Q

which offences (in the syllabus) are Either-Way offences?

A

theft
fraud
non-domestic burglary
GBH/Wounding (s. 20)
sexual assault
possession of class A or B drugs
possession with intent to supply class A or B drugs
criminal damage > £5,000

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3
Q

Which offences (in the syllabus) are summary only offences?

A

common assault
Criminal damage < £5,000
petty shoplifting < £200

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4
Q

where are adults tried?

A

Crown Court; or
Magistrates Court

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5
Q

three classifications of crown court judge are…

A

High court judge
Circuit judge
Recorder

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6
Q

what is the crown court

A
  • Crown court created in 1971
  • Crown court derives power from senior courts act 1981
  • Crown court is a single court, sitting in different locations
  • The court will normally sit near to where the location of the offence was
  • CC is a superior court of record
  • Decisions of crown court can only be appealed to the Court of Appeal, although some matters which a CC has dealt with but not relate to a trial on indictment, a Magistrates level, can be appealed in the high Court either in an appeal basis or judicial review
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7
Q

bench in the crown court when acting on appeal from the magistrates

A
  • When a crown court comprises of a bench of a judge or judges
  • When an odd number of judges, then the judges who outvote the other have the casting vote, although when there is an even number, then the professional judge has the casting vote
  • In matters of law ‘the lay justices must take a ruling from the presiding judge in precisely the same way as the jury is required to take his ruling when the jury considers the verdict.
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8
Q

who makes up a magistrates bench?

A

at least 2 lay magistrates (justices of the peace); or
1 District judge

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9
Q

powers of the magistrates court

A
  • Mags have jurisdiction for summary or either way offences
  • Mags may try an either way offence if: The seriousness of the offence does not exceed the Mags power for sentencing etc; or the Accused consents for the mags to be used where the court may impose a penalty of up to 12 months in prison or an unlimited fine
  • Mags can commit the offender to the crown court if they feel it is beyond their sentencing powers
  • Mags can send accused for an indictable offence to be tried in cc despite where the offence took place
  • Youth court, made up of Mags, can try both summary and indictable offences, although there may be circumstances which require the case being sent to the crown court.
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10
Q

What appeals can the CoA deal with under the Criminal Appeals Act 1968?

A

Ss 1 and 2 – appeal convictions on indictment

Ss 9 and 11 – determine appeal for sentences on indictment

Ss 10 and 11 – determine appeals for sentence passed on committal for sentence.

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11
Q

What appeals can the CoA deal with under the Criminal Justice Act 1972?

A

s. 36 – give an opinion on a point of law referred to the court by the A-G following an acquittal on indictment.

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12
Q

What appeals can the CoA deal with under the Criminal Justice Act 1984?

A

Ss 9(11)-(14) – determine appeals against ruling made in preparatory hearings in serious fraud cases.

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13
Q

What appeals can the CoA deal with under the Criminal Justice Act 1988?

A

Ss 35 and 36 – increase sentence on a reference by the A-G following an unduly lenient sentence for an offence triable only by indictment.

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14
Q

What appeals can the CoA deal with under the Criminal Appeal Act 1995?

A

S 9 – Determine appeals on a reference by the CCRC

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15
Q

does the CoA have jurisdiction to appeal a football banning order?

A

No

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16
Q

what does ss 33 and 34 of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 allow the prosecution or defence do?

A

appeal a CoA decision to the Supreme Court

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17
Q

what is the time limit of appealing further to the Supreme Court?

A

Appealing a CoA decision must be made no later then 28 days after the decision handed down by the CoA. Time begins on the day of the decision, not the following day

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18
Q

what must both the CoA and the UKSC consider when deciding to grant leave for an appeal in the UKSC

A

whether the appeal concerns a point of law of public importance for the case to be heard in the SC

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19
Q

where does public funding for trials come from?

A

Legal Aid Authority

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20
Q

what is the statute for legal aid

A

LASPO 2012

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21
Q

what is a representation order?

A

where the court grants that the individual needs full representation as the defendant’s case is serious enough to warrant one

22
Q

can the magistrates grant a representation order?

A

No

the only exception is when there is an appeal against representation

23
Q

can the Crown Court grant a representation order?

A

yes, only for the following:
(a)which are described in the LASPO 2012, s. 14(g) (contempt in the face of the court);
(b)which arise out of an alleged failure to comply with an order of the Crown Court and it appears to the court that there is no time to instruct a provider; or
(c)where the individual is brought before the court under the Senior Courts Act 1981, s. 81, in pursuance of a Crown Court warrant.

crown court also may hear consider appeals against the refusal of representation order in those situations where the interests of justice merits test is not automatically met.

24
Q

how are applications made for a representation order?

A

Application should be made electronically on the LAA portal using form CRM14 which incorporates the CRM15 means questions where required, along with any proof of means required for those who are not passported (on certain state benefits).

25
Q

legal aid is determined by what test?

A

Legal aid is determined by a merits, and a means test – 2 stage test

26
Q

what phrase is used for the merits test for determining whether to grant legal aid?

A

whether it is in ‘the interests of justice’

27
Q

what factors are taken into consideration to see whether it is in the interest of justice to establish the merits part of the test to determine to grant legal aid?

A

In deciding what the interests of justice consist of for the purposes of such a determination, the following factors must be taken into account—
(a) whether, if any matter arising in the proceedings is decided against the individual, the individual would be likely to lose his or her liberty or livelihood or to suffer serious damage to his or her reputation,
(b) whether the determination of any matter arising in the proceedings may involve consideration of a substantial question of law,
(c) whether the individual may be unable to understand the proceedings or to state his or her own case,
(d) whether the proceedings may involve the tracing, interviewing or expert cross-examination of witnesses on behalf of the individual, and
(e) whether it is in the interests of another person that the individual be represented.

