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Systemic > Introduction and Bone Tissue > Flashcards

Introduction and Bone Tissue Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of Anatomy?

A

The study of the structures of the body and their relationships to each other

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2
Q

What is the definition of Physiology

A

The study of the functions of the living organism

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3
Q

What is gross anatomy?

A

Anatomy that is visible to the naked eye

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4
Q

What is surface anatomy?

A

Anatomical landmarks on the body surface

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5
Q

What is systemic anatomy?

A

Approach to the study of anatomy by organ system

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6
Q

What is regional anatomy?

A

Approach to the study of anatomy by body region

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7
Q

What are the 8 levels of organization?

A

Atoms -> Molecules-> organelles-> cells -> tissues ->organ -> organ system -> organism

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8
Q

What is anatomical position defined?

A

Standing with arms at the sides and palms and head facing forward

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9
Q

Describe the sagittal plane

A

Any vertical plane that passes through the body to divide it into right and left

Midsagittal divides the body into right and left equally

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10
Q

Describe the horizontal (crossectional plane)

A

Divides the body or organ into upper and lower portions

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11
Q

Describe the frontal or coronal plane

A

Divides the body or organ into front and back portions (dorsal and ventral portions)

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12
Q

Describe the directional terms superior and inferior

A

Superior: means above, towards the head (AKA cranial)

Inferior: means below, towards the feet (AKA caudal- towards the tail end)

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13
Q

Describe the directional terms anterior and posterior

A

Anterior or ventral refers to the front of the body

Posterior or dorsal refers to the back of the body

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14
Q

Describe the directional terms medial and lateral

A

Medial: means toward or near the midline of the body

Lateral means away from the midline or toward the side of the body

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15
Q

Describe the anatomical term intermediate

A

Between two structures

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16
Q

Describe the anatomical terms superficial and deep

A

Superficial: means closer to the surface of the body

Deep: means ways from the surface of the body

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17
Q

Describe the anatomical terms proximal and distal

A

Proximal: means near the point of origin

Distal: means far from the point of origin

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18
Q

Describe the anatomical terms Ipsilateral and contralateral

A

Ipsilateral: means on the same side

Contralateral: means on the opposite side

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19
Q

What are the two major body cavities

A

Dorsal and ventral body cavities

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20
Q

What cavities are a part of the dorsal body cavity?

A

Cranial cavity and spinal cavity

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21
Q

What are the divisions of the ventral body cavity?

A

Thoracic and abdominopelvic cavity

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22
Q

One of the cavities in the ventral body cavity is the thoracic cavity. It is further divided into what two cavities?

A

Pleural cavity and the mediastinum ( pericardial/middle, superior, anterior)

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23
Q

Serous membranes line the organs and provide cushion and allows movement of the organs. Each membrane has two layers. what a re these layers?

A

Parietal: lines the cavity walls

Visceral layer covers the surface of organs within the cavity

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24
Q

What are the names of the thoracic cavity membranes?

A

Pleural membranes are in the pleural cavity

Pericardial membranes in the pericardial cavity

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25
Q

What is the cavity called in the abdominopelvic cavity?

A

Peritoneal cavity contains peritoneal membranes

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26
Q

What do the serous membranes secrete into cavities which functions as a lubricant?

A

Serous fluid

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27
Q

What is int he peritoneal cavity that suspends abdominal organs via a double layer serous membrane called _____

A

Mesentery

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28
Q

The _______ is continuous with the parietal and visceral serous membranes

A

Mesentery

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29
Q

The greater and lesser omentum are other derivatives of _________ ____________

A

The serous membranes

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30
Q

What are the 4 types of tissue?

A

Epithelial tissue
Connective tissue
Muscular tissue
Nervous tissue

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31
Q

The femur is an ______

Compact and spongy bone are ______

A

Organ

Tissues

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32
Q

What is a complex and dynamic living tissue that continuously engages in a process called remodeling?

A

Bone tissue

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33
Q

Building new bone tissue and breaking down old bone tissue is called what?

A

Remodeling

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34
Q

What are the 6 funcitons of the skeletal system?

A

Support
Protection
Assistance in movements
Mineral homeostasis (storage and release)
Blood cell production
Triglyceride storage in yellow bone marrow

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35
Q

What is stored in the yellow bone marrow and are part of the potential chemical energy reserve?

A

Triglycerides

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36
Q

What connective tissue produces red blood cells, WBC and platelets?

