Internal medicine - Diabetes mellitus and other metabolic diseases Flashcards

1
Q

INT - 12.1
What is body mass index?
A) (body height – 100) + 10%
B) body height – 100
C) body weight (kg) divided by the square of body height expressed in meters
D) the body weight of the general population divided by that of the individual
E) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
C) body weight (kg) divided by the square of body height expressed in meters

EXPLANATION
Obesity is an important risk factor of diseases such as hypertension, diabetes or ischemic heart disease. Assessment of the degree of obesity, however, is difficult. Ideal body weight was determined and is given in a table based on data acquired from life insurance companies. Skinfold thickness measurement is complicated and requires a device. These days, the most often used and easily calculated value is the body mass index, the value of which displays good correlation with the diseases mentioned above. Non-obese muscular individuals, nevertheless, may be considered as being overweight based on their body mass index alone. People with low muscle mass, on the other hand, may display a normal body mass index despite their obesity.

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2
Q

INT - 12.3
Which categories may patient belong to, according the body mass index?
A) underweight – normal weight – overweight – obese – extreme obese
B) obese – thin
C) normal weight – abnormal weight
D) android obese – gynoid obese
E) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
A) underweight – normal weight – overweight – obese – extreme obese

EXPLANATION
Abdominal, android type obesity is a risk factor of ischemic heart disease. Gynoid type or proportional obesity does not carry such a risk. Body mass index alone cannot distinguish the different types.

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3
Q

INT - 12.4
Complications of extreme obesity include
A) sudden death, sleep apnea, daytime hypoventilation, somnolence, polycythemia, cor pulmonale
B) congestive heart failure
C) renal vein thrombosis
D) immobility that impedes daily activity
E) all of the listed

A

ANSWER
E) all of the listed

EXPLANATION
Extreme obesity (body mass index above 40) has severe medical and psychosocial complications, irrespective of the type of obesity. Extreme obesity associated with hypoventilation is called Pickwick syndrome.

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4
Q

INT - 12.5
Apart from binge eating, bulimia nervosa is characterized by…
A) consuming high-energy food which is easily absorbed
B) binge eating is followed by abdominal pain, sleep and purging by vomiting
C) repeated attempts to lose weight using severe caloric restrictions, self-induced vomiting, and laxative or diuretic abuse
D) body weight fluctuates by more than 4.5 kg
E) all of the listed

A

ANSWER
E) all of the listed

EXPLANATION
Bulimia nervosa is a psychiatric illness characterized by disturbed body image and abnormal eating habits. It is significantly more common in women (90% of all cases), and it typically starts in teens or in early adulthood. Family history of the patients often includes maniac-depressive psychosis. Major features of the disease include binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting, laxative- or diuretic-abuse and severe caloric restriction. Psychiatric treatment is necessary.

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5
Q

INT - 12.7
The normal daily protein requirement of a healthy adult is:
A) 100 g
B) 10 g/body weight kg
C) 1 g/body weight kg
D) 0.8 g/body weight kg
E) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
D) 0.8 g/body weight kg

EXPLANATION
Patients with chronic kidney disease or diabetes require lower protein intake than healthy humans. Increased protein intake is desired in febrile diseases, after trauma or burn injuries.

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6
Q

INT - 12.8
A patient suffering from hypertension and ischemic heart disease takes thiazide diuretics regularly. One day this patient wakes up with a swollen and extremely painful right knee. His skin is warm and red above the joint. After some shivering, he took his body temperature, which was 37.7°C. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A) deep venous thrombosis of the lower extremity
B) arterial embolisation of the lower extremity
C) acute gout attack
D) septic arthritis
E) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
C) acute gout attack

EXPLANATION
The most common cause of secondary gout is diuretic treatment (thiazides, furosemide, etacrin acid). These diuretics inhibit the tubular secretion of urate, paving the way for an acute gout attack

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7
Q

INT - 12.9
Secondary gout is most often caused by:
A) cytostatic treatment of a malignant tumor
B) diuretic treatment
C) large dose of acetylsalicylic acid
D) renal failure
E) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
B)
diuretic treatment
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.8.

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8
Q

INT - 12.10
Allopurinol (Milurit) was initiated to treat the hyperuricemia of a patient with gout. He is receiving 3x200mg daily, but hyperuricemia still persists. How would you decrease hyperuricemia further?
A) Urinary acidifiers should be used to prevent kidney stone formation.
B) 24-hour urine urate output should be measured, and a uricosuric medication should be started in case of a low value.
C) A non-steroid anti-inflammatory drug has to be given to relieve symptoms
D) Start colchicine treatment
E) Diuretics should be given to promote the excretion of uric acid.

A

ANSWER
B) 24-hour urine urate output should be measured, and a uricosuric medication should be started in case of a low value.

EXPLANATION
Treatment of hyperuricemia may require inhibition of urate synthesis (allopurinol) as well as promotion of urate excretion (probenecide, sulfinpyrazone, benzbromarone). Angiotensin-receptor blockers also have some uricosuric effect. If low urate excretion is observed despite high serum urate levels, uricosuric agents are suggested. Urate concentration can reach high values in the urine, therefore, alkalization is required to prevent urate stone formation. It must be noted, that a sudden change in serum urate levels (due to either allopurinol or an uricosuric drug) may provoke an acute gout attack. Therefore, starting treatment with low dose of the drugs is necessary, and the dose has to be titrated up gradually.

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9
Q

INT - 12.11
The most common cause of idiopathic, primary gout:
A) decreased renal elimination of uric acid
B) Lesch–Nyhan syndrome
C) urate overproduction of unknown origin
D) increased activity of the hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase enzyme
E) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
A) decreased renal elimination of uric acid

EXPLANATION
In primary gout, urate synthesis is increased in 10%, whereas urate excretion is decreased in 90% of the cases. Increased urate synthesis is caused by known (such as hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase) or unknown enzyme deficiencies. Decreases urate excretion may be due to decreased glomerular filtration, decreased tubular secretion, increased tubular reabsorption or their combination. The reason for such renal abnormalities is still mostly unknown. Recent studies revealed relationship between mutations in certain tubular anion and urate transporter genes and the degree of urinary urate excretion.