28
Q

Legal Aid: are interests of justice met when there is a trial on indictment?

A

yes. automatically

Appeals to the CC not automatically covered, if D is likely to lose their liberty depends on the facts alleged by the prosecution and the sanctions theoretically imposed.

29
Q

what does it mean to deal with the case ‘justly’ in accordance with the overriding objective?

A

Acquitting the innocent and convicting the guilty
Treating participants with politeness and respect
Dealing with prosecution and defence fairly
Recognising rights of defendant – including art 6 ECHR
Respecting interests of witnesses and victims, keeping them informed about the progress of the case
Dealing with case efficiently and expeditiously
Ensuring appropriate info is available to the court when bail and sentence are considered

Dealing with cases taking into account:
- Gravity of alleged offence
- Complexity of the issues
- Severity of the consequences
- The needs of others

30
Q

what must participants do when conducting a case?

A

In accordance with overriding objective
Compliance with rules, practice directions and directions made by the court
At once, inform the court and parties of any significant failure (whether or not of the fault of the participant) to take any procedural step required by the rules or any directions of the court. A failure is significant where the court cannot further the overriding objective.

31
Q

what is a participant in a case?

A

anyone involved with the case such as: prosecutors, defence solicitors, the defendant, witnesses, expert witnesses, probation officers, police officers, organisations bringing prisoners to court and possibly jurors.

32
Q

how must the court further the overriding objective?

A

Exercising any legislative power
Applying practice direction
Interpreting rule or practice direction

Applies to court in appellate capacity, all forms of criminal courts
Specific rules surrounding medical reports where ordered by the courts or requested/obtained by the parties
Court must actively manage the case
Court must give direction as early as possible
Active case management from the court is for both pre-trial and during the trial itself
This is an essential part of the judges duty

33
Q

what is active case management?

A

Early identification of the issues/narrowing of issues
Needs of witnesses
Achieving certainty about what is done
Setting out procedural timetable
Ensure compliance with the directions and monitoring of the case
Discouraging delay
Promoting cooperation
Avoid unnecessary hearings
Ensure evidence is presented in shortest and clearest way
Require issues on the case are given in writing and decide what order they will be determined

34
Q

what can eb included in case management directions?

A

Court cannot give directions which would be inconsistent with legislation
Directions from the court must be early to endure the attendance of witnesses and the participation of all including the defendant
Limits and control over the questioning of witnesses will be directed by the court
Technology comes under the overriding objective too.

With the active assistance of the parties, the court will manage cases by establishing the disputed issues, setting a timetable, considering witnesses and perhaps limiting the duration of any stage of the hearing.

35
Q

what can parties do to practice good case management in accordance with the overriding objective?

A

Parties duty to cooperate the the court actively to ensure proper case management
Notice to the court of the identity of the intended defence advocate
Obligation to assist the court identify the real issues is separate from the statutory provision relating to disclosure
allow the Court to only address real issues with substance
it is not just for a party to obstruct or delay the preparation of a case for trial in order to secure some perceived procedural advantage, or to take unfair advantage of a mistake by someone else.

36
Q

case progression officers?

A

requires each of the parties and the court to appoint a case progression officer at the start of proceedings and to inform other parties how to contact that person
CPO ensure parties compliance with that case and with the court directions alerting parties to anything which could interfere with the case
As far as possible, case progression should be managed without a hearing in the courtroom, using electronic communication in accordance with CrimPR

37
Q

practical case management in magistrates court

A

this is where a Preparation for Effective Trial form is complete (PET form)

38
Q

practical case management in a Crown Court

A

Parties fill out a Better Case management (BCM) form then do a PTPH in the form of an oral hearing. Good planning and preparation reduces the need for further hearings

39
Q

failure to comply with rules, directions and time limits

A
  • fix, postpone, bring forward, extend, cancel or adjourn a hearing;
  • exercise its powers to make a costs order; and
  • impose such other sanction as may be appropriate.
  • the court may refuse to allow that party to introduce evidence;
  • evidence that the party wants to introduce may not be admissible; or
  • the court may draw adverse inferences from the late introduction of an issue or evidence.
40
Q

When must the prosecution serve notice of any intention to introduce a defendant’s bad character or to introduce hearsay evidence in a magistrates trial?

A

Not more than 20 days after a not guilty plea has been entered

41
Q

When must the defence serve a defence statement, if one is to be served?

A

within 10 business days of the prosecution complying with initial disclosure.

42
Q

When must the defence notify the prosecution and the court that a witness is required to attend court to give live evidence?

A

no more than 5 business days after service of the witness statement.

43
Q

when must the defence indicate if the application to introduce bad character evidence or hearsay evidence is opposed.

A

No more than 10 business days after service of a notice.

44
Q

If the defence intend to rely on hearsay evidence, they must give notice of such intention when?

A

as soon as reasonably practicable.

45
Q

When must the defence make any application to introduce the bad character of a prosecution witness.

A

no more than 10 business days after prosecution disclosure.

46
Q

When must the defence serve any statements of its own where a witness is not to be called to give live evidence.

A

At least 10 business days before trial

47
Q

When must any point of law be identified with skeleton arguments at trial?

A

at least 10 business days before trial.

48
Q

when must a certificate of readiness be served for trial?

A

Both parties must serve a certificate of readiness 10 business days before trial.

49
Q

what will the court expect the defence to do in order to help with active case management?

A

The court will also expect a plea to be entered to ensure the appropriate timetable can be set.

50
Q

can the directions set by the court be altered?

A

directions, may, with the consent of the court, be amended or varied upon request by the parties.