A

Red bone marrow

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37
Q

What are the 8 parts of a long bone?

A 
Diaphysis 
Epiphyses
Metaphyses
Epiphyseal line
Articular cartilage
Periosteum
Medullary cavity
The endosteum
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38
Q

The bones shaft that is the main portion of the bone is known as the ______

A

Diaphysis

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39
Q

The proximal and distal ends of long bones are called _______

A

Epiphyses

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40
Q

The tapered area wher ethe diaphysis joins the epiphysis is known as the ________

A

Metaphyses

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41
Q

What is the resulting bony structure when the cartilage in the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone?

A

Epiphyseal line

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42
Q

A thin layer of hyaline cartilage covering the articular surface of the bone is known as the ___________ ________. It’s function is to absorb shock and friction

A

Hyaline cartilage

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43
Q

The connective tissue sheath that surrounds the bone surface wherever it is not covered by articular cartilage is known as the _________

A

Periosteum

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44
Q

What are the 4 functions of the periosteum?

A

Protects the bone
assists in fracture repair
helps nourish bone tissue
serves as an attachment point for ligament and tendons

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45
Q

How is the periosteum attached to the underlying bone?

A

Perforating fibers or Sharpey’s fibers

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46
Q

A hollow cylindrical space within the diaphysis that contains fatty yellow bone marrow is known as the ________

A

Medullary cavity

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47
Q

What is the purpose of the medullary cavity?

A

Minimizes the weight of the bone

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48
Q

A thin membrane that lines the medullary cavity is known as the ___________

A

The endosteum

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49
Q

There are two types of bone tissue. Which of the bone tissue provides protection and support and resists the stresses produces by weight and movement?

A

Compact bone tissue

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50
Q

Osteons are repeating structural units of compact bone tissue. What are other parts fo the osteons?

A 
Central canal (Haversian canal)
Concentric lamellae
Lacunae
Canaliculi
Osteocytes located in the canaliculi
Interstitial lamellae 
Perforating canals (volkmann’s canal)
Circumferential lamellae
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51
Q

What are concentric lamellae? And how are they arranged?

A

Circular plates of mineralized extracellular matrix

Arranged around a central canal or Haversian canal

52
Q

What are between the concentric lamellae that are small spaces that contain osteocytes?

A

Lacunae

53
Q

What are the small channels radiating in alll directions from the lacunae?

A

Canaliculi

54
Q

What is the funciton of canaliculi?

A

Connect lacunae with one another and with central canals

55
Q

What are fragments of older osteons located between neighboring new osteons which also have lacunae with osteocytes and canaliculi?

A

Interstitial lamellae

56
Q

What canals are which the blood vessel and nerves pass from the periosteum to the compact bone?

A

Perforating Canals (volkmann’s canals)

57
Q

What is arranged around the entire outer and innner circumference of the shaft of a long bone?

A

Circumferential lamellae

58
Q

Trabecular or cancellous bone tissue is also known as ________

A

Spongy bone tissue

59
Q

Which of the two bone tissues does NOT contain osteons?

A

Spongy bone tissue

60
Q

Spongy bone consists of lamellae that are arranged in an irregular pattern of thin columns called ________

A

Trabeculae

61
Q

What a re the macroscopic between the trabeculae filled with in spongy bone tissue?

A

Bone marrow

62
Q

What does each trabecular consist of?

A

Concentric lamellae
Osteocytes that lie in the lacunae
Canaliculi that radiate outward from the lacunae

63
Q

What are the 4 locations of spongy bone?

A

In short, flat, sesamoid irregularly shaped bones, and the epiphyses of the long bones.

64
Q

Unspecialized bone stem cells derided from mesenchyme, the only bone cells to undergo division, and are located in the endosteum and in the canals within bone that contain blood vessels are known as ____________ ____

A

Osteoprogenitor cells

65
Q

What are the bone building cells that synthesize and secrete collagen fibers and other organic components, do not undergo cell division and surround themselves with extracellular matrix.

A

Osteoblasts

66
Q

What are the four types of cells are present in bone tissue?

A

Osteogenic cells

Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

Osteocytes

67
Q

What are unspecialized bone stem cells derived from mesenchyme, are the ONLY bone cells to undergo cell division, and located in the endosteum and in the canals within the bone that contain blood vessels?

A

Osteoprogenitor cells

68
Q

What are the bone building cells that synthesize and secrete collagen fibers and other organic components?

A

Osteoblasts

69
Q

T or F: Osteocytes and Osteoblasts Undergo cell division.

A

False. They do not undergo cell division

70
Q

As ___________ surround themselves with ECM they become trapped in their own secretions and become __________

A

Osteoblasts

Osteocytes

71
Q

What are mature bone cells, the main cells in bone tissue and function to maintain its daily metabolism, such as the exchange of nutrients and wastes in the blood?

A

Osteocytes

72
Q

What bone cells ruffled borer faces the bone surface releases powerful lysosomal enzymes and acids that digest the protein and mineral components of the underlying ECM?

A

Osteoclasts

73
Q

What bone cell focuses on the resorption or breakdown of bone?

A

Osteoclasts

74
Q

What is a disease of children in which the growing bones become soft and are easily deformed which can lead to bowed legs and deformities of the skull, ribcage and pelvis?

A

Rickets

75
Q

Describe Osteomalacia

A

New bone formed during remodeling fails to calcify

Bone fracture result from mild trauma and tenderness occurs in hips and legs

76
Q

What Artereies and veins supply bone tissue?

A

Periosteal arteries and veins

Nutrient artery and vein

Epiphyseal arteries and veins

Metaphyseal arteries

77
Q

What is the path and supply of the periosteal arteries and veins?

A

Enter the diaphysis through perforating (Volkmanns) canal

supply the periosteum and outer compact bone

78
Q

Near the center of the diaphysis, a large __________ ________ passes through a hole in the compact bone called the _________ ________

A

Nutrient artery

Nutrient foramen

79
Q

The ends fo long bones are supplied by _________ ________ which arise from arteries that supply the associated joint

A

Epiphyseal arteries

80
Q

What arteries supply the red bone marrow and bone tissue of the metaphyses?

A

Metaphyseal arteries and nutrient artery

81
Q

What are the 5 main types of bones based on shape?

A

Long bone

Flat bone

Short bone

Irregular bones

Sesamoid bones

Sutural bones

82
Q

What are the characteristics of long bones?

A

Have greater length than width, consist of a shaft and epiphyses (ends)

Vary tremendously in size such as femurs, fibula, tibia, and phalanges

83
Q

Describe characteristics of short bones

A

Cube shaped and are nearly equal in length and width

Ex: carpal bones and tarsal bones

84
Q

Describe flat bones

A

Generally thin and composed of nearly two parallel plates of compact one tissue enclosing a layer of spongy bone tissue

Ex: cranial bones, sternum, ribs, scapulae

85
Q

Describe irregular bones

A

Have complex shapes

Ex: vertebrae, certain facial bones and calcaneus

86
Q

Describe when sesamoid bones form.

A

Develop in certain tendons where there is considerable friction, tension and physical stress

Ex: plasma and soles and the patella

87
Q

Where do sutural bones occur?

A

Within sutures

88
Q

What is the prominent ridge of elongated projection used for tendon/ligament attachment?

A

Crest

Ex: Iliac crest of hip bone

89
Q

What is a typically rough projection ABOVE condyle used for tendon ligament attachment?

A

Epicondyle

90
Q

What is a long narrow ride or border (less prominent than crest)?

A

Line

Ex: Linea aspera of femur

91
Q

What is a sharp slender bony projection?

A

Spinous process

92
Q

What is the term for a very large projection?

A

Trochanter

93
Q

What term is used to describe variably sized rounded projection?

A

Tubercle

94
Q

What term is used to describe variables sized projection that has rough bumpy surface?

A

Tuberosity

95
Q

What are three processes that form joints?

A

Condyle

Facet

Head

96
Q

What is a diagnostic procedure that takes advantage of the fact that bone is living tissue?

A

Bone scan

97
Q

When a. Bone scan is used how is normal bone tissue identified? How are normalities noticed?

A

By a consistent gray color throughout because of its uniform uptake of the radioactive tracer.

Darker or lighter areas may indicate bone abnormalities

98
Q

In a bone scan what does the lighter and darker areas describe?