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10
Q

INT - 12.12
Urate crystal formation is promoted by:
A) decreased pH
B) decreased temperature
C) high urate level of the solution
D) all of the listed above
E) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
D) all of the listed above

EXPLANATION
In a hyperuricemic patient the most favorable conditions for urate precipitation are found in the peripheral joints of the lower extremities and in the kidneys.

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11
Q

INT - 12.13
The most important step in acute gout attack treatment:
A) 0.5mg colchicin administered hourly until symptoms resolve or gastrointestinal toxicity appears, or a large-dose non-steroid anti-inflammatory drug (such as 2x100 mg indomethacin or 2x550 mg naproxen)
B) large-dose allopurinol
C) large-dose uricosuric agent
D) low-dose acetylsalicylic acid
E) low-purine diet

A

ANSWER
A) 0.5mg colchicin administered hourly until symptoms resolve or gastrointestinal toxicity appears, or a large-dose non-steroid anti-inflammatory drug (such as 2x100 mg indomethacin or 2x550 mg naproxen)

EXPLANATION
Acute gout attack is caused by the phagocytosis of the precipitated, needle-shaped urate crystals, which then results in the destruction of the phagocyte membrane. Substances released from the destroyed phagocyte induce a severe inflammatory reaction. Colchicine reduces inflammation by inhibiting phagocytosis. Non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs act through a different pathway. Urate synthesis inhibiting allopurinol or uricosuric agents applied in large dose may promote inflammation and provoke an acute gout attack. Acetylsalicylic acid may increase hyperuricemia by inhibiting urate excretion, thus it may provoke or worsen an acute gout attack.

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12
Q

INT - 12.14
Differential diagnosis of an acute gout attack must include:
A) septic arthritis
B) reactive arthritis
C) traumatic arthritis
D) CPPD- (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate) arthropathy
E) all of the listed

A

ANSWER
E) all of the listed

EXPLANATION
In the disorders listed, asymmetrical mono- or oligoarthritis can be observed. In case of gout, characteristic, needle-shaped urate crystals can be identified under microscope. Using polarized light negative birefringence occurs. The spontaneous occurrence of septic arthritis is extremely rare in patients with normal immune function. In that population the puncture of a joint (iatrogenesis) results in septic arthritis. Fever is present both in acute gout and in septic arthritis. Medical history of patients with reactive arthritis usually includes certain infections (such as Yersinia enterocolitica O3), or serologic demonstration of the infection is feasible. CPPD crystals can be identified under polarized light in a microscope.

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13
Q

INT - 12.15
A potential cause of hypertriglyceridemia:

A) hyperchylomicronemia
B) VLDL-overproduction
C) decreased LPL-activity
D) alcohol consumption
E) all of the listed

A

ANSWER
E) all of the listed

EXPLANATION
Chylomicrons contain large amount of triglyceride, therefore, hyperchylomicronemia of any origin results in hypertriglyceridemia. Triglyceride levels have to be examined in sera taken after fasting for at least 12 hours. VLDL overproduction is typical of metabolic syndrome. Insulin activates lipoprotein lipase and the absolute lack of insulin in diabetic ketoacidosis results in decreased activity of the enzyme and profound hypertriglyceridemia. Enhanced hepatic VLDL production also contributes to hypertriglyceridemia in insulin deficiency. Alcohol influences enzymes of the lipid metabolism and raises triglyceride levels.

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14
Q

INT - 12.16
Apart from diet and alcohol abstinence, the treatment of hypertriglyceridemia may include:
A) nicotinic acid and its derivatives (such as acipimox)
B) fibrates
C) fish oil
D) drug combinations
E) all of the listed

A

ANSWER
E) all of the listed

EXPLANATION
Treatment of hypertriglyceridemia should always be initiated by alcohol abstinence and a low-calorie, low-fat diet. If desired goals are not achieved within some weeks, drug treatment can be initiated (fibrate, nicotinic acid and derivatives, fish oil capsules or statin in case of an associated hypercholesterolemia). Enhanced physical activity reduces triglyceride levels. Extreme hypertriglyceridemia (> 10 mmol/l) requires both dietary restrictions and drug treatment (fibrates) to prevent acute pancreatitis.

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15
Q

INT - 12.17
Apart from diet, the treatment of hypercholesterolemia may include:
A) inhibition of cholesterol absorption by ezetimibe (inhibitor of Niemann-Pick protein in the bowel mucosa)
B) bile acid sequestrant resins
C) statins
D) drug combinations
E) all of the listed

A

ANSWER
E) all of the listed

EXPLANATION
A diet containing low amount of cholesterol and saturated fat may reduce serum cholesterol level by 10%. If larger reduction is desired or the diet is ineffective, hydroxymethylglutaryl- CoA-synthase inhibitors (statins) or fibrates are suggested. Bile acid sequestrant resins cannot be applied in case of a concomitant hypertriglyceridemia. Instead of resins, ezetimibe, a drug that inhibits Niemann-Pick proteins in the bowel mucosa may be given. Nicotinic acid also reduces cholesterol levels, but it is not used in everyday clinical practice. Target lipid levels are determined by the degree of cardiovascular risk, and values are summarized in guidelines. In case of the heterozygous form of familial hypercholesterolemia, drug combination (statin + fibrate + ezetimibe) may be necessary. Homozygous form of familial hypercholesterolemia does not respond to dietary modifications and drug treatment. In this disorder, LDL-apheresis is required, and in severe cases, liver transplantation has to be considered.

