Intro to Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

According to psychodynamic psychology, what is depression the result of?

A

Suppressed aggressive drives

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2
Q

Who are the key figures in the development of the behaviorists school of psychological thought?

A

Ivan Pavlov
John Watson
B.F. Skinner

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3
Q

Who was a key figure in the development of psychoanalysis?

A

Sigmund Freud

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4
Q

Author of Hierarchy of Needs

A

Abraham Maslow

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5
Q

Abraham Maslow - what type of psychology?

A

Humanistic psychology

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6
Q

Hierarchy of Needs exact order

A
  1. Physiological needs - water, food,air
  2. Safety Needs - shelter, protection
  3. Belongingness - sense of belonging and love
  4. Esteem needs - Mastery and feeling appreciated by others
  5. Cognitive needs - understand the world, creating curiosity
  6. Aesthetic needs - Harmony and order
  7. Self Actualization needs -be all that you are capable of becoming
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7
Q

Suppose there is a positive correlation between age and life satisfaction.
What conclusion does the correlation support?

A

As age increases, the level of life satisfaction also increases.

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8
Q

How can psychological researchers reduce the impact of their own biases?

A

By collecting all the data from experiments before running the
statistics

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9
Q

descriptions of Gage before and after the accident provided evidence that the frontal lobe is involved in executive functioning.

Which research method does the study of Gage represent?

A

Case study

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10
Q

Experiment or Experimental research

A

**provide the strongest way to test a hypothesis **

changes in one variable cause changes in another.

the investigator **manipulates the value of independent variable **(it can be changed independently of anything else), **and measures the dependent variable
**
the investigator is looking to see whether the values of this variable depend on those of the independent variable.

ex. Researchers want to see if a new drug decreases depression symptoms in patients. They create an experimental group and a control group.

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11
Q

Meta-analysis

A

A meta-analysis is a statistical method that combines results from multiple studies on the same topic to get a more precise and reliable overall conclusion. It increases the sample size and reduces bias by pooling data.

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12
Q

Factor analysis

A

statistical technique

identify underlying patterns with
large set of variables.
simplifies data by grouping related variables into factors,

In the development of a personality test, researchers may collect responses on 100 different items. Factor analysis might reveal that these 100 items can be reduced to five underlying factors (e.g., the Big Five personality traits), allowing researchers to summarize personality in terms of these five broad dimensions instead of many individual items.

Overall, factor analysis is a powerful tool for uncovering hidden patterns in data, reducing complexity, and revealing the structure behind large sets of variables.

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13
Q

Which principle should be established in any psychological study?

A

Participants should be protected from needless harm.

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14
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for memory?

A

Hippocampus

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15
Q

What does the hypothalamus influence?

A

Pleasure

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16
Q

What does the cerebellum influence?

A

Balance and fine motor movement

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17
Q

What is the function of the neurotransmitter serotonin?

A

It affects mood.

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18
Q

Which neurotransmitter enables muscle action?

A

Acetylcholine

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19
Q

What is the function of Dopamine?

A

Dopamine is a neurotransmitter essential for:

Reward and Pleasure: It reinforces pleasurable behaviors, encouraging repetition.
Motivation: Drives goal pursuit and focus.
Movement: Regulates motor control; its deficiency causes movement issues like in Parkinson’s disease.
Cognition: Supports attention, learning, and memory, especially when tied to rewards.
Mood Regulation: Influences emotional responses; low levels are linked to depression.
Hormone Regulation: Affects hormone release, such as prolactin for reproductive health.
Overall, dopamine is crucial for motivation, mood, movement, and cognitive function.

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20
Q

What is the function of Norepinephrine?

A

Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter and hormone that plays a key role in:

Fight-or-Flight Response: It increases heart rate, blood pressure, and blood flow to muscles during stress or danger.
Alertness and Focus: Enhances attention, arousal, and concentration.
Mood Regulation: Influences mood and energy levels, with low levels linked to depression.
Blood Vessel Constriction: Helps maintain blood pressure by causing blood vessels to tighten.
In short, norepinephrine boosts alertness, energy, and physical readiness in stressful situations.

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21
Q

The nervous system integral in activating the body’s fight-or-flight response?

A

Sympathetic nervous system

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22
Q

To allow us to function in the world, the brain needs both to receive information from the body and the outside world and be able to act on such information. The part of the PNS that receives such information and enables you to act on it is the…

A

Somatic nervous system

The SNS includes (a) the neurons in the sensory organs (such as the eyes and ears) that convey information to the brain and (b) neurons that trigger muscles and glands.

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23
Q

Clark Hull

A

behaviorism
Drive Reduction Theory
human behavior is motivated by biological drives,
contributed to the study of learning and motivation

Clark Hull was an American psychologist known for his influential work in behaviorism. He developed the Drive Reduction Theory, which proposed that human behavior is motivated by biological drives, such as hunger or thirst, and that individuals act to reduce these drives and maintain homeostasis. Hull’s theories contributed significantly to the study of learning and motivation in psychology.

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24
Q

Carl Rogers

A

humanistic psychology
person-centered therapy approach, which emphasizes the importance of empathy, unconditional positive regard, and a non-directive stance in therapy.

impacted counseling, education, and psychotherapy.

Rogers believed that people have an inherent tendency toward personal growth and self-actualization, and his work focused on creating an environment where individuals can explore and fulfill their potential.

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25
Q

Pavlov’s original demonstration of classical conditioning - the dog’s salivation to the ringing of the bell

A

Conditioned response

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26
Q

continuous reinforcement schedule

A

can produce rapid learning

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27
Q

partial reinforcement schedule

A

behavior is not reinforced every time it occurs but only intermittently.

This creates a stronger and more persistent behavior because the individual doesn’t know when the next reward will come, making the behavior more resistant to extinction compared to continuous reinforcement.

Example:
A classic example is a slot machine in a casino. Players are not rewarded every time they pull the lever, but occasionally, they receive a payout. This unpredictability keeps them engaged and makes the behavior of playing more resistant to stopping, even without a win for a while.

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28
Q

A 50-year-old person who has not ridden a bicycle since childhood gets on a bicycle and rides
effortlessly without even thinking about it.
What type of memory is being used in this situation?

A

Implicit memory

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29
Q

Which type of memory holds information until it can be encoded?

A

Short-term memory

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30
Q

A type of memory that helps us perceive our surroundings continuously and seamlessly. brief, initial storage of information from the environment, lasting only a few seconds or less. It allows the brain to retain an exact copy of—– input (such as sights, sounds, or smells) just long enough for the information to be transferred to short-term memory for further processing. There are different types of this memory, such as iconic memory (visual) and echoic memory (auditory).

A

Sensory memory

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31
Q

Explicit memory

A

declarative memory, is the type of long-term memory that involves the conscious recall of facts and events.

It requires intentional effort to retrieve information, such as remembering names, dates, or specific experiences. Explicit memory is divided into two categories:

1.** Episodic memory**: Memories of personal experiences or events (e.g., your last birthday party).
2. Semantic memory: Knowledge of facts, concepts, and general information (e.g., knowing the capital of France).

Explicit memory allows us to recall information intentionally and is essential for learning and reasoning.

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32
Q

A teenager asks a parent for help with calculus homework. The parent has not solved calculus
problems in more than 20 years and remembers very little about it.
Which concept corresponds to this situation?

A

Storage decay

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33
Q

Encoding failure

A

the inability to store information in long-term memory because it was never properly encoded or processed during the learning stage.

when attention is not fully focused on the information, or when the information is not rehearsed enough to be stored.

