Autonomics, Glaucoma, HTN Flashcards

1
Q

PNS cranial nerves

A

III, VII, IX, X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

muscarinic toxicity symptoms, think

A

wet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

nicotinic toxicity

A

fasciculations, paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

mushrooms with muscarine, can lead to food poisoning

A

inocybe, amanita

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

indirect-acting/direct acting cholinomimetic or cholinoreceptor blocker? betanechol

A

direct-acting cholinomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

indirect-acting/direct acting cholinomimetic or cholinoreceptor blocker? nicotine

A

direct-acting cholinomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

indirect-acting/direct acting cholinomimetic or cholinoreceptor blocker? pilocarpine

A

direct-acting cholinomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

indirect-acting/direct acting cholinomimetic or cholinoreceptor blocker? edrophonium

A

indirect-acting cholinomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

indirect-acting/direct acting cholinomimetic or cholinoreceptor blocker? neostigmine

A

indirect-acting cholinomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

indirect-acting/direct acting cholinomimetic or cholinoreceptor blocker? rivastigmine

A

indirect-acting cholinomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

indirect-acting/direct acting cholinomimetic or cholinoreceptor blocker? atropine

A

cholinoreceptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

cholinesterase regenerator also used for organophosphate poisoning and nerve gas poisoning

A

pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

indirect-acting/direct acting cholinomimetic or cholinoreceptor blocker? benztropine

A

cholinoreceptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

indirect-acting/direct acting cholinomimetic or cholinoreceptor blocker? ipatropium

A

cholinoreceptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

indirect-acting/direct acting cholinomimetic or cholinoreceptor blocker? scopolamine

A

cholinoreceptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

indirect-acting/direct acting cholinomimetic or cholinoreceptor blocker? trimethaphan

A

cholinoreceptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

indirect-acting/direct acting cholinomimetic or cholinoreceptor blocker? hexamethonium

A

cholinoreceptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

cholinergic crisis due to ____-medication, edrophonium (improves/weakens) muscle strength

A

over; weakens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

used for Alzheimer’s disease

A

Rivastigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

first line for organophosphate poisoning

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

used for Parkinson’s (esp. tremors)

A

Biperiden, Trihexyphenidyl, Benztropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

preferred bronchodilator in pts with COPD and heart dse

A

ipatropium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

used for motion sickness, applied as transdermal patch, antagonizes histamine and serotonin

A

scopolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

nicotinic antagonist previously used for hypertension, now withdrawn from the market due to toxicities

A

hexamethonium/trimethaphan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

succinylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

notable side effect of NE

A

reflex bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

DOC for diagnosis of MG

A

edrophonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

DOC for tx of MG

A

neostigmine

29
Q

anti-cholinesterase used for glaucoma

A

physostigmine

30
Q

Tx for Sjogren/Sicca syndrome

A

pilocarpine

31
Q

Tx for bowel/bladder atony

A

betanechol

32
Q

Tx for acute heart failure, septic shock

A

B1 and D1 agonists (e.g. dobutamine, dopamine)

33
Q

Tx for hemostasis, decongestion, spinal shock

A

A1 agonist (e.g. phenylephrine/pseudoephedrine)

34
Q

Tx for bronchospasm

A

B2 agonist (e.g. albuterol, salmeterol)

35
Q

Tx for premature labor

A

B2 agonist (e.g. terbutaline, ritodrine)

36
Q

Tx for hypertension, glaucoma

A

A2 agonist (e.g.clonidine, methyldopa, aproclonidine)

37
Q

DOC for rebound hypertension

A

phentolamine

38
Q

notable SE of methyldopa

A

hemolytic anemia

39
Q

nonselective A-adrenergic blockers

A

phenoxybenzamine, phentolamine

40
Q

irreversible nonselective A-adrenergic used for pheochromocytoma (pre-surgical)

A

phenoxybenzamine

41
Q

reversibly blocks alpha adrenergic receptors

A

phentolamine

42
Q

first dose orthostatic hypotension

A

selective A1 blockers (e.g. prazosin)

43
Q

BPH

A

selective A1 blockers (e.g. prazosin)

44
Q

most selective for prostatic smooth muscle among selective A1 blockers

A

tamsulosin

45
Q

has combined A and B blockade (hence may be used in pheochromocytoma)

A

labetalol

46
Q

partial agonist activity among beta blockers, less likely to cause bronchospasm; examples

A

intrinsic sympathomimetic activity; pindolol, acebutolol

47
Q

beta blockers which lack local anesthetic activity making them useful for glaucoma

A

timolol and betaxolol

48
Q

beta blocker with longest half-life; shortest

A

nadolol; esmolol

49
Q

beta blocker of choice for SVT

A

esmolol

50
Q

blocks CNS sympathetic outflow

A

A2 agonists (clonidine, methyldopa)

51
Q

TZDs act on ___ transporter in the ______

A

Na-Cl transporter; DCT

52
Q

Furosemide, bumetanide, torsemide, ethacrynic acid act on ___ transporter in the ______

A

Na/K/2Cl, thick ascending limb of LH

53
Q

loop diuretic with no sulfa group

A

ethacrynic acid

54
Q

notable SE of loop diuretics

A

ototoxicity

55
Q

obsolete drug for hypertension used to irreversibly block vesicular monoamine transporter; causes psychiatric depression, suicidal ideation

A

reserpine

56
Q

advantage of A1 selectivity

A

reflex tachycardia is less common and less severe

57
Q

vasodilator decreasing Ca metabolism in vascular SM; can cause drug-induced lupus, reflex tachycardia

A

hydralazine

58
Q

vasodilator opening K+ channels in vascular SM causing hyperpolarization and relaxation; notable SE

A

minoxidil; hypertrichosis (also used for alopecia)

59
Q

OPD DOC for SVT

A

verapamil

60
Q

parenteral vasodilators

A

nitroprusside, fenoldopam

61
Q

parenteral vasodilator which is also a dopamine agonist

A

fenoldopam

62
Q

CCB class’n with preference to the cardiac muscle

A

non-dihydropyridine

63
Q

slows ventricular remodeling, increases survival in HF, renoprotective

A

ACEIs, ARBs

64
Q

how does ACEIs delay progression of DM nephropathy?

A

dec albumin excretion

65
Q

renin antagonist

A

aliskiren

66
Q

vasodilator which can cause cyanide toxicity; antidote

A

nitroprusside; amyl nitrite

67
Q

vasodilator associated with tolerance

A

nitroglycerin

68
Q

causes additive vasodilatory effect with nitrates

A

phosphodiesterase inhibitors (sildenafil, vardenafil, tadalafil)

69
Q

CCB used for Raynaud’s phenomenon, does not cause gingival hyperplasia

A

Diltiazem