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16
Q

INT - 12.18
Marfan-syndrome is characterized by:
A) connective tissue disorder of autosomal dominant inheritance
B) arachnodactyly
C) partial lens dislocation
D) potentially fatal aortic dissection
E) all of the listed

A

ANSWER
E) all of the listed

EXPLANATION
Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder that is characterized by the weakness of connective tissue. The molecular background of the disorder is still unknown.

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17
Q

INT - 12.19
Which of the disorders is characterized by dark discoloration of the sclera and the earlobes, darker urine, and accelerated arthrosis?
A) Wilson’s disease
B) porphyria
C) hemochromatosis
D) ochronosis
E) hepatolenticular degeneration

A

ANSWER
D) ochronosis

EXPLANATION
Ochronosis is a syndrome caused by the accumulation of homogentisic acid and its derivatives in connective tissues. It is caused by the disturbed catabolism of tyrosine (homogentisate oxidase defect, alkaptonuria). The disease results in early appearance of joint degeneration (arthrosis).

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18
Q

INT - 12.21
The following signs and symptoms appear in diabetes mellitus due to the renal threshold of glucose being exceeded:
A) polyuria
B) polydipsia
C) polyphagia
D) weight loss
E) all of the listed

A

ANSWER
E) all of the listed

EXPLANATION
The syndrome that characterizes diabetes mellitus is caused by hyperglycemia. Exceeding renal threshold for glucose results in glucosuria. Glucose is an osmotically active substance, therefore, it retains free water in the urine, causing polyuria and polydipsia. Loss of glucose via the urine means loss of energy, which makes the patient always hungry (polyphagia) and results in weight loss.

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19
Q

INT - 12.24
When does type 1 diabetes mellitus become manifest?
A) once 75% of pancreatic β-cells are lost
B) once 50% of pancreatic β-cells are lost
C) once 25% of pancreatic β-cells are lost
D) once all pancreatic β-cells are lost
E) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
A) once 75% of pancreatic β-cells are lost

EXPLANATION
In type 1 diabetes mellitus 4 stages can be distinguished. First stage represents genetic predisposition, which is related primarily to major histocompatibility complex (MHC). Carriers of HLA B8, B15, DR3, DR4 and DQ-beta 0302 histocompatibility antigens are more prone to diabetes. Carriers of of HLA DR2 or DQ-beta 0602, on the other hand, display genetic resistance. Second stage represents the influence of a trigger factor. Viral infection (Coxsackie virus), early introduction of cow milk into an infant’s dies (beta-casein) and other, still unknown factors may act as triggers. Third stage is characterized by immunologic abnormalities. In this stage, autoimmune reactions targeting β-cells of the pancreas result in a gradual decline in the number of functioning cells, and abnormal carbohydrate metabolism may be observed. When at least 75% of all β-cells is damaged, absolute insulin deficiency sets in and diabetes becomes manifest.

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20
Q

INT - 12.25
What does Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults (LADA) mean?
A) a latent disorder of the carbohydrate metabolism in adults, which does not manifest as diabetes
B) a disorder the clinical picture of which starts as a non-insulin dependent diabetes, and which becomes later insulin dependent owing to the islet cell damage of autoimmune origin
C) a slowly developing diabetes in adults
D) a slowly developing type 2 diabetes
E) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
B) a disorder the clinical picture of which starts as a non-insulin dependent diabetes, and which becomes later insulin dependent owing to the islet cell damage of autoimmune origin

EXPLANATION
In childhood diabetes the stage of immunologic abnormalities is shorter, whereas in adulthood it may last for a longer period, even for many years. In the meantime disturbed carbohydrate metabolism may reach the level of diabetes mellitus, without making the patient insulin dependent, mimicking type 2 diabetes mellitus. Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) indicate the autoimmune process. Eventually, the patient becomes insulin dependent. This disorder is called latent autoimmune diabetes in adults.

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21
Q

INT - 12.27
Predicting type 1 diabetes mellitus would require the analysis of the following factors:
A) genetic factors (primarily identifying MHC genes that make someone resistant to diabetes)
B) immunologic abnormalities (mainly islet-cell antibodies (ICA), antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD), ICA 512)
C) first-phase insulin secretion during iv. glucose load
D) all of the listed
E) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
D) all of the listed

EXPLANATION
The first steps in predicting type 1 diabetes include the investigation of immunologic abnormalities that target islet cells, such as antibodies against islet cell cytoplasm, glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD), tyrosin phosphatase (IA2, ICA 512) or insulin. Then, genetic predisposition or resistance can be studied. Finally, carbohydrate metabolism is assessed by intravenous, frequently sampled glucose tolerance test. This test may identify the loss of first phase insulin secretion. There is a significant chance of becoming diabetic in a short time, if various autoantibodies are detected, diabetes-susceptible HLA-antigens are present, resistance HLA epitopes are absent and the first phase of insulin secretion lacks.

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22
Q

INT - 12.28
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by:
A) high plasma glucose and insulin levels

B) impaired pancreatic β-cell function, lack of first phase insulin secretion, and increased and prolonged second phase insulin release

C) insulin cannot properly increase the glucose uptake of skeletal muscle cells and decrease the hepatic glucose production

D) insulin cannot increase hepatic glucose uptake

E) all of the listed

A

ANSWER
E)
all of the listed
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.32.

