Intestinal diseases Flashcards
In which section of the small intestine is iron mostly absorbed?
A) the proximal small intestine
B) the central section of the small intestines
C) the distal small intestine
D) the entire small intestines
A) the proximal small intestine
In which section of the small intestines Vitamin B12 is absorbed?
A) the proximal small intestine
B) the central section of the small intestines
C) the distal small intestine
D) the entire small intestines
C) the distal small intestine
For which reasons is the absorption of folic acid disturbed in patients with anti-epileptic treatment?
A) Anti-epileptics inhibit folic acid absorption at a receptor level.
B) Anti-epileptic therapy causes calcium absorption disorders.
C) Anti-epileptics cause lipid malabsorption.
D) Lipid malabsorption leads to an inhibition of folic acid absorption.
A) Anti-epileptics inhibit folic acid absorption at a receptor level.
In which section of the gastrointestinal tract are saturated bile acids absorbed?
A) the proximal small intestine
B) the central section of the small intestines
C) the distal small intestine
D) proximal section of the large intestines
C) the distal small intestine
The carbohydrates are absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract almost exclusively as:
A) monosaccharides
B) disaccharides
C) polysaccharides
D) in forms of disaccharides and polysaccharides
A) monosaccharides
The following physiological conditions are required for the complete absorption of glucose from the small intestine:
A) intact intestinal villi
B) normal liver function
C) smooth bile production
D) good amylase separation
A) intact intestinal villi
The absorption of D-xylose can be indirectly measured in the urine because…
A) the renal threshold for the excretion of D-xylose by urine is high.
B) D-xylose binds to serum proteins.
C) D-xylose is absorbed from the small intestine, does not bind to serum proteins, is not metabolized and it’s excreted in the urine.
D) D-xylose absorption requires normal pancreatic and hepatic function.
C) D-xylose is absorbed from the small intestine, does not bind to serum proteins, is not metabolized and it’s excreted in the urine.
In gluten-sensitive enteropathy, gluten withdrawal should be performed for the following period:
A) for 1 month
B) for 1 year
C) for 10 years
D) throughout the patient’s life
D) throughout the patient’s life
In chronic terminal ileitis, the color of chronic diarrhea stool is green, and is dilute due to:
A) bile acids are well absorbed
B) bile acids are not absorbed and cause diarrhea by irritation of the colon mucosa
C) bile acids are not absorbed in the distal section of the small intestine, but in the colon
D) bile acids are not absorbed from the proximal section of the small intestine
B) bile acids are not absorbed and cause diarrhea by irritation of the colon mucosa
Causes of diarrhea, except:
A) taking laxatives
B) taking dopamine antagonist drugs
C) malabsorption
D) indigestion
E) taking dopamine agonist
E) taking dopamine agonist
Causes of weight loss in patients with diarrhea, except:
A) malabsorption
B) chronic pancreatitis
C) Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
D) increased nutritional metabolism
C) Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
Causes of constipation, except:
A) tricyclic antidepressants
B) SSRI type antidepressants
C) diabetes mellitus
D) persistent hypokalaemia
B) SSRI type antidepressants
Causes of tetany in patients with steatorrhea, except:
A) decreased calcium absorption
B) the amount of calcium excreted in the faeces increases
C) reduced vitamin D absorption
D) decreased potassium absorption
E) the amount of ionized calcium in the body is reduced
D) decreased potassium absorption
Causes of increased bleeding in malabsorption syndrome may be the following, except:
A) the absorption of vitamin K is reduced
B) decreased production of prothrombin in the liver
C) the pathophysiological processes leading to lipid absorption are disturbed
D) activated protein C resistance is increased in these patients
D) activated protein C resistance is increased in these patients
The diagnosis of sprue disease is as follows, except:
A) low serum calcium (ionized and protein bound)
B) low cholesterol
C) low total serum protein
D) microscopic partial (or total) atrophy of the small intestinal mucosa
E) normal B12 absorption
E) normal B12 absorption
Suspected sprue disease is characterized by the following symptoms, except:
A) frequent diarrhea
B) anemia might develop
C) steatorrhea
D) slow transit time
E) weight loss
D) slow transit time
Pernicious anemia is characterized by the following symptoms, except:
A) microcyter anemia
B) gastric anacidity
C) mild indirect hyperbilirubinaemia
D) sensory disturbance in the limbs
E) macrocyter anemia
A) microcyter anemia
Chronic pancreatitis is characterized by the following laboratory parameters:
1) great mass of stool
2) normal lipiodol absorption