For example, if you meet someone briefly but don’t actively focus on remembering their name, you might forget it soon after because it wasn’t encoded into your memory.

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34
Q

Interference

A

Interference is a common cause of forgetting and memory errors.

the retrieval of information is disrupted by the presence of other, competing information.

Proactive interference: Older information interferes with the ability to remember new information.
Retroactive interference: New information disrupts the recall of previously learned information.

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35
Q

Motivated forgetting

A

concept where people unconsciously block or actively suppressmemories,

Repression: An unconscious process where the brain blocks memories of traumatic events to reduce anxiety

Suppression: A conscious effort to forget or push away distressing memories or thoughts.

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36
Q

Franco has been away from his hometown in Italy for more than 30 years, but he can still paint it
from memory with impressive accuracy.
Which memory is Franco using?

A

Long-term memory

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37
Q

Working memory

A

cognitive system that temporarily holds and processes information needed for complex tasks such as reasoning, learning, and decision-making.

** It allows us to hold and manipulate information in our minds over short periods** while performing mental activities. For example, working memory helps you keep a phone number in your mind long enough to dial it or perform mental math.

It is often described as the** “mental workspace”** where information is actively processed and used, playing a crucial role in attention, problem-solving, and planning. Working memory has limited capacity and typically can only hold a few pieces of information at a time.

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38
Q

Which theorist claims that personality derives from sexually charged subconscious forces?

A

Sigmund Freud

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39
Q

Albert Bandura

A

**known for his Social Learning Theory and his concept of observational learning.

He demonstrated that people can learn behaviors, attitudes, and emotional responses by watching others, rather than through direct experience alone.

His famous **Bobo doll **experiment showed that children could learn aggression simply by observing an adult model being aggressive.

Bandura also introduced the concept of self-efficacy, which refers to a person’s belief in their ability to succeed in specific situations. His work greatly influenced the fields of education, psychology, and behavioral therapy.

Albert Bandura is most closely associated with the social-cognitive school of thought (also referred to as social learning theory). This approach emphasizes the importance of observing and modeling the behaviors, attitudes, and emotional reactions of others, blending aspects of both behaviorism and cognitive psychology.

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40
Q

Who was behind personality theory and intelligence research

Psychoticism: Associated with aggressiveness and interpersonal hostility.

Extraversion-Introversion: Describes how outgoing or reserved a person is.

Neuroticism-Stability: Refers to emotional instability versus calmness.

conducted research on intelligence, arguing that intelligence was largely inherited.

While his focus on traits placed him within trait theory, his emphasis on biological underpinnings of personality aligns him with biological psychology as well.
…behaviorism, cognitive psychology, and biological approaches to understanding behavior and personality, all of which influenced Eysenck’s work.

A

Hans Eysenck

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41
Q

Researcher Abraham Maslow claims that people strive to satisfy certain needs as they approach self-
actualization.
Which perspective is most closely associated with this view?

A

Humanistic

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42
Q

Neo-Freudian

A

Neo-Freudians are a group of psychologists and psychoanalysts who expanded upon and modified Sigmund Freud’s original psychoanalytic theories. While they agreed with many of Freud’s ideas, particularly regarding the importance of the unconscious and early childhood experiences, they disagreed with his heavy focus on sexual drives as the primary motivators of human behavior.

Neo-Freudians emphasized the role of social, cultural, and interpersonal factors in personality development. Some well-known Neo-Freudians include Carl Jung, Alfred Adler, Karen Horney, and Erik Erikson, each contributing their unique perspectives on human development and psychological health.

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43
Q

In which situation is a participant most likely to conform, according to the results of Asch’s study of
conformity?

A

When everyone else in the group expresses the same opinion

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44
Q

According to Freud, which concept is a component of the id?

A

Pleasure principle

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45
Q

What did Carl Rogers say was necessary for a growth-promoting environment?

A

Unconditional positive regard

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46
Q

What would a learning theorist characterize as an operantly conditioned behavior?

A

Using oven mitts after burning a hand on a hot stove

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47
Q

What is an Eysenck personality dimension that is characterized by one’s emotional response to
stimuli?

A

Neuroticism

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48
Q

Extraversion

A

Extraversion in psychology refers to a personality trait characterized by a tendency to be outgoing, sociable, and energetic. People high in extraversion typically enjoy interacting with others, seek excitement and stimulation, and feel energized by social activities. They are often assertive, talkative, and expressive in social situations.

Extraversion is one of the core traits in the Big Five personality model and is often contrasted with introversion, where individuals prefer solitary activities and feel more energized by time alone.

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49
Q

Psychoticism

A

Psychoticism is a personality trait that was proposed by psychologist Hans Eysenck as part of his model of personality. It refers to a dimension of personality characterized by aggressiveness, impulsivity, and a tendency toward anti-social behavior. People who score high in psychoticism may exhibit traits such as hostility, egocentricity, and a lack of empathy.

Psychoticism is distinct from mental illness but is related to more extreme forms of personality traits that could predispose someone to psychological disorders, such as psychopathy or schizophrenia. It is one of the three main dimensions in Eysenck’s model, alongside extraversion and neuroticism.

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50
Q

Aggression

A

Aggression is defined as behavior intended to cause harm, injury, or discomfort to another person, whether physically or psychologically. It can be driven by frustration, anger, or a desire to assert dominance.

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51
Q

How would a learning theorist characterize having the desire to take part in highly stimulating
activities because of past reinforcement?

A

As an operantly conditioned behavior

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52
Q

is a learned response that occurs when a neutral stimulus (e.g., a bell) becomes associated with an unconditioned stimulus (e.g., food) that naturally triggers a response (e.g., salivation). After repeated pairing, the neutral stimulus alone can trigger the same response.

A

Classically conditioned behavior

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53
Q

kinesthetically learned behavior

A

Kinesthetically learned behavior refers to learning through physical movement, body awareness, and hands-on experiences. It involves using the body’s sense of motion, position, and muscle coordination to acquire new skills or knowledge. People who learn kinesthetically often retain information better by actively doing tasks rather than just observing or listening.

For example, learning to ride a bike, play a sport, or perform a dance involves kinesthetic learning, as it requires physical practice and muscle memory to master the skill.

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54
Q

How would a learning theorist characterize a child not saying a curse word after witnessing a
sibling’s severe punishment for saying the curse word?

A

As an observationally learned behavior

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55
Q

occurs when someone attributes a person’s behavior to external factors or circumstances rather than to internal traits or dispositions

A

situational attribution

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56
Q

During a college’s spirit week, students are arbitrarily assigned to two teams for a series of competitive activities. Two friends are placed on separate teams and find their friendship strains during the competition.

Which phenomenon accounts for this strain?

A

Outgroup bias

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57
Q

Fundamental attribution error

A

The Fundamental Attribution Error is a common cognitive bias in which people tend to overemphasize personal characteristics (disposition) and underestimate situational factors when explaining someone else’s behavior. In other words, we often assume that someone’s actions are due to their personality rather than the context they’re in.

For example, if someone cuts you off in traffic, you might think, “That person is rude,” instead of considering that they might be in a rush or facing an emergency.

This bias often leads to misunderstandings and misjudgments about others’ behavior.

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58
Q

Outgroup bias

A

Outgroup bias is the tendency to view individuals who are not part of one’s own group (the “outgroup”) more negatively or less favorably than those in one’s own group (the “ingroup”). People often perceive outgroup members as being more homogeneous and may stereotype or harbor prejudice against them, while showing favoritism toward their own group.

For example, a sports fan may believe that their team’s fans are more passionate and loyal, while viewing rival team fans as less favorable or even hostile. This bias can contribute to social divisions and conflict.

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59
Q

Scapegoat theory

A

Scapegoat theory is a psychological concept that suggests people may blame a person or group (the “scapegoat”) for problems or negative events, even when they are not the true cause. This often occurs in times of frustration or difficulty, where assigning blame to an external target helps individuals or groups release pent-up anger and avoid facing the real causes of their issues.

For example, during economic downturns, minority groups may be unfairly blamed for job losses or social problems, even though they are not responsible for the larger economic factors at play. Scapegoating can lead to prejudice and discrimination.

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60
Q

Group pressure

A

Group pressure, also known as peer pressure, refers to the influence exerted by a group on an individual to conform to the group’s behaviors, attitudes, or beliefs. This pressure can be explicit (e.g., direct requests) or implicit (e.g., unspoken expectations) and can lead individuals to change their behavior, sometimes against their own preferences, to fit in or be accepted by the group.

For example, a person might adopt a group’s opinions, dress style, or actions to avoid feeling isolated or rejected. Group pressure can be positive or negative, depending on the group’s norms and values.

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61
Q

A person makes a donation to a charity because it feels good. The person also receives a thank-you gift and positive attention from peers.

What explains this person’s decision to donate?

A

Social exchange theory

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62
Q

Social exchange theory

A

Social Exchange Theory is a psychological and sociological concept that explains human relationships and interactions as a series of exchanges where people seek to maximize benefits and minimize costs. According to this theory, individuals assess their relationships based on perceived rewards (e.g., support, companionship) and costs (e.g., time, effort, conflict).

The theory suggests that people are more likely to stay in relationships where the perceived benefits outweigh the costs, and may leave or avoid relationships where the costs are too high relative to the rewards. This cost-benefit analysis shapes decisions in social interactions.

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63
Q

Self-serving bias

A

Self-serving bias is a cognitive tendency where individuals attribute their successes to internal factors, such as their abilities or effort, while blaming external factors, like luck or circumstances, for their failures. This bias helps protect self-esteem and maintain a positive self-image.

For example, if someone gets a promotion, they might credit their hard work and skills. However, if they don’t get the promotion, they may blame external factors like unfair management rather than considering their own shortcomings. This bias can distort self-perception and influence behavior.

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64
Q

Just-world effect

A

The Just-World Effect (or Just-World Hypothesis) is the cognitive bias that leads people to believe that the world is inherently fair, and that individuals get what they deserve. This belief often results in the assumption that good things happen to good people, and bad things happen to bad people.

As a consequence, people may blame victims for their misfortunes, assuming that they must have done something to “deserve” their situation, rather than acknowledging external or uncontrollable factors. This bias helps individuals maintain a sense of order and predictability in life, even though it may distort their perception of reality.

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65
Q

Bystander effect

A

The Bystander Effect is a psychological phenomenon where individuals are less likely to help someone in need when other people are present. The more bystanders there are, the less likely any one person is to take action. This effect is often attributed to diffusion of responsibility, where individuals assume that someone else will intervene, and thus feel less personal responsibility to act.

For example, in a crowded area, a person in distress may not receive immediate help because everyone assumes someone else will step in. The Bystander Effect can prevent timely assistance in emergencies.

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66
Q

Loto has been approached by a member of his social club to volunteer one day a week at the local food bank, a charity that the club has decided to support. Loto is busy with his home and family but realizes that helping will increase his feelings of giving to the community and enhance how members of the club may view him. He decides to make the time in his schedule for this volunteer effort.

What is this an example of, in terms of altruism?

A

Social exchange theory

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67
Q

Codependence theory

A

explains relationships where one person excessively relies on another for emotional or psychological needs. The codependent person often prioritizes caregiving or enabling over their own well-being, while the other may be dependent or struggling with issues like addiction. This creates an unhealthy dynamic, with blurred boundaries and neglect of self-care.

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68
Q

Group polarization

A

is the tendency for a group to make decisions or adopt opinions that are more extreme than the initial inclinations of its individual members. This occurs because group discussions often reinforce and amplify shared beliefs, leading to more extreme positions. For example, after discussing a topic, a group might become more conservative or more liberal than the average opinion of the individuals before the discussion.

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69
Q

Social norms

A

the unwritten rules and expectations that guide behavior in a society or group. They define what is considered acceptable, appropriate, or typical behavior in specific social situations. Social norms help maintain order and predictability in interactions by shaping how people act, dress, communicate, and relate to one another within a community or culture.

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70
Q

A group of individuals who are moderately opposed to the death penalty meet to discuss the issue. After two hours of discussion, most find themselves more strongly opposed to the death penalty than they were before the meeting.

Which concept is this scenario an example of?

A

Group polarization

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71
Q

In-group bias

A

the tendency to favor and show preferential treatment toward members of one’s own group (the “in-group”) over those from other groups (the “out-group”). This bias leads to more positive attitudes, judgments, and behavior toward in-group members, often at the expense of out-group members, even when the groups are formed arbitrarily. It can contribute to group cohesion but also to discrimination and prejudice against others.

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72
Q

A company’s research department is under strong pressure to solve an urgent problem with one of
the company’s products. In their urgency, the department’s executives decide to focus on one
possible solution and refuse to consider alternatives.
Which dynamic does this scenario best illustrate?

A

Groupthink

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73
Q

Social facilitation

A

the phenomenon where an individual’s performance improves on simple or well-practiced tasks when in the presence of others. Conversely, performance on more complex or unfamiliar tasks may worsen. This effect occurs because the presence of an audience or co-actors increases arousal, enhancing dominant responses (either success or difficulty depending on task familiarity). For example, a runner might perform better in a race with spectators but may struggle more with a complex task under observation.

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74
Q

Groupthink

A

occurs when group members prioritize harmony over critical thinking, leading to poor decisions. Individuals suppress doubts to avoid conflict, resulting in flawed choices as alternatives aren’t fully considered. This can lead to risky or suboptimal outcomes due to a lack of diverse perspectives.

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75
Q

Diffusion of responsibility

A

the phenomenon where individuals feel less personal responsibility to take action in a situation because they believe others will step in. It commonly occurs in group settings, leading to inaction, as people assume someone else will handle the problem.

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76
Q

Altruism

A

the selfless concern for the well-being of others, often involving actions taken to help others without expecting any personal benefit in return.

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77
Q

Which term arose from research seeking to understand why a group of strangers are unlikely to help
another person in a moment of need?

A

Bystander effect

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78
Q

Reciprocity norms

A

social expectations that people will respond to others’ kindness or help with similar positive actions. In other words, if someone does something for you, there’s a norm that you should return the favor.

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79
Q

Social responsibility norms

A

societal expectations that individuals should help others in need or contribute to the well-being of others, especially when the other person is dependent or unable to help themselves, without expecting anything in return.

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80
Q

Attraction includes three psychological determinants

A

Physical attractiveness,repeated
contact, Similarity

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81
Q

A patient regularly hears two voices conversing with each other.The patient’s speech has grown increasingly irrelevant to the situation. The
patient bathes infrequently and demonstrates a reduced range of emotional expressiveness.

A

Schizophrenia

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82
Q

Schizophrenia

A

severe mental disorder that affects a person’s ability to think clearly, manage emotions, and interact with others. It is characterized by symptoms such as delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, and impaired functioning.

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83
Q

Social phobia

A

Is classified as an anxiety disorder

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84
Q

Post-traumatic stress disorder

A

is classified as an anxiety disorder

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85
Q

Panic disorder

A

a type of anxiety disorder characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks. These are sudden episodes of intense fear or discomfort, often accompanied by physical symptoms like a racing heart, shortness of breath, dizziness, and a sense of impending doom. Panic disorder can lead to persistent worry about future attacks and changes in behavior to avoid triggers.

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86
Q

A patient reports experiencing intense periods of discomfort over the past month. These incidents
developed abruptly and generally persist for approximately 15 minutes. The patient notes an
accelerated heart rate, shortness of breath, dizziness, intense chest pain, and a fear of dying during
such episodes. The patient was examined by a physician, who determined that a heart attack was not
the cause of these symptoms. The patient now experiences persistent concern about having
additional episodes.
Which mental disorder is the patient most likely suffering from?

A

Panic disorder

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87
Q

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

a mental health condition characterized by persistent, unwanted thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors or rituals (compulsions). Individuals with OCD feel compelled to perform these behaviors to reduce anxiety or prevent perceived harm, even if the actions are irrational or excessive. Common examples include excessive cleaning, checking, or counting.

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88
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

Mood disorder

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89
Q

Anxiety disorders

A

group of mental health conditions characterized by excessive and persistent feelings of worry, fear, or anxiety that interfere with daily activities. These disorders often involve physical symptoms such as a rapid heart rate, sweating, or restlessness. Common types of anxiety disorders include:

Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD): Chronic worry about everyday matters.
Panic Disorder: Recurrent panic attacks and fear of future episodes.
Social Anxiety Disorder: Intense fear of social situations.
Phobias: Extreme fear of specific objects or situations (e.g., heights or flying).
Anxiety disorders can range from mild to severe, but they are treatable with therapy, medication, or lifestyle changes.

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90
Q

Dissociative disorders

A

mental health conditions where a person experiences disruptions in memory, identity, or perception, often triggered by trauma. Examples include Dissociative Amnesia, Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID), and Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder. These disorders can affect daily life but are treatable with therapy.

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91
Q

Alzheimer’s disease

A

a progressive neurological disorder that leads to memory loss, cognitive decline, and changes in behavior. It is the most common cause of dementia, affecting the brain’s ability to function properly over time. Symptoms worsen gradually, impacting tasks like thinking, reasoning, and remembering. While there is no cure, treatments can help manage symptoms and slow progression.

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92
Q

Psychotic disorder

A

mental health conditions characterized by a disconnection from reality, often involving symptoms like hallucinations (seeing or hearing things that aren’t there) and delusions (false beliefs). Individuals with psychotic disorders may also experience disorganized thinking and behavior. Schizophrenia is one of the most well-known psychotic disorders. These conditions can significantly impact daily functioning but are treatable with therapy and medication.

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93
Q

Personality disorder

A

mental health conditions characterized by enduring patterns of behavior, thoughts, and emotions that deviate significantly from societal expectations. These patterns are inflexible, lead to difficulties in personal relationships, and cause distress or impairment in daily functioning. Common types include Borderline Personality Disorder, Antisocial Personality Disorder, and Narcissistic Personality Disorder. Treatment often involves therapy and, in some cases, medication.

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94
Q

Which type of therapy is based on the belief that an individual’s interpretation of events is what
causes unhappiness, rather than unhappiness being caused by the actual events?

A

Rational-emotive therapy

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95
Q

Rational-emotive therapy (RET)

A

**developed by **Albert Ellis, is a form of cognitive-behavioral therapy **
that focuses on identifying and challenging irrational beliefs and cognitive distortions. The therapy aims to help individuals recognize how their thoughts influence their emotions and behaviors, leading to healthier emotional responses. By replacing negative or irrational beliefs with more rational ones, individuals can reduce emotional distress and improve their overall well-being.

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96
Q

Client-centered therapy

A

also known as person-centered therapy, is a therapeutic approach developed by Carl Rogers. It emphasizes creating a supportive and non-judgmental environment where clients feel safe to explore their feelings and thoughts. The therapist adopts an empathetic, active listening stance and provides unconditional positive regard, allowing clients to develop greater self-awareness and self-acceptance. The goal is to empower individuals to find their own solutions and achieve personal growth.

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97
Q

Exposure therapy

A

is a psychological treatment used to help individuals confront and reduce their fear or anxiety related to specific objects, situations, or memories. The therapy involves gradual and controlled exposure to the feared stimulus in a safe environment, helping clients learn that their anxiety decreases over time and that the feared outcome is unlikely to occur. This approach is commonly used for anxiety disorders, including phobias, PTSD, and obsessive-compulsive disorder, and aims to help individuals develop coping skills and reduce avoidance behaviors.

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98
Q

A therapist seeks to increase a client’s self-awareness and self-acceptance, also known as person-
centered therapy based on Carl Roger’s theory.
Which theoretical orientation is this?

A

Humanistic

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99
Q

Cognitive therapy

A

a form of psychotherapy that focuses on identifying and changing negative thought patterns and beliefs that contribute to emotional distress and behavioral issues. Developed by Aaron Beck, this therapy aims to help individuals recognize how their thoughts influence their feelings and actions. By challenging irrational or distorted thinking, clients can develop healthier thought processes, improve emotional regulation, and adopt more adaptive behaviors. Cognitive therapy is often used to treat various mental health conditions, including depression and anxiety disorders.

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100
Q

Behavioral therapy

A

is a type of psychotherapy focused on modifying harmful behaviors through techniques based on behaviorism. It involves strategies like operant conditioning (reinforcing desired behaviors), classical conditioning (associating positive responses with neutral stimuli), and exposure therapy (confronting fears). Developed by psychologists like B.F. Skinner, John B. Watson, and Joseph Wolpe, this therapy is commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, phobias, and addiction by helping individuals develop healthier behaviors and coping strategies.

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101
Q

Using Aaron Beck’s theory, a therapist focuses on how patterns of thinking influence the feelings a
client experiences in reaction to an event in the client’s life. The therapist seeks to help the client
understand how the emotional response results from the client’s interpretation of the event.
Which theoretical orientation is this?

A

Cognitive

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102
Q

Mindfulness

A

is the practice of being fully present and aware of the current moment, without judgment. It involves paying attention to thoughts, feelings, and sensations as they arise, fostering a greater sense of awareness and acceptance. Mindfulness techniques, such as meditation and focused breathing, are often used to reduce stress, improve emotional regulation, and enhance overall well-being.

mindfulness has its roots in ancient Buddhist meditation traditions, but it was popularized in the West by Jon Kabat-Zinn in the late 20th century. He developed the Mindfulness-Based Stress Reduction (MBSR) program, integrating mindfulness meditation with modern psychology to help individuals manage stress and improve mental health.

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103
Q

A therapist is helping clients become more aware of patterns of irrational negative thinking. The
therapist is encouraging the clients to replace negative thoughts with a more balanced perspective
and asks them to practice this new approach between treatment sessions.
Which theoretical orientation does this approach represent?

A

Cognitive-behavioral

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104
Q

Cognitive-behavioral (orientation)

A

is a psychological approach that combines cognitive and behavioral theories to address psychological issues. It focuses on how negative thoughts influence emotions and behaviors. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) aims to help individuals identify and challenge these thoughts, promoting healthier behaviors and emotional well-being.

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105
Q

Interpersonal (orientation)

A

a psychological approach that emphasizes the importance of relationships and social interactions in shaping an individual’s thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. This orientation focuses on understanding how interpersonal dynamics, such as communication patterns and social support, influence mental health and personal development. It is often used in therapies that address relationship issues and promote better communication and emotional connection between individuals.