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23
Q

INT - 12.29
Aims of oral antidiabetic therapy in type 2 diabetes mellitus, except:
A) increase in insulin sensitivity (metformin)
B) increase in insulin secretion (GLP1 effect promoters, sulfonylureas)
C) increase in peripheral glucose use (metformin, insulin)
D) retardation of carbohydrate absorption (α-glucosidase inhibitors), promotion of glucose elimination through the kidneys (SGLT2-inhibitors)
E) inhibition of carbohydrate absorption (α-glucosidase inhibitors)

A

ANSWER
E) inhibition of carbohydrate absorption (α-glucosidase inhibitors)

EXPLANATION
The following oral antidiabetic agents are available currently. Sulfonylureas increase the insulin secretion of β-cells, and they may cause hypoglycemia. Metformin (a biguanide derivative) decreases appetite and enhances glucose uptake by peripheral tissues, without causing hypoglycemia. α-glucosidase inhibitors retard the digestion and absorption of complex carbohydrates and decrease hyperglycemia after meals. They do not cause hypoglycemia, and they do not inhibit the absorption of carbohydrates, only retard it! Glitasones are agonists of the peroxysome proliferator-activated receptor, which decrease insulin resistance, but currently available agents (pioglitazone) may have severe side effects. In the recent years, drugs that enhance glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) effect became available, these drugs modify insulin and glucagon secretion according to the blood glucose level without increasing the risk of hypoglycemia. Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 (DPP4) inhibitors and GLP1 agonists belong to this group of drugs. The newest drugs are the SGLT2-inhibitors, which inhibit glucose transporters in the renal tubuli. They inhibit the reabsorption of glucose from the ultrafiltrate, promote urinary glucose excretion, and decrease blood glucose levels.

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24
Q

INT - 12.30
Which is the first step in providing an optimal diet for a diabetic individual?
A) determine energy need
B) determine lipid need
C) determine protein need
D) determine vitamin need
E) determine carbohydrate need

A

ANSWER
A) determine energy need

EXPLANATION
Setting up an optimal diet for a diabetic individual should start with the determination of energy requirements. Calorie need depend on physical activity, height and current body weight. Once it is set, the distribution of the main nutrients has to be prescribed. 50-60% of the total energy should come from carbohydrates, 10-20% from proteins and 20-30% from lipids. At least 2/3 of lipids should be unsaturated fat. Finally, carbohydrate has to be distributed between meals.

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25
Q

INT - 12.31
How energy intake should be distributed between nutrients in the optimal diet for a diabetic individual?
A) 50-60% carbohydrates, 10-20% proteins and 20-30% lipids (with less than 1/3 saturated fat)
B) 40% carbohydrates, 30% proteins, 30% lipids
C) 30% carbohydrates, 30% proteins, 40% lipids
D) 20% carbohydrates, 30% proteins, 50% lipids
E) 10% carbohydrates, 30% proteins, 60% lipids

A

ANSWER
A) 50-60% carbohydrates, 10-20% proteins and 20-30% lipids (with less than 1/3 saturated fat)

EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.30.

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26
Q

INT - 12.32
Which is the optimal approach to start treating type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A) Start with and adhere to a diet that has optimal distribution of nutrients and provides adequate energy intake, increase physical activity and take metformin. In case of suboptimal carbohydrate metabolism, drugs that promote GLP1 effects, sulfonylureas, drugs that retard carbohydrate absorption, drugs that promote renal elimination of glucose or insulin can be added to the therapy.
B) Start with appropriate diet and intensive conservative insulin treatment
C) Start with appropriate diet and sulfonylurea in maximal dose, then, in case of suboptimal carbohydrate metabolism, add biguanide in maximal dose, and lastly, switch quickly to insulin
D) Start with the combination of appropriate diet, oral antidiabetic agents and insulin
E) Start with appropriate diet and low-dose sulfonylurea, then apply maximal dose sulfonylurea, then maximal dose biguanide, and lastly, a long-acting insulin once a day.

A

ANSWER
A) Start with and adhere to a diet that has optimal distribution of nutrients and provides adequate energy intake, increase physical activity and take metformin. In case of suboptimal carbohydrate metabolism, drugs that promote GLP1 effects, sulfonylureas, drugs that retard carbohydrate absorption, drugs that promote renal elimination of glucose or insulin can be added to the therapy.

EXPLANATION
The main feature of type 2 diabetes mellitus is insulin resistance: insulin is present in the plasma, but it has no adequate effect, therefore, hyperglycemia occurs. Insulin secretion is also disturbed, the first phase is absent whereas the second phase is high and retarded. Insulin resistance manifests as an inadequate decrease in hepatic glucose production and as an impaired hepatic and muscular glucose uptake. Most (90%) of the patients are obese. Insulin resistance is ameliorated by weight loss and physical activity, therefore calorie restriction and exercise represent the first steps of therapy (lifestyle modification). Due to the lack of first phase insulin secretion, rapidly absorbed carbohydrates induce profound prandial hyperglycemia. Such carbohydrates should be avoided in the diet. Metformin therapy may be initiated together with dietary modifications. Therapy should be intensified when fasting glucose or HbA1c are higher than desired despite dietary adherence and regular exercise. Then, therapy may include DPP4-inhibitors, GLP1-agonists, sulfonylureas, α-glucosidase inhibitors, SGLT2 inhibitors or insulin.

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27
Q

INT - 12.33
How large is the daily insulin secretion of a healthy adult?
A) 20–40 U
B) 10–20 U
C) 40–60 U
D) over 100 U

A

ANSWER
A) 20–40 U

EXPLANATION
The average daily insulin secretion of a healthy adult is 20-40 U. Endogenous insulin is produced by β-cells and secreted to the portal circulation from which it reaches the liver. 50% of all insulin is bound by the liver and exerts its effects, whereas the remaining 50% reaches peripheral tissues. Exogenous insulin treatment provides a completely different route. From the subcutaneous tissues insulin reaches the pulmonary and the systemic circulation, and then it reaches the liver through the hepatic artery. This results in peripheral hyperinsulinism and hepatic hypoinsulinism. As compared to the physiologic secretion, larger doses of insulin are required to achieve adequate insulin effect. Exogenous insulin need may be smaller if the patient still has endogenous insulin secretion.