3) the color of the stool is shining
4) stool weight is less than 300 g
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
Malabsorption of carbohydrates is characterized by:
1) low sugar tolerance curve
2) diarrhea occurs during lactose tolerance test
3) flat starch tolerance curve
4) during lactulose tolerance test, the amount of hydrogen in the exhaled air increases
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct
Crohn’s disease can be confirmed by the following tests:
1) erythrocyte sedimentation rate may be increased, CRP levels may be elevated
2) ultrasound shows that the intestinal wall is segmentally thickened
3) histological picture of intestinal biopsy confirms non-specific granuloma
4) double contrast small bowel examination shows several sections of the small intestine narrowed
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct
The following laboratory tests can confirm malabsorption syndrome:
1) flat sugar tolerance curve
2) flat iron load curve
3) schilling test value less than 10%
4) increased orocoecal transit time
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
An essential part of treating patients with gluten-sensitive enteropathy:
1) steroid treatment
2) administration of vitamins
3) providing abundant nutrition
4) gluten withdrawal
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
Gluten-sensitive enteropathy patient’s mucosal recovery should be checked after gluten withdrawal despite the resolution of symptoms:
1) one month after gluten withdrawal
2) half a year after gluten withdrawal
3) one year after gluten withdrawal
4) no biopsy is required
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
In conditions with diarrhea, gallstone formation occurs due to:
1) a higher amount of bile is excreted in the faeces
2) endogenous cholesterol production increase
3) loss of bile acid via stool
4) the lithogenicity of the bladder increase
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct
The presence of an anti-endomysium antibody confirms the following diagnosis (diagnoses):
1) M. Crohn
2) ulcerosa colitis
3) hepatitis C
4) gluten-sensitive enteropathy
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
Possible clinical manifestations of Crohn’s disease:
1) the distal section of the colon
2) the proximal section of the small intestine
3) the proximal section of the colon
4) the distal section of the small intestine
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A 2 meters long middle section of the small intestine was removed by the surgeon due to mesenteric thrombosis. Then the following typical absorption disorders occur:
1) iron malabsorption
2) folic acid malabsorption
3) vitamin B12 malabsorption
4) fat malabsorption
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
In acute pancreatitis, serum calcium levels drop abruptly for the following reasons:
1) the patient receives only an isotonic infusion of NaCl2
2) pancreatic tissue is disolves
3) acute pancreatitis is accompanied by low serum calcium levels
4) due to fat necrosis, calcium stearates are formed
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
The following laboratory results clearly prove complete posthepatic biliary obstruction:
1) direct bilirubin increases
2) increase in serum alkaline phosphatase
3) increase in serum gamma-GT
4) urobilinogen cannot be detected in urine
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct
The following symptomatic treatment may be used in conditions with diarrhea:
1) prokinetic agents
2) loperamide
3) antispasmodics
4) diosmectite
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
The following medications are used successfully in the treatment of giardiasis:
1) antispasmodics
2) tetracyclin derivatives
3) analgesics
4) tinidazole derivatives
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
The correct indications for jejunal (enteral) nutrition are as follows:
1) oesophagus stenosis due to tumor
2) acute pancreatitis
3) stomach outwards stenosis
4) the patient is unable to eat orally for less than 6 weeks
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
Characteristic(s) for Crohn’s disease:
1) may affect any section of the gastrointestinal tract
2) Crohn’s disease is a psychosomatic disease
3) non-specific inflammatory lesions
4) Crohn’s disease is caused by motility disorders
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
The following clinical symptoms are characteristic of dumping syndrome:
1) constipation
2) consuming more sweets causes symptoms
3) lactose intolerance
4) food entering the small intestine triggers the vago-vagal reflex
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
Where does lymphoma most frequently develop in the gastrointestinal tract?
1) colon
2) rectum
3) esophagus
4) stomach
A) only answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) only answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) only answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
