Intro Pharm Basics Flashcards

1
Q

Enteral route

A

Oral (PO), rectal, sublingual and buccal

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2
Q

Parenteral route

A

Intravenous (IV), intramuscular (IM), subcutaneous (SC), intrathecal, intraperitoneal, intraosseous

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3
Q

What is the only limiting factor in PASSIVE DIFFUSION

A

membrane thickness

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4
Q

What does BBB restrict

A

the entry of polar and ionized molecules

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5
Q

Blood brain barrier

A

Tight junctions and P-glycoproteins

also astrocytes

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6
Q

Blood placental barrier

A

epithelial and endothelial cells; p-glycoproteins

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7
Q

Blood testicular barrier

A

Tight junctions; P-glycoproteins

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8
Q

What mechanisms are responsible for the reduction of drug concentration

A

Metabolism + Excretion

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9
Q

What drugs are generally inactive and more readily excreted than the parent molecule?

A

Conjugated drugs

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10
Q

First pass metabolism

A

Drugs absorbed from gut go directly to hepatic portal vein –> metabolized in liver and many become inactive before entering primary circulation

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11
Q

Important Microsomal CYP450

A

CYP3A4 - more than half of all microsomal drug oxidations

CYP3A4 + CYP2D6 = ~75% of prescription drugs that undergo oxidation

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12
Q

P-450 inducers

A

phenobarbital, rifampin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, St. John’s wort

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13
Q

P-450 inhibitors

A

Cimetidine, ketoconazole, ritonavir

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14
Q

CYP450 metabolism explanation NON PRODRUG

A

nonprodrug becomes inactive during metabolism; inducer - speeds up metabolism –> less drug to produce clinical response

inhibitor - slows down metabolism –> supra-therapeutic effects

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15
Q

CYP450 metabolism for PRODRUGS

A

Prodrugs are inactive until they are metabolized; inducer speeds up metabolism –> supra-therapeutic effects
Inhibitor slows down metabolism –> less clinical effects

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16
Q

infants and elderly populations have ___ renal function meaning…

A

slow; doses need to be adjusted

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17
Q

Drugs that are __________ will have a low rate of glomerular filtration

A

highly protein bound

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18
Q

Is active tubular secretion affected by plasma protein binding?

A

no

19
Q

Passive tubular secretion depends on ___

A

lipid solubility of a drug

20
Q

Biliary excretion

A

compounds with high molecular weights
Conjugation increases biliary excretion
Drugs excreted in the bile may be reabsorbed

21
Q

What does the area under the curve represent

A

bioavailability

22
Q

What is a good indicator of renal drug clearance?

A

creatinine clearance

Renal drug clearance higher than creatinine clearance indicates tubular secretion
Renal drug clearance lower than creatinine clearance indicates reabsorption or highly protein bound

23
Q

When elimination is equal to administration, what has been achieved?

A

Steady state concentration

24
Q

a doubled dose results in a

A

double steady-state concentration

25
Q

if you increase the frequency by 2x

A

you double the steady state concentration

26
Q

Agonist

A

a drug/chemical (ligand) that binds to a receptor and activates it

a drug that has receptor affinity and efficacy

27
Q

Antagonist

A
a drug (ligand) that binds to the receptor and produces no effect 
sometimes called a "receptor blocker"

a drug that has receptor affinity without efficacy

28
Q

Inverse Agonist

A

a drug that binds to a receptor and produces a response that is opposite to that of an agonist

decreases the rate of signal transduction

29
Q

Ways to classify drug receptors

A

according tot he ligand with which they interact (most common)
According to signal transduction mechanisms (second most common)
According to location in cell (least common)

30
Q

Desensitization

A

decreased ability of receptor to respond to stimulation

31
Q

Inactivation

A

loss of ability of receptor to respond to stimulation

32
Q

Refractory

A

after a receptor is stimulated, a period of time is required before the next drug-receptor interaction can produce an effect

33
Q

Down-regulation

A

repeated or persistent drug-receptor interaction results in removal of the receptor

34
Q

Tolerance

A

reduced responsiveness to repeated drug administration

35
Q

Tachyphylaxis

A

rapidly acquired tolerance

36
Q

law of mass action

A

number of receptors accompanied by a drug depends on the concentration and then association and dissociation rate constants

37
Q

efficacy

A

the ability of a drug to produce an effect

note that a drug with a lower affinity can still produce a significant response

38
Q

Full agonist

A

maximal response possible for target tissue

39
Q

Partial agonist

A

can only produce a sub-maximal response, regardless of the level or binding affinity

40
Q

YOU’RE DOING GREAT

A

QUEEN

41
Q

competitive antagonist

A

bind to the exact same site on the receptor as the agonist

42
Q

non-competitive antagonist

A

block the agonist site irreversibly by binding to a separate site from the agonist

usually forms a covalent bond
shifts the dose-response curve to the right, but also reduces maximal response
effects cannot be overcome by greater doses of an agonist

43
Q

Median effective dose

A

dose of a drug that produces 50% of maximal response

greater affinity requires a lower dose to occupy 50% of the receptors