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28
Q

INT - 12.34
What is the distribution of prandial and basal insulin need?
A) 60% prandial, 40% basal
B) 40% prandial, 60% basal
C) 50% prandial, 50% basal
D) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
A) 60% prandial, 40% basal

EXPLANATION
In healthy individuals insulin secretion is composed of two parts: basal secretion between meals and during the night and prandial secretion after meals. Prandial secretion can be divided to a very rapid and large first phase and a slower and smaller second phase. Basal insulin secretion is responsible for 40%, whereas prandial secretion for the 60% of all insulin secretion. During intensive conservative insulin treatment, administration of short-acting insulin before meals compensates prandial insulin secretion, whereas bedtime intermediate-acting insulin substitutes nighttime basal insulin secretion. Basal insulin secretion between meals derives from the rather prolonged absorption of short-acting insulin. It must be noted, that due to the insulin resistance in the morning hours, morning insulin need is the largest.

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29
Q

INT - 12.35
What does the term “intensive conservative insulin treatment” stand for?
A) basal insulin need is supplemented by intermediate-acting insulin once or twice a day or by ultra-long-acting insulin analogue, whereas prandial need is covered by short-acting insulin or by ultra-short-acting insulin analogue administered before meals
B) measurement of blood glucose hourly and adjusting short-acting insulin dose accordingly
C) administration of short-acting insulin every 6 hours (starting from 8:00 AM) in the ratio of 4:2:3:1
D) intravenous insulin treatment

A

ANSWER
A) basal insulin need is supplemented by intermediate-acting insulin once or twice a day or by ultra-long-acting insulin analogue, whereas prandial need is covered by short-acting insulin or by ultra-short-acting insulin analogue administered before meals

EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.34.

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30
Q

INT - 12.36
What are the principal aims of the treatment in diabetic ketoacidosis?
A) administration of insulin because of absolute insulin deficiency
B) infusion of physiologic saline because of the absolute water and electrolyte deficiency
C) potassium supplementation because of potassium deficiency
D) glucose administration to replenish glycogene stores
E) all of the listed

A

ANSWER
E) all of the listed

EXPLANATION
The reason for diabetic ketoacidosis is absolute insulin deficiency. Hyperglycemia causes glycosuria, and the osmotically active glucose retains water and electrolytes in the urine, providing absolute water and electrolyte deficiencies. In case of insulin deficiency, glycogen stores are depleted, resulting in potassium loss, therefore, absolute deficiency of potassium develops besides absolute cellular glucose deficiency. Treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis aims at the replenishment of the substances depleted.

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31
Q

INT - 12.37
How should be administered insulin in diabetic ketoacidosis?
A) intravenously
B) intramuscularly
C) subcutaneously
D) intraportally

A

ANSWER
A) intravenously

EXPLANATION
Due to poor peripheral circulation, treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis has to be performed using intravenous insulin

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32
Q

INT - 12.38
Characteristic feature(s) of hypoglycemia:
A) symptoms appear rapidly
B) initially sympathetic hyperactivity, then cerebral dysfunction appears
C) skin turgor is normal
D) blood pressure is not decreased
E) all of the listed

A

ANSWER
E) all of the listed

EXPLANATION
Aiming at normoglycemia during the treatment of diabetes often results in mild or occasionally more severe hypoglycemia. Patients have to be educated about the signs and symptoms of mild hypoglycemia (symptoms of sympathetic hyperactivity such as agitation, tremor, tachycardia, hunger etc.) and the appropriate intervention, the consumption of simple of complex carbohydrate. Overcompensation of hypoglycemia is unwanted. In case of cerebral dysfunction (inappropriate acts or coma) external help is needed. Glucagon can be administered from a prefilled syringe by laymen, then iv. glucose can be given by medical personnel. Hypoglycemia may also appear during sleep (unnoticed nighttime hypoglycemia); this may result in morning hyperglycemia (Somogyi effect) as well as other symptoms. Somogyi effect may be elicited by hypoglycemia occurring any time. Repeated hypoglycemic episodes result in cerebral damage.

33
Q

INT - 12.39
When do you think of an unnoticed nighttime hypoglycemia?
A) the patient wakes up with a headache
B) the patient complains about nightmares
C) the patient complains about night sweats
D) normal nighttime breathing becomes disturbed and snoring appears
E) all of the listed above
F) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
E)
all of the listed above
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.38.

34
Q

INT - 12.40
What kind of insulin treatment can be applied in type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) intensive conservative treatment
B) premix insulin applied twice a day, before breakfast and dinner
C) short- and intermediate-acting insulin applied twice a day, before breakfast and dinner
D) three times daily insulin: premix insulin before breakfast and dinner and short-acting insulin before lunch
E) any of the listed above
F) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
A)
intensive conservative treatment

35
Q

INT - 12.42
Which of the following drives the bedtime insulin dose in a patient with type 2 diabetes?
A) morning fasting blood glucose level
B) blood glucose level before dinner
C) blood glucose level after dinner
D) the amount of carbohydrate consumed for dinner
E) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
A) morning fasting blood glucose level

EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.41

36
Q

INT - 12.43
An alcoholic and diabetic patient develops hypoglycemia. Select the treatment which is not suggested!
A) oral glucose
B) intravenous glucose
C) glucagon
D) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
C) glucagon

EXPLANATION
Alcohol influences the activity of various enzymes, therefore, alcoholics tend to have depleted hepatic and muscular glycogen stores. Glucagon enhances glycogenolysis and glyconeogenesis in the liver.

37
Q

INT - 12.44
A patient taking α-glucosidase inhibitor develops hypoglycemia. Select the treatment which is not suggested!
A) oral glucose
B) intravenous glucose
C) sugar cubes, coffee sugar, granulated sugar, food containing complex carbohydrates
D) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
C) sugar cubes, coffee sugar, granulated sugar, food containing complex carbohydrates

EXPLANATION
The digestion of polysaccharides is impeded by α-glucosidase enzyme inhibitors, and remains incomplete. They are not degraded into absorbable glucose.

38
Q

INT - 12.45
How many units (U) of insulin can be found in one ml of an insulin vial (distributed in Hungary)?
A) 100 U
B) 50 (U)
C) 40 (U)
D) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
C) 40 (U)

EXPLANATION
Insulin is available in two containers: vials and penfills. Vials, from which insulin can be removed by syringes, contain 40 U of insulin in each ml, whereas penfills contain 100 U/ml. The volume of a single vial and a penfill is 10 ml and 3 ml, respectively. In case of a failed pen, removal of insulin from the penfill by a syringe and administering this insulin similarly to the one from a vial is strictly forbidden, as such maneuver may result is severe overdose.