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106
Q

Which therapeutic approach is effectively a laboratory for improving social relationships?

A

Group therapy

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107
Q

Humanistic therapy

A

Humanistic therapy is a client-centered approach emphasizing personal growth, self-awareness, and the potential for self-actualization. Rooted in the work of Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow, it focuses on the belief that people are inherently good and capable of positive change. Key principles include empathy, unconditional positive regard, and authenticity in the therapist-client relationship. It emphasizes the present moment and personal responsibility rather than dwelling on the past. Forms of humanistic therapy include Gestalt and Existential therapy, both of which focus on personal meaning and growth.

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108
Q

Which type of therapeutic drug is bipolar disorder commonly treated with?

A

Mood stabilizer

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109
Q

Mood stabilizer drug

A

a class of medications primarily used to treat mood disorders, particularly bipolar disorder, where they help manage extreme mood swings, including episodes of mania, hypomania, and depression

Mood stabilizers work by balancing neurotransmitter activity in the brain, particularly chemicals like glutamate, GABA, and serotonin, which regulate mood

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110
Q

Antidepressant drug

A

Prozac
Prozac is commonly prescribed for conditions like depression, anxiety disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), and panic disorder.

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111
Q

Antipsychotic drug

A

Risperdal, Clozaril

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112
Q

Antianxiety drug

A

One of the most well-known antianxiety drugs is Xanax . It is a benzodiazepine that works by enhancing the effects of the neurotransmitter GABA, which helps to calm the nervous system.

113
Q

What is most commonly treated with antipsychotic medications?

A

Schizophrenia

114
Q

What drug is commonly prescribed for Depression?

A

The most commonly prescribed drug for depression is Prozac

115
Q

Which type of therapeutic drug is Xanax?

A

Antianxiety

116
Q

Which type of therapeutic drug is Prozac?

A

Antidepression

117
Q

Changes in brain chemistry (what school of thought or type of psychology)

A

cognitive psychology

118
Q

Faulty perceptions about self (what school thought or type of psychology)

A

Humanistic psychology: This perspective, rooted in the work of Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow, focuses on self-concept and self-actualization. According to this view, faulty perceptions of the self often arise from a lack of unconditional positive regard or failure to recognize one’s own potential. Humanistic therapy aims to help individuals develop a more accurate and positive view of themselves.

119
Q

Learned responses (what school thought or type of psychology)

A

behaviorism,

120
Q

Edward Titchener

A

structuralism

121
Q

William James

A

Functionalism

122
Q

Functionalism

A

William James
Studieswhythoughts, feelings, and behavior occur andhowthey are adaptive.
Sought to understand how the mind helps individuals adapt to the world around them and function effectively in it
Influenced by Darwin.

123
Q

Max Wertheimer

A

Gestalt Psychology

124
Q

Gestalt Psychology

A

idea that the whole is more than the sum of its parts.** Perception is people’s gateway to the world.** If their perceptions are not accurate, their corresponding thoughts and feelings will be based on a distorted view of reality.

125
Q

stimulus–response associations

A

how a specific stimulus (i.e., an object, person, or event) evokes a specific response. Behaviorism

126
Q

Operant conditioning (behaviorism)

A

Developed by B.F. Skinner, this involves learning based on rewards and punishments

127
Q

Naturalistic Observation

A

Naturalistic observation involves researchers entering the real-life environment pertaining to the desired study. Naturalistic observation is like an “I’m watching you” approach, where behavior is just observed in its natural setting. Those who are being observed cannot know they are being watched because they may alter their behavior.

128
Q

Case Studies

A

These are scientific studies that focus on a single participant, examining their psychological characteristics (at any or all of the levels of analysis) in detail.

129
Q

Surveys

A

involve asking a group of people a set of questions about a given activity and gathering information about their reactions to and perceptions of it.

130
Q

3 types of descriptive research methods

A

Naturalistic Observation
Surveys
Case Studies

131
Q

experimental group

A

receives the complete procedure that defines the experiment

132
Q

Independent variable

A

can be changed independently of anything else

133
Q

Dependent Variables

A

the investigator is looking to see whether the values of this variable depend on those of the independent variable.

134
Q

control group

A

will be treated the same as the experimental group except it does not receive the manipulations of the independent variable that constitute the treatment.

135
Q

To eliminate these sorts of confounding variables, researchers rely on…

A

random assignment

Randomization:
Researchers use random assignment to distribute participants randomly into different experimental and control groups.
Example: In a clinical trial, participants are randomly assigned to receive either a drug or a placebo, reducing the likelihood that differences in age, gender, or health status between groups will affect the outcome.
Control Groups:
A control group is used to compare with the experimental group, helping researchers isolate the effect of the independent variable by holding other factors constant.
Example: In an experiment testing a new teaching method, one group of students is taught using the new method (experimental group) and another group is taught using the standard method (control group), allowing the researchers to see if the new method produces better results.
Matching:
In some studies, researchers match participants across groups based on key characteristics (e.g., age, gender, socioeconomic status) to ensure that the groups are similar, minimizing confounding effects.
Example: In a study comparing treatment outcomes for two therapies, patients might be matched on age and severity of illness so that any differences in outcomes are more likely due to the therapy itself rather than those characteristics.
Statistical Controls:
Researchers use statistical techniques (e.g., regression analysis, ANCOVA) to adjust for the influence of confounding variables in the analysis, allowing them to isolate the effect of the independent variable.
Example: In a study examining the effect of exercise on weight loss, researchers may statistically control for diet to ensure that the results reflect the impact of exercise alone, rather than differences in dietary habits.
Blinding:
Single-blind or double-blind designs are used to prevent bias. In a double-blind study, neither the participants nor the experimenters know who is receiving the treatment or placebo, which helps reduce bias and confounding influences.
Example: In a drug trial, a double-blind procedure ensures that neither the patients nor the researchers know who is receiving the real drug and who is getting a placebo, preventing expectations from influencing the outcomes.
Counterbalancing:
In within-subject designs, where participants are exposed to multiple conditions, researchers use counterbalancing to vary the order of conditions. This prevents the order in which treatments are given from becoming a confounding variable.
Example: If participants are given two different tasks to complete, half of the participants do Task A first and Task B second, while the other half do Task B first and Task A second.
By employing these techniques, researchers can minimize the impact of confounding variables, allowing for a more accurate interpretation of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables.

136
Q

Researchers want to see if there is a relationship between the time of day and the number of symptoms for a new medication.

A

Correlational research

137
Q

Researchers want to find out how people feel taking a new medication. They create a set of questions and give them to the subjects to answer.

A

Descriptive research

138
Q

The structure for experimentation involves 6 steps.

A

Observe and question.
Research.
Formulate a hypothesis.
Test your hypothesis.
Analyze and conclude.
Share the results.

139
Q

careful descriptions or numerical measurements of a phenomenon

A

Data

140
Q

data in the form of numerical values

A

quantitative data

141
Q

nonnumerical data based on recorded observations

A

qualitative data

142
Q

the process of repeating the method of a study to compare results with those of the original study

A

replication

143
Q

the result of a researcher taking careful, methodical notes on a person, process, or trend

A

direct observation

144
Q

a proposed explanation that serves as the starting point for investigation or research

A

hypothesis

145
Q

a statement about concepts in a research study that specifies how they will be manipulated and measured

A

operational definition

146
Q

a group that is drawn from a larger population and that is measured or observed

A

sample

147
Q

when researchers do not choose the participants at random but instead select them so that an attribute is over-or underrepresented.

A

sampling bias

148
Q

consistency; providing the same result each time a measurement is taken

A

reliability

149
Q

measuring what, in fact, a method is supposed to measure

A

validity

150
Q

the entire set of relevant people or animals

A

population

151
Q

valid reasons for scientific research

A

1.To identify solutions to problems in the academic and psychology fields
2. to replicate studies and findings from others’ research

152
Q

an agreement by potential subjects of an experiment or study that requires them to be told what they will be asked to do and the possible risks and benefits of the procedure

A

informed consent

153
Q

a committee that considers the potential risks and benefits of each research study and decides if it can be conducted

A

institutional review board

154
Q

an interview conducted after a study for researchers to explain why the study was conducted and for participants to ask questions about their participation

A

debriefed

155
Q

a new branch of ethics that focuses on the possible risks and benefits of brain research, which includes using brain anatomy and physiology to predict and control a person’s behavior

A

neuroethics

156
Q

Which two points would an institutional review board (IRB) concern itself with before approving a human research study?

A
  1. The researchers ask participants if they have any questions about the study before they participate.
  2. The participants are made aware of any risks they may experience
157
Q

Which statement best describes the approach a skilled research psychologist uses to put together an experimental group?

A

“The psychologist selects participants randomly to ensure that the group is representative and minimizes bias, and then administers the independent variable to measure its effect on the dependent variable.”

158
Q

Which list best describes the steps of the scientific method used by psychologists?

A

Define the issue
C reate a hypothesis,
Collect data,
Analyze data
make aConclusion.

159
Q

Which example displays correct ethical behavior by a psychologist?

A

the psychologist must have an institutional review board approve any experiment that uses human subjects before beginning the experiment.

160
Q

Which school of thought in psychology involved the first attempt to study the building blocks of consciousness?

A

Structuralism

161
Q

Dr. Martin is interested in studying parent-child interactions. He sits at a local park and records the number of seconds parents look at their phones and compares that to the number of seconds the parents look at their children over a two-hour period.

Which type of research is Dr. Martin conducting?

A

Naturalistic research

Dr. Martin is observing participants in a natural setting, not a lab.

162
Q

David thinks about things he might do to improve his health.

Which aspect of psychology does this decision represent?

A

Mind

163
Q

Which approach is used to study the science of psychology?

A

Objective approach

164
Q

All Lynn’s colleagues go to the same gym after work, so Lynn decides to join.

Which aspect of psychology does this example represent?

A

Group

165
Q

Diego is a psychotherapist trained to help people cope with family-related anxiety.

Which type of psychology does Diego practice?

A

Clinical psychology

166
Q

Academic psychology

A

refers to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes within a university or research setting. It focuses on conducting research, developing psychological theories, and teaching students about various areas of psychology, such as cognitive, developmental, social, and clinical psychology. Academic psychologists often contribute to advancing the field through experimentation, observation, and publishing their findings.

167
Q

Clinical psychologyi

A

a branch of psychology that focuses on diagnosing, treating, and preventing mental health disorders and emotional or behavioral issues. Clinical psychologists use various therapeutic approaches, including talk therapy and behavioral interventions, to help individuals manage psychological conditions such as depression, anxiety, and trauma. They often work in hospitals, private practices, or mental health clinics, and may conduct psychological assessments as part of their practice.

168
Q

involves using psychological principles and research to solve real-world problems in various fields, such as education, business, health, and law. It focuses on applying psychological knowledge to improve human behavior and functioning in practical settings, such as enhancing workplace productivity, improving mental health treatments, or optimizing learning outcomes in schools.

A

Applied psychology

169
Q

Which ethical practice in psychology requires people to be told about any possible risks and benefits before they agree to participate in a study?

A

Informed consent

170
Q

Dr. Woo notices that a lot of her patients with heart disease are the primary caregivers for both young children and their aging parents. She wonders why this is.

At which step is Dr. Woo in the scientific method?

A

Question formation

171
Q

a cell that receives signals, processes these signals, and sends new signals to muscles or organs; the basic unit of the nervous system

A

neurons

172
Q

the place between two neurons including the sending and receiving portions and the space between them

A

synapse

173
Q

the gap in the synapse between the axon of one neuron and the membrane of another, across which communication occurs

A

synaptic cleft

174
Q

chemicals that carry a signal from the terminal button of one neuron to the dendrite or cell body of another

A

Neurotransmittters, or neurotransmitter substances

175
Q

a site on a dendrite or cell body where a neurotransmitter molecule attaches itself; like a lock that is opened by one key

A

receptor

176
Q

cells that help neurons form synapses and connections when the brain is developing, influence communication among neurons, and support the health of neurons

A

glial cells

177
Q

To make a proper neural connection, signals are sent from neuron to neuron across…

A

synapses

178
Q

Which neurotransmitter is involved in motivation and reward and is also used to treat Parkinson disease?

A

Dopamine

179
Q

Serotonin

A

regulation of mood, sleep

Obsessive-compulsive disorder, insomnia, depression (shortage), sleepiness, lack of motivation (excess)

Prozac - antidepressants

180
Q

Which neurotransmitter is used to treat anxiety disorders and substance use disorders?

A

Endorphins

181
Q

The ______, which actually send the message

A

axon’s terminal buttons

182
Q

The ______ of the receiving neuron, which receives the message

A

dendrites

183
Q

Involved in modulation of pain perception

A

Endorphins

184
Q

Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)

A

Dreaming, attention

Depression, fatigue, distractibility (shortage), anxiety, headache, schizophrenia

Tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline

185
Q

Acetylcholine

A

Causes muscles to contract, memory, arousal
Alzheimer disease, delusions (shortage), convulsions, spasms, tremors (excess)

186
Q

Glutamate

A

Primary excitatory neurotransmitter, involved in learning and memory

Schizophrenia, possibly mood disorders
PCP and ketamine (both block)

187
Q

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

A

an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps calm neural activity, can lead to a variety of physical and mental health issues. Since GABA plays a critical role in regulating mood, anxiety, and stress responses, low GABA can disrupt the nervous system’s balance.

Inhibits sending neuron

Anxiety, possibly panic, epilepsy, Huntington disease (shortage), sluggishness, lack of motivation (excess)
Sedatives (such as phenobarbital), alcohol, benzodiazepines (such as Valium, Halcion), which mimic effects

188
Q

Endogenous cannabinoids

A

Memory, attention, emotion, movement, control, appetite

Chronic pain (shortage), memory and attention problems, eating disorders, schizophrenia (excess)

Tetrahydro-cannabinol (THC), which mimics effects of

189
Q

The largest conduit for information going to and from the brain is the spinal cord

A

The Central Nervous System

190
Q

what links the CNS to the organs of the body?

A

The PNS peripheral nervous system

191
Q

The Two Parts of PNS (peripheral nervous system)

A

the autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous system.

192
Q

ontrols the smooth muscles in the body and some glandular functions, as well as many of the body’s self-regulating activities such as digestion and circulation. Smooth muscles, so-called because they look smooth under a microscope, are found in the blood vessels, stomach lining, and intestines.

A

The autonomic nervous system (ANS)

193
Q

part of the peripheral nervous system that includes neurons in the sensory organs and those that trigger voluntary muscles

A

somatic nervous system (SNS).

194
Q

the large bundle of axons that connects the two halves of the brain

A

corpus callosum

195
Q

the four major parts (lobes) of each half of the brain

A

occipital
temporal
parietal
frontal

196
Q

the convoluted pinkish-gray outer layer of the brain where most mental processes arise

A

cerebral cortex

197
Q

creases in the cerebral cortex

A

sulci

198
Q

bulges between sulci in the cerebral cortex

A

gyri

199
Q

the lobes at the back of the head concerned entirely with vision

A

occipital lobes

200
Q

the brain lobes under the temples that process sound, work on memory, and comprehend language

A

temporal lobes

201
Q

the lobes at the top rear of the brain, involved in attention, arithmetic, touch, and registering spatial location

A

parietal lobes

202
Q

the lobes located behind the forehead, involved in planning, memory search, motor control, speech control, reasoning, and emotions

A

frontal lobes

203
Q

composed of the gyrus immediately behind the central sulcus; registers sensations; organized by body part

A

somatosensory strip

204
Q

also called the primary motor cortex, composed of gyrus that control fine movements; organized by body part

A

motor strip

205
Q

a person whose corpus callosum has been severed for medical reasons so that neural signals no longer pass from one cerebral hemisphere to the other

A

split-brain patient:

206
Q

a structure in the limbic system of the brain that relays impulses, especially sensory impulses, to and from the cerebral cortex

A

thalamus

207
Q

a brain structure under the thalamus that plays a central role in controlling eating and drinking and in regulating the body’s temperature, blood pressure, heart rate, sexual behavior, and hormones

A

hypothalamus

208
Q

a subcortical structure that plays a key role in allowing new information to be stored in the brain’s memory banks

A

hippocampus

209
Q

a subcortical structure that plays a special role in fear and is involved in other types of strong emotions, such as anger

A

amygdala

210
Q

a set of brain areas, including the hippocampus, amygdala, and hypothalamus, long thought to be involved in emotion, motivation, learning, and memory

A

limbic system

211
Q

the set of structures at the base of the brain that feeds information into and receives information from the spinal cord

A

brainstem

212
Q

the lowest part of the lower brainstem, which plays a central role in the automatic control of breathing, swallowing, and blood circulation

A

medulla

213
Q

made up of an activating system that helps keep you awake and receives input from the hypothalamus to produce nervous system reactions.

**it’s a complex network of interconnected neurons located in the brainstem, **which is the lower part of the brain connecting to the spinal cord. It plays a critical role in several essential functions related to consciousness, arousal, and attention. The reticular formation extends through the central part of the brainstem, including the medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain.

Some of its key functions include:

Regulating Sleep and Wakefulness: The reticular formation is crucial for controlling the sleep-wake cycle. It helps maintain consciousness by sending signals that keep the brain awake and alert. Damage to this area can result in coma or other consciousness disorders.
Attention and Arousal: It helps focus attention by filtering sensory stimuli, allowing the brain to prioritize important information while ignoring irrelevant or less urgent signals.
Motor Control: The reticular formation influences motor control, including posture, balance, and movement. It works with other brain structures to coordinate voluntary and involuntary movements.
Autonomic Functions: It regulates autonomic functions like heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing by integrating signals from the nervous system.
Pain Modulation: The reticular formation is involved in pain perception, influencing how pain signals are processed and perceived by the brain.
This system plays a vital role in keeping the brain alert and functioning effectively, influencing both basic survival functions and higher-level cognitive processes.

A

reticular formation

214
Q

one of the two main parts of the reticular formation; plays a key role in alertness

A

reticular activating system

215
Q

a bridge between the medulla and midbrain, which also connects the upper parts of the brain to the cerebellum

A

pons

216
Q

a large structure at the base of the brain concerned with physical coordination, estimating time, and paying attention

A

cerebellum

217
Q

chemicals produced by a gland that can act as a neurotransmitter substance

A

hormones

218
Q

What is the “master gland”?

A

The pituitary gland is called the “master gland” because it controls the other glands in the endocrine system.

219
Q

what regulates the endocrine system?

A

the central nervous system

220
Q

The major glands of the endocrine system are…

A

pituitary gland
pineal gland
parathyroid
thyroid
adrenal glands
pancreas
uterus and ovaries for females
testes for males.

221
Q

… secrete sexual hormones, which are important in reproduction and mediate both sexual motivation and behavior.

A

The gonads

222
Q

hormone released by stress and produced by the outer layer of the adrenal glands.

A

cortisol

223
Q

Cortisol function

A

helps the body cope with the extra energy demands of stress.

224
Q

This system carries information to and from the organs of the body. For example, it carries visual information from the eyes to the brain and enables you to respond to the data.

A

The Somatic Nervous System

225
Q

The somatic nervous system comprises the following:

A

The neurons in your sensory organs (e.g., eyes and ears)
The neurons that trigger the muscles and glands
The somatic motor system (e.g., clenching your fist)

226
Q

controls smooth muscle organs and self-regulatory functions

A

The autonomic nervous system

226
Q

neurons that transmit impulses to other neurons

A

interneurons

227
Q

the main communications network

A

The somatic nervous system

228
Q

enables the CNS to receive and respond to stimuli

A

The peripheral nervous system

229
Q

the largest conduit for information going to and from the brain

A

The spinal cord

230
Q

processing that is triggered by physical energy striking receptor cells

A

bottom-up processing

231
Q

processing that is guided by knowledge, expectation, or belief

A

top-down processing

232
Q

senses connected to the body’s position in the world, including touch, pain, temperature sensitivity, and vestibular sense

A

somesthetic senses

233
Q

the point at which stimuli activate receptor cells strongly enough to be sensed

A

threshold

234
Q

the magnitude of the stimulus needed, on average, for an observer to detect it half the time it is present

A

absolute threshold

235
Q

the effect of not being aware of other people’s conversations until your own name is mentioned; then, you suddenly hear it

A

cocktail party phenomenon

236
Q

an effect that occurs when a person hears different stimuli with each ear and must listen to just one set of stimuli, ignoring the other

A

dichotic listening

237
Q

a proposed sixth basic taste (in addition to sweet, sour, bitter, salty, and umami) that is described as “fatty”

A

oleogustus

238
Q

a type of learning that occurs when a neutral stimulus becomes associated (paired) with a stimulus that causes a reflexive behavior; in time, this neutral stimulus is sufficient to elicit—draw out from the animal—that behavior

A

classical conditioning

239
Q

a stimulus that elicits an automatic unconditioned response without requiring prior learning

A

unconditioned stimulus

240
Q

an emotionally charged conditioned response elicited by a previously neutral stimulus

occurs when an emotional reaction, such as fear, happiness, or anxiety, becomes associated with a previously neutral stimulus through classical conditioning. This means that an emotional response is triggered by a stimulus that has been linked with an emotion-eliciting event or experience.

An example would be:

A child developing a fear of dogs after being bitten: Suppose a child has a neutral feeling toward dogs but one day is bitten by a dog. The pain and fear from the bite (unconditioned stimulus) naturally elicit a fear response (unconditioned response). Over time, if the child repeatedly encounters dogs (now the conditioned stimulus) and associates them with the fear and pain of the bite, the child may begin to feel fear (——–) whenever they see a dog, even if the dog is not threatening.
In this example, the child’s emotional reaction (fear) has become conditioned to the previously neutral stimulus (dogs) because of the association with the traumatic experience of being bitten.

A

conditioned emotional response

241
Q

in classical conditioning, — occurs when a conditioned stimulus is paired with an unpleasant unconditioned stimulus that leads the animal to try to avoid the conditioned stimulus
A classic example of —- is:

A person avoiding a dog after being bitten: Imagine someone who was bitten by a dog as a child. As a result of this negative experience, they develop a fear of dogs. In the future, whenever they see a dog, they might cross the street to avoid passing near it. The behavior of crossing the street is learned because it helps them avoid the fear and anxiety (the aversive stimulus) they associate with dogs.

A

avoidance learning

242
Q

a tendency for the conditioned response to be elicited by neutral stimuli that are similar but not identical to the conditioned stimulus

A

stimulus generalization

242
Q

the process by which a conditioned response comes to be eliminated through repeated presentations of the conditioned stimulus without the presence of the unconditioned stimulus

A

extinction

243
Q

the ability to distinguish among stimuli that are relatively similar to the conditioned stimulus and to respond only to the actual conditioned stimulus.

concept in classical and operant conditioning, where an individual learns to respond differently to different stimuli based on their specific characteristics. a behavior is reinforced in the presence of one stimulus but not in the presence of another, allowing the person or animal to differentiate between similar stimuli.

An example would be:

A dog learning to respond to a specific command: Suppose a dog is trained to sit when it hears the command “Sit!” but not when it hears other words like “Stay!” or “Lie down!” Even though these words may sound somewhat similar to the dog, it learns to respond only to the specific stimulus (“Sit!”) because that is the only command that has been consistently reinforced (with treats or praise). The dog has learned to —— between similar commands and only sits when it hears the correct one.

A

stimulus discrimination

244
Q

a method of learning that occurs through rewards and punishments for responses to assist an individual in making an association between a particular behavior and a consequence

A

operant conditioning

245
Q

a principle that states that actions that subsequently lead to a satisfying state of affairs are more likely to be repeated

A

law of effect

246
Q

an object or event that, when it follows a response, increases the likelihood that an animal will make that response again when the stimulus is present

A

reinforcer

247
Q

occurs when an unpleasant object or event is removed after a response, thereby increasing the likelihood of that response in the future

A

negative reinforcement

248
Q

occurs when a response leads to an undesired consequence, thereby decreasing the likelihood of that response in the future

A

positive punishment

249
Q

occurs when a response leads a pleasant object or event to be removed, thereby decreasing the likelihood of that response in the future

A

negative punishment

250
Q

a technique in which behavior is changed through the use of secondary reinforcers

A

behavior modification

251
Q

an event or object (such as attention) that is not inherently reinforced but instead has acquired its reinforcing value through learning

A

secondary reinforcer

252
Q

the series of relatively simple responses involved in shaping a complex response

It’s is a concept used in shaping behavior, where a desired complex behavior is gradually achieved by reinforcing small steps or increments that get closer and closer to the target behavior. This technique is often used in animal training and behavioral therapy.

An example of ____ ______would be:

Training a dog to roll over: Imagine you want to teach a dog to roll over. Instead of waiting for the dog to spontaneously perform the complete action, you would use successive approximations to shape the behavior. The process might look like this:
First, you reward the dog for sitting down.
Then, you only reward the dog when it lies down.
Next, you reward the dog when it turns its head to the side while lying down.
Then, you reward the dog when it starts to roll onto its back.
Finally, you only reward the dog once it fully rolls over.

A

successive approximations

253
Q

memories of the meanings of words, concepts, and general facts about the world

A

semantic memories

254
Q

memories of past events that involve a certain time, place, and circumstance

A

episodic memories

255
Q

memories that can be retrieved voluntarily and brought into short-term memory; also called declarative memories

A

explicit memories

256
Q

memories that cannot be retrieved voluntarily and brought into short-term memory but rather predispose a person to process information or behave in certain ways in the presence of specific stimuli; also called nondeclarative memories

A

implicit memories

257
Q

processing that requires paying attention to each step of a task and using working memory to coordinate the steps; relies on explicit memories

A

controlled processing

258
Q

processing that allows you to carry out a sequence of steps without having to pay attention to each one or to the relations between the steps; relies on implicit memories

A

automatic processing

Automatic processing allows you to do things like driving a familiar route, typing on a keyboard, or performing routine tasks without actively thinking about each action.

259
Q

occurs when having performed a task predisposes you to perform the same or an associated task again in the future

A

priming

260
Q

priming that makes the same information more easily accessed in the future

A

repetition priming

261
Q

a set of neurons that serves to retain information over time

A

memory store

262
Q

type of memory that holds a large amount of perceptual information for a very brief time, typically less than one secondshort-term memory

A

sensory memory

263
Q

also called immediate memory; a type of memory that can briefly retain a small amount of information

A

short-term memory

264
Q

type of memory that holds a huge amount of information for a long time (ranging from hours to years)

A

long-term memory

265
Q

memory for items at the beginning of a list are typically remembered better than others in the list

A

primacy effect

266
Q

memory for items at the end of a list are typically remembered better than the others on the list

A

recency effect

267
Q

a type of mnemonic device where the individual takes new information and frames it in a meaningful way to recall it easily

A

elaborative encoding

268
Q

a special case of memory, as if taken by an internal “camera,”because of its emotional charge; these memories can be “taken” about either very horrific events, such as an accident or terrible news, or about very wonderful events, such as a wedding vow or a baby’s first step

A

flashbulb memory:

269
Q

the act of bringing explicit information to awareness; put more precisely, it is the transfer of explicit information from long-term memory to short-term memory; once information is in short-term memory, you are aware of it and can use it or communicate it

A

recall

270
Q

The Big Five Personality Model

A

The Big Five Personality Model is a widely accepted framework in psychology that describes five key dimensions of human personality. These traits are often remembered using the acronym OCEAN:

Openness to Experience – Reflects creativity, curiosity, and a willingness to try new things.
Conscientiousness – Involves self-discipline, organization, and a sense of responsibility.
Extraversion – Describes sociability, assertiveness, and energy in social situations.
Agreeableness – Refers to being cooperative, compassionate, and trusting.
Neuroticism – Represents emotional instability, anxiety, and moodiness.
Each person scores differently on these traits, creating a unique personality profile. The Big Five model is used in psychology, research, and even workplace assessments to understand individual behavior and traits.

271
Q

Hans Eysencks Model of Personality

A

emphasizes three broad dimensions of personality, often referred to as the PEN model:

Psychoticism (P): This dimension relates to traits like aggressiveness, impersonal attitudes, and a tendency toward impulsivity or risk-taking behavior. High psychoticism is associated with antisocial behavior, while low psychoticism corresponds to empathy and social conformity.

Extraversion (E): This dimension measures an individual’s level of sociability and activity. High extraversion is associated with being outgoing, talkative, and energetic, while low extraversion (introversion) involves being more reserved, quiet, and solitary.

Neuroticism (N): This dimension relates to emotional instability. People high in neuroticism tend to experience frequent negative emotions such as anxiety, depression, and mood swings, while those low in neuroticism are more emotionally stable and calm.

Eysenck believed that these dimensions were biologically based and influenced by genetic factors. He also connected them to physiological responses, such as arousal levels in the brain, suggesting that extroverts, for example, seek external stimulation because of lower baseline arousal levels.

Eysenck’s model was one of the first to link personality traits with biological and physiological mechanisms, and it has had a significant influence on the development of personality psychology.

272
Q

Albert Ellis

A

Rational-emotive therapy, Cognitive Therapy

273
Q

reinforcing desired behaviors

A

operant conditioning

274
Q

associating positive responses with neutral stimuli

A

classical conditioning

275
Q

confronting fears

A

exposure therapy

276
Q

Ego

A

Reality Principle

It mediates between the desires of the id (which seeks immediate gratification) and the constraints of the external world. The ego is responsible for realistic and rational thinking, making decisions that balance the id’s demands with social norms and consequences.

277
Q

Superego

A

Morality principle

The superego judges actions as right or wrong and seeks to enforce moral behavior.