A

Darker areas are areas of increased metabolism, that absorb more of the radioactive tracer due to increased blood flow

Lighter areas (cold spots) are areas of decreased metabolism that absorb less of the tracer due to decreased blood flow

99
Q

The lattice work of spongy bone is related to te arrangement of::

Osteoblasts
Lamellar
Trabecular
Canaliculi

A

Trabeculae

100
Q

An osteoblasts is made up of concentric lamellar surrounding

Volkmanns canal
Have risen cnanal
Ostoid nerve

A

Haversian canal

101
Q

Name the primitive type of tissue from which the osseus tissue

Cartilage
Ectoderm
Mesoderm
Endoderm
Connective tissue
A

Cartilage

102
Q

When the fracture line is perpendicular to the axis of a long bone what type of fracture is it?

A

Transverse

103
Q

When the fracture is an angled line what type of fracture is it?

A

Oblique

104
Q

A helical fracture line produced by a twisting force is what type of fracture?

A

Spiral

105
Q

When the bone is broken into pieces at the site of impact, what fracture type is it?

A

Comminuted fracture

106
Q

When a bone fragment tears off the main bone by excessive forces acting on attached tendon or ligament, what type of fracture is it?

A

Avulsion fracture

107
Q

When one end of the fractured bone is forcefully driven into the interior of the other, what type of fracture is it?

A

Impacted fracture

108
Q

A partial fracture, one side of the bone is broken and the other side bends which occurs mostly in children whose bones are not fully ossified is known as what type of fracture?

A

Green stick fracture

109
Q

What are the phases of bone fracture repair?

A

Reactive phase

Reparative phase (firbocartilagenous (soft) callus formation)

Reparative phase (bony (hard) callus formation

Bone remodeling phase

110
Q

The first phase is the reactive phase, what are the major steps that occur in this phase?

A

An early inflammatory phase in which a mass of blood forms around the site of the fracture called a fracture hematoma.

Dead bone cells produce additional cellular debris

Phagocytes and osteoclasts begin to remove the dead or damaged tissue in and around the fracture hematoma.

111
Q

What happens in the second step of bone fracture, the reparative phase: Fibrocartilaginaous (soft) callus formation?

A

Characterized by two events:
The formation of a fibrocartilaginous callus and a bony callus to bridge the gap between the broken ends of bones

Blood vessels grow into the fracture hematoma

112
Q

Fibroblasts produce _______

Chrondroblasts produce _______

A

Collagen fibers

Fibrocartilage

113
Q

What are the parts of the reparative phase: Bony (hard) callus formation?

A

Soft callus ossifies

Osteoprogentior cells develop into osteoblasts which begin to produce spongy bone trabeculae

In time the fibrocartilage is converted to spongy bone and the callus is then referred to as bony (hard) callus

114
Q

What are the major parts of the fourth bone fracture repair phase?

A

Replace and remodel hard callus

Dead portions of the original fragments of broken bone are gradually resorted by osteoclasts, then compact bone replaces spongy bone around the periphery of the fracture

115
Q

What is the process to untie the bones properly in where the fractured ends must be brought into alignment?

A

Reduction

116
Q

In __________ ________, the fractured ends of a bone are brought into alignment by manual manipulation, and the skin remains intact

A

Closed reduction

117
Q

In ________ __________ the fractured ends of a bone are brought into alignment by a surgical procedure using internal fixation devices such as screws, plates and pins

A

Open reduction

118
Q

What are the 3 steps to treating a fracture?

A

Reduction (open or closed)

Immobilization (cast, sling, splint)

Rehabilitation (restoration of function)

119
Q

What inhibits activity of osteoclasts, speeds blood Ca2+ uptake by bone and accelaerates Ca2+ deposition into bones?

A

Calcitonin

120
Q

What are the two principal effects of aging?

A

Loss of bone mass

Brittleness

121
Q

Loss of bone mass results from __________

A

Demineralization (loss of Calcium)

122
Q

What does brittleness result from?

A

Decrease rate of protein synthesis (loss of collagen)

123
Q

What gives bone its tensile strength?

A

Collagen fibers

124
Q

Explain osteoporosis

A

Bone resorption more than bone deposition

Bones may become brittle

Occurs when creation of newbone (remodeling) doesn’t keep up with the removal of old bone

125
Q

Explain the axial skeleton

A

80 bones consisting of the bones that lie around the longitudinal acids of the human body

Skull, auditory ossicles, hyoid bone, ribs, sternum and vertebral column

126
Q

Explain the appendicular skeleton

A

Consists of the bones of the upper and lower limbs plus the bones forming girdles that connect the limbs to the axial skeleton

Systemic (6 decks)

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