39
Q

NT - 12.46
How many units (U) of insulin can be found in one ml of an insulin penfill (distributed in Hungary)?
A) 100 U
B) 50 U
C) 40 U
D) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
A)
100 U
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.45.

40
Q

INT - 12.47
What is gestational diabetes?
A) diabetes that develops during pregnancy and ceases after delivery
B) type 1 diabetes that develops during pregnancy
C) type 2 diabetes that develops during pregnancy
D) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
A) diabetes that develops during pregnancy and ceases after delivery

EXPLANATION
Gestational diabetes has to be reevaluated after delivery. In patients with previous gestational diabetes, type 2 diabetes is more common as compared to the general population. It is also feasible, that patients in whom gestational diabetes is diagnosed are in the third phase of type 1 diabetes development (immunological abnormalities), and diabetes is triggered by the increased insulin need during pregnancy. After delivery carbohydrate metabolism may become temporarily or permanently normal. MODY, MIDD and LADA may also manifest as gestational diabetes.

41
Q

NT - 12.48
Which is the antihypertensive drug of first choice in a hypertensive and diabetic individual?
A) β-blocker
B) ACE-inhibitor
C) calcium channel blocker
D) α-receptor inhibitor
E) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
B) ACE-inhibitor

EXPLANATION
The administration of ACE-inhibitors and decreased protein intake (< 0.5 g/body weight kg/day) both retard the development of diabetic nephropathy.

42
Q

INT - 12.49
First-degree relatives of patients with type 1 diabetes of autoimmune origin more often suffer from the following disorders as compared to the general population
A) autoimmune thyroid disorders
B) pernicious anemia
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) Addison’s disease
E) all of the listed

A

ANSWER
E) all of the listed

EXPLANATION
Organ-specific and systemic autoimmune disorders are more prevalent in patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus as well as in their relatives, probably owing to a common immunogenic background.

43
Q

INT - 12.52
Pathogenesis of type 2 diabetes mellitus includes:
1) genetic factors
2) environmental factors (obesity, too high calorie, carbohydrate and lipid intake, and too low fiber intake)
3) advancing age
4) autoimmune processes
5) climatic factors
A) answers 1,2 and 3 are correct
B) all of the answers are correct
C) none of the answers is correct
D) answers 4 and 5 are correct
E) answers 3,4 and 5 are correct

A

ANSWER
A) answers 1,2 and 3 are correct

EXPLANATION
Concordance of type 2 diabetes in monozygotic twins approximates 100%. This implies the importance of genetic factors, still unknown yet. Significant relationships were found between type 2 diabetes and sugar consumption (in case of war or economic recession diabetes incidence decreases), low-fiber diet (introduction of whole grain flour in England decreased diabetes incidence), increased calorie intake (especially calories from lipids), obesity, and aging (above 40 years of age, diabetes incidence increases significantly).

44
Q

INT - 12.53
Select the correct statistical data about type 2 diabetes mellitus!
1) 75% of all diabetic individuals have type 2 diabetes
2) most type 2 diabetic patients are > 60 years old
3) 2/3 of the patients affected are overweight or obese
4) 40% of the patients have positive family history as regards diabetes mellitus
5) the male-to-female ratio is 3:2
A) answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) all answers are correct
C) none of the answers is correct
D) answers 1, 3 and 5 are correct
E) answers 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

A

ANSWER
B)
all answers are correct
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.52.

45
Q

INT - 12.54
Type 2 diabetes can be discovered:
1) based on signs and symptoms of diabetes (53%)
2) as an accidental finding (29%)
3) in the background of an infection (16%)
4) in the background of a diabetic complication (2%)
5) during screening
A) answers 1,4 and 5 are correct
B) all answers are correct
C) none of the answers is correct
D) answers 1, 3 and 4 are correct
E) answers 2 and 5 are correct

A

ANSWER
B) all answers are correct

EXPLANATION
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is often diagnosed in asymptomatic individuals. As early treatment delays the development of complications, groups at risk have to be screened for diabetes. Current guidelines recommend the measurement of fasting glucose levels or random glucose levels as the initial step in screening. Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) has to be performed only in case of ambiguous results and the 120-minutes value of OGTT has to be considered. Diagnostic criteria are as follows: fasting (after at least 8 hours of fasting) glucose > 7.0 mmol/l or 120-min OGTT glucose > 11.1 mmol/l denote diabetes mellitus. Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is characterized by a fasting glucose level between 6.1 and 6.99 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is diagnosed if 120-min OGTT glucose level is between 7.8 and 11.1 mmol/l. Individuals at high risk for diabetes include the obese, the hypertensive, the atherosclerotic, first-degree relatives of diabetic patients, patients with gout, hyperuricemia, or hyperlipidemia, and people over 45 years.

46
Q

INT - 12.55
Select the correct statements about the screening of type 2 diabetes mellitus!
1) population at risk is worth screening
2) when applied for screening, sensitivity of postprandial glycosuria varies between 16-64%
3) measurement of HgbA1 or fructosamine (glycated proteins) is too expensive
4) the well-performed oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is the gold standard method
5) population at risk has to be screened every third year, while others have to be screened every fifth year
A) answers 1, 3 and 5 are correctB)
all answers are correct
C) none of the answers is correct
D) answers 2 and 4 are correct
E) answers 3, 4 and 5 are correct

A

ANSWER
B)
all answers are correct
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.54.

47
Q

INT - 12.56
The appropriate execution of oral glucose tolerance test necessitates the following:
1) at least 150 g carbohydrates has to be consumed for 3 days before the test
2) the last meal before the morning test should be consumed not later than 8 PM; water can be consumed ad-libitum
3) the patient should not be under hormonal treatment, should be afebrile and stressors have to be minimized.
4) 75 g glucose dissolved in 3 dl water has to be consumed in 5 minutes
5) blood has to be drawn every 30 minutes for 2 hours
A) answers 1, 3 and 5 are correct
B) all answers are correct
C) none of the answers is correct
D) answers 2 and 4 are correct
E) answers 3, 4 and 5 are correct

A

ANSWER
B) all answers are correct

EXPLANATION
The standardized, oral glucose tolerance test provides the avoidance of a false diagnosis. Execution of OGTT, however, has to be justified. See also question BGY-12.54

48
Q

NT - 12.57
People at risk for type 2 diabetes include:
1) the obese
2) the hypertensive
3) people with positive family history of type 2 diabetes
4) patients with gout, hyperuricemia or hyperlipoproteinemia
5) patients with vascular disease (peripheral, cerebrovascular or cardiovascular)
A) answers 1, 3 and 5 are correct
B) all answers are correct
C) none of the answers is correctD)
answers 2 and 4 are correct
E) answers 3, 4 and 5 are correct

A

ANSWER
B) all answers are correct
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.54.

49
Q

INT-12.58-12.62
Associate parameters with their definitions!
A) waist to hip ratio > 1.0 in men or > 0.8 in women in obese individuals
B) waist to hip ratio < 1.0 in men or < 0.8 in women in obese individuals
C) body mass index over 40
D) body mass index between 30 and 40
E) body mass index between 25 and 30

INT - 12.58 - extreme obesity
INT - 12.59 - obesity
INT - 12.60 - android obesity
INT - 12.61 - gynoid obesity
INT - 12.62 - being overweight

A

ANSWER
INT - 12.58 - extreme obesity- C)

INT - 12.59 - obesity- D)

INT - 12.60 - android obesity- A)

INT - 12.61 - gynoid obesity- B)

INT - 12.62 - being overweight- E)

50
Q

INT-12.63-12.67
Associate the disorder with a characteristic substance!
A) Wilson’s disease
B) hemochromatosis
C) porphyria
D) Hartnup disease
E) von Gierke disease
INT - 12.63 - neutral amino acids
INT - 12.64 - hem
INT - 12.65 - copper
INT - 12.66 - glycogen
INT - 12.67 - iron

A

ANSWER
INT - 12.63 - neutral amino acids- D)

INT - 12.64 - hem- C)

INT - 12.65 - copper- A)

INT - 12.66 - glycogen- E)

INT - 12.67 - iron- B)

51
Q

INT - 12.69
Insulin is the activator of LPL, therefore, insulin deficiency (such as diabetic ketoacidosis) may result in profound hypertriglyceridemia.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.15.

52
Q

INT - 12.70
Diabetic patients may experience temporary blurred vision, because hyperglycemia results in the swelling of the lens.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them

EXPLANATION
Hyperglycemia has osmotic effect, which causes the swelling of the lens and the error of refraction.

53
Q

INT - 12.71
Hyperglycemia always derives from insulin deficiency, because in diabetes β-cells do not produce insulin.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

EXPLANATION
Diabetes mellitus is a syndrome of heterogeneous origin. It may be associated with a complete lack of insulin (type 1 diabetes) or higher than normal insulin levels and insulin resistance (type 2 diabetes). Common diagnostic feature is hyperglycemia.

54
Q

INT - 12.72
The prevalence of type 1 diabetes decreases from north to south in Europe, therefore, prevalence in Hungary is the average of the extremes.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.23.

55
Q

INT - 12.73
Autoimmune processes resulting in type 1 diabetes mellitus may persist for years, therefore, it is feasible to intervene and delay the complete damage of beta cells in early stage of the disease.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
See questions BGY-12.24., 12.25. and 12.51.

56
Q

INT - 12.74
Appearance of islet-cell antibodies (ICA) and/or glutamic acid decarboxylase antibodies (GAD) is a marker of β-cell damage, therefore, patients positive for islet-cell antibodies always become diabetic.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false

EXPLANATION
Not every individual positive for islet-cell antibodies (ICA, GAD, anti-IA2, anti-insulin) becomes diabetic, antibodies may disappear from circulation. Thus, the presence of autoantibodies alone is not always predictive to future diabetes. Pancreatitis due to mumps virus infection may also be associated with transient ICA positivity, which disappears without the development of diabetes. It must be noted, that antibody positivity is a marker and not the cause of islet cell damage!

57
Q

INT - 12.75
Type 1 diabetes is also called juvenile diabetes mellitus, therefore, every diabetes that manifests in older age is a type 2, non-insulin dependent diabetes.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false

EXPLANATION
Type 1 diabetes of autoimmune origin may appear at any age. See also question BGY-12.26.!

58
Q

INT - 12.77
In type 1 diabetes insulin secretion is completely absent, therefore, the aim of the treatment is insulin replacement.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.34.

59
Q

INT - 12.78
In type 1 diabetes insulin is administered into the peripheral tissues, not intraportally as it was physiological, therefore, peripheral hyperinsulinism and hepatic hypoinsulinism is achieved.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.33.

60
Q

INT - 12.79
In type 1 diabetes it is not possible to imitate physiologic insulin secretion using exogenous insulin, therefore, strict dietary regulations have to be applied to adjust diet to the non-physiologic insulin absorption.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.33. and 12.34.

61
Q

INT - 12.81
Food containing large amount of non-absorbable fibers is advantageous in diabetes, because fiber content retard the absorption other carbohydrates.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
Consumption of much low-fiber, refined food is considered to be contribute to the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus.

62
Q

INT - 12.82
Retarding the absorption of carbohydrates is beneficial in both forms of diabetes, because in type 2 diabetes first-phase insulin secretion is absent, whereas in type 1 diabetes exogenous insulin concentrations rise too slowly and their fall is prolonged.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
See questions BGY-12.32., 12.33. and 12.34.

63
Q

INT - 12.83
Diabetic individuals must avoid alcohol consumption, because alcohol shifts the metabolism towards ketosis, increases the risk of lactic acidosis in case of biguanide treatment and worsens the adaptation to hypoglycemia.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
Alcohol influences the activity of many enzymes participating in lipid and carbohydrate metabolism. Its effect is unpredictable, but also disadvantageous in diabetic patients.

64
Q

NT - 12.86
Type 1 diabetic patients with high blood glucose levels should avoid physical exercise, because exercise shifts the increased metabolism towards ketosis in case of insulin deficiency.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
Increasing physical activity in type 2 diabetes mellitus decreases blood glucose via decreasing insulin resistance and also helps the patient reach the optimal body weight. In type 1 diabetes changes in physical activity necessitate some planning. Either the dose of insulin should be decreased before a planned exercise regime, or carbohydrate consumption should be elevated in order to prevent hypoglycemia. The optimal time of exercise is the afternoon for such individuals in whom relative insulin resistance – a so-called afternoon down phenomenon – occurs that time. In case of insulin deficiency, however, exercise alone does not decrease blood glucose levels, but shifts the metabolism towards ketosis.

65
Q

INT - 12.87
High blood glucose levels in a type 2 diabetic patient can be decreased by physical exercise, because physical exercise decreases insulin resistance.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.86.

66
Q

INT - 12.88
Secondary prevention of myocardial infarction includes the treatment of hypercholesterolemia, because hypercholesterolemic patients tend to have a more severe coronary arteriosclerosis.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
Hypercholesterolemia and elevated LDL cholesterol levels are independent risk factors of ischemic heart disease. Lipid-lowering therapy is necessary. See also question BGY-12.17.

67
Q

INT - 12.89
Measurement of HgbA1-levels is sufficient four times yearly, when it is used to assess carbohydrate metabolism in a diabetic patient, because the average lifespan of red blood cells in the circulation is approx. 120 days.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
Non-enzymatic glycation of hemoglobin is proportional with the lifespan of red blood cells and blood glucose level. In case of normal erythrocyte lifespan, it informs us about the average blood glucose level of the previous 1-2 months, and it shows the strongest correlation with fasting blood glucose. This parameter is used to follow and check the adequacy of the treatment in diabetic individuals.

68
Q

INT - 12.90
Hypertensive patients should be screened for diabetes, because hypertension often causes diabetes.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
EXPLANATION
Parallel occurrence of phenomena do not necessarily implies a causative relationship between them. Some data, however, suggest that hyperinsulinemia observed in type 2 diabetes mellitus may cause hypertension via variable mechanisms.

69
Q

INT - 12.91
Hypertension often develops in type 2 diabetic individuals, because hyperinsulinemia may cause hypertension via multiple mechanisms.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.90.

70
Q

INT - 12.92
Diabetic individuals often suffer from a “silent” myocardial infarction, because diabetes may cause autonomic neuropathy.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them

71
Q

INT - 12.93
Diabetic individuals often display sinus tachycardia at rest, because one of the chronic complications of diabetes is autonomic neuropathy.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
Diabetic neuropathy may manifest as the loss of cardiovascular reflexes. Neuropathy involving the vagal nerve causes tachycardia at rest.

72
Q

INT - 12.94
In diabetic individuals, trophic ulcers typically develop over the heels, the proximal interphalangeal joint of a hammertoe, the sole or on the dorsum of the foot, because diabetic trophic ulcers usually appear at the site of pressure.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.50.

73
Q

INT - 12.95
In diabetic patients Charcot joint may develop, because diabetic neuropathy is one of the chronic complications of diabetes mellitus.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
Charcot joint, a severe joint destruction is caused by the overexertion of the joint due to the lack of pain sensation ant the associated trophic disorder.

74
Q

INT - 12.96
Physical exercise increases insulin effect via decreasing insulin resistance, therefore, increasing physical activity in type 2 diabetes represents causative treatment.
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
B) the statement and the explanation are both correct, without any causative relationship between them
C) the statement is correct but the explanation is false
D) the statement is false but the explanation in itself is correct
E) the statement and the explanation are both false

A

ANSWER
A) the statement and the explanation are both correct, and there is causative relationship between them
EXPLANATION
See question BGY-12.86.

75
Q

INT - 12.97
Which disorders should the differential diagnosis include?
A middle-aged patient had participated in a pigsticking before Christmas, he had been eating a lot of meat and offal and he had drunk some wine. Some days later he became febrile, and he was having right-sided lower abdominal pain for some days. Abdominal pain vanished spontaneously, but after a week, he noticed subfebrility, or fever on some occasions, and his left knee became swollen, painful and red. Similar symptoms appeared in the left ankle, and he was hardly able to walk. Examination of the joints revealed fluid accumulation in the joint space, whereas laboratory investigations suggested inflammation (high ESR, leukocytosis, left shift of WBCs).
1) acute gout attack
2) reactive arthritis (induced by Yersinia enterocolitica)
3) septic arthritis
4) rheumatoid arthritis
5) Bechterew’s disease
A) answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) answers 1, 4 and 5 are correct
C) answers 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D) all answers are correct
E) none of the answers is correct

A

ANSWER
A) answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
EXPLANATION
In this case description the patient has fever and asymmetrical oligo-arthritis. Past medical history (consumption of large amount of meat, offal and some alcohol) suggests acute gout attack. The consumption of potentially undercooked pork meat, the abdominal pain and the time course of the symptoms, however, may indicate Yersinia enterocolitica O3 infection and consequent oligo-arthritis. Yersinia enterocolitica often contaminates pork meat, and it can reproduce well in the cold. Acute gout attach should resolve spontaneously within some weeks. The least probable cause of the disorder is septic arthritis, as it is very uncommon in patients who are not immunocompromised and who do not suffer any injury. Final diagnosis is based on the investigation of synovial fluid from the knee (that excluded septic arