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Introduction Flashcards

1
Q

golden period for giving pralidoxime

A

6-8 hours

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2
Q

smallest drug by MW

A

lithium

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3
Q

largest drug by MW

A

alteplase

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4
Q

excretion of a weak base may be accelerated by acidifying urine with

A

ammonium chloride

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5
Q

drug w/ no oral form, undergoes 100% 1st pass effect

A

nitroglycerin

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6
Q

drugs with IM=oral bioavailability

A

Metronidazole, Clindamycin

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7
Q

vessel in superomedial aspect of buttocks

A

sup.gluteal n.

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8
Q

vessel in inferomedial aspect of buttocks

A

sciatic nerve

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9
Q

blood vessels passed by SL drugs

A

lingual vein-internal jugular v-brachiocephalic/innominate v-SVC-RA

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10
Q

rectal vein responsible for partial first-pass effect on rectal (suppository) route

A

superior rectal vein-> inferior mesenteric vein–> portal vein

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11
Q

topical route, poorest ability to evaporate, better for chronic inflammation

A

ointment

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12
Q

topical route, greatest ability to evaporate, better for acute inflammation

A

tinctures

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13
Q

binding of acidic drugs

A

albumin

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14
Q

binding of basic drugs

A

orosomucoid

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15
Q

known teratogenic effect of methimazole

A

cutis aplasia

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16
Q

DOC for hyperthyroid pregnant

A

PTU

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17
Q

this drug undergoes elimination without metabolism

A

lithium

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18
Q

rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration

A

first-order elimination

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19
Q

rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration

A

zero-order elimination

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20
Q

concentration decreases linearly

A

zero-order

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21
Q

concentration decreases exponentially

A

first-order

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22
Q

occurs when drugs have saturated their elimination mechanisms

A

zero-order elimination

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23
Q

drugs with zero-order elimination

A

warfarin, heparin, aspirin, tolbutamide, phenytoin, ethanol, theophylline (WHATPET)

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24
Q

dose at which 50% of maximal effect is reached

A

potency (EC50)

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25
Q

concentration required to bind 50% of the receptors

A

Kd

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26
Q

minimum dose required to produce a specified response is determined in each member of a population

A

quantal dose-response curve

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27
Q

determines median effective (ED50), median toxic (TD50) and median lethal dose (LD50)–> three potency variables

A

quantal dose-response curve

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28
Q

formula for therapeutic index

A

median toxic dose/median effective dose

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29
Q

measures drug efficacy

A

graded dose-response curve

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30
Q

nonselective alpha antagonist, serves as a noncompetetive/irreversible antagonist which is the DOC for pheochromocytoma

A

phenoxybenzamine

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31
Q

binding to a different receptor, producing an effect opposite to the drug it is antagonizing

A

physiologic antagonists

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32
Q

physiologic antagonist of histamine

A

epinephrine

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33
Q

physiologic antagonist of thyroid hormone

A

propranolol

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34
Q

chemical antagonist for lead poisoning

A

dimercaprol

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35
Q

reduces constitutive activity

A

inverse agonist

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36
Q

drugs displaying tachyphylaxis

A

metoclopromide, ephedrine, dobutamine, LSD, calcitonin, nitroglycerin, nicotine, hydralazine, desmopressin

37
Q

continuous activation may lead to depletion of essential substrates

38
Q

nitroglycerin tolerance can be reversible by administration of

A

glutathione

39
Q

infrequently observed response

A

idiosyncratic drug response

40
Q

example of idiosyncratic drug response- aplastic anemia

A

chloramphenicol

41
Q

example of idiosyncratic drug response- cataracts

A

allopurinol

42
Q

formula for apparent volume of distribution

A

amount of drug in tissue/ plasma drug concentration

43
Q

formula for clearance

A

rate of elimination/plasma concentration

44
Q

formula for half-life

A

0.693x Vd/CL

45
Q

bioavailability is determined by computing

46
Q

maintenance dose computation

A

clearance x desired plasma concentration / bioavailability

47
Q

loading dose computation

A

Vd x desired plasma concentration / bioavailability

48
Q

phase 1/phase 2 reaction? hydrolysis

49
Q

phase 1/phase 2 reaction? oxidation

50
Q

phase 1/phase 2 reaction? reduction

51
Q

phase 1/phase 2 reaction? deamination

52
Q

phase 1/phase 2 reaction? dealkylation

53
Q

phase 1/phase 2 reaction? dehydrogenation

54
Q

phase 1/phase 2 reaction? gluocoronidation

55
Q

phase 1/phase 2 reaction? acetylation

56
Q

phase 1/phase 2 reaction? glutathione conjugation

57
Q

phase 1/phase 2 reaction? glycine conjugation

58
Q

phase 1/phase 2 reaction? sulfation

59
Q

phase 1/phase 2 reaction? methylation

60
Q

teratogenic effect: ACEI

A

fetal renal damage

61
Q

teratogenic effect: antiepileptic drugs

62
Q

teratogenic effect: phenytoin

A

fetal hydantoin syndrome

63
Q

teratogenic effect: oral hypoglycemic agents

A

neonatal hypoglycemia

64
Q

teratogenic effect: barbiturates

A

neonatal dependence

65
Q

teratogenic effect: DES

A

vaginal clear cell adenoCA

66
Q

teratogenic effect: ethanol

A

fetal alcohol syndrome

67
Q

teratogenic effect: Lithium

A

Ebstein’s anomaly

68
Q

teratogenic effect: isotretinoin

A

craniofacial malformations

69
Q

teratogenic effect: iodide

A

congenital hypothyroidism

70
Q

teratogenic effect: misoprostol

A

Mobius sequence

71
Q

teratogenic effect: penicillamine

A

cutis laxa

72
Q

teratogenic effect: thalidomide

A

phocomelia

73
Q

teratogenic effect: smoking

74
Q

teratogenic effect: tetracycline

A

tooth discoloration

75
Q

teratogenic effect: streptomycin

A

ototoxicity

76
Q

teratogenic effect: sulfonamides

A

kernicterus

77
Q

teratogenic effect: fluoroquinolones

A

cartilage damage

78
Q

teratogenic effect: warfarin

A

1st tri: chondrodysplasia, 2nd: CNS malformations, 3rd: bleeding diatheses

79
Q

standard in vitro test for mutagenicity

80
Q

in vivo mutagenicity test in mice

A

Dominant lethal test

81
Q

trial among normal human volunteers

A

phase 1 trial

82
Q

evaluation of a drug in a moderate number of patients

A

phase 2 trial

83
Q

large design involving many patients

A

phase 3 trial

84
Q

compares therapy with the gold standard

A

phase 3 trial

85
Q

postmarketing surveillance phase

A

phase 4 trial

86
Q

detects toxicities that occur infrequently

A

phase 4 trial

87
Q

comparable bioavailability and similar times to achieve peak blood concentrations

A

bioequivalence

88
Q

drug for a rare disease (affecting <200,000)

A

orphan drug

Pharmacology (7 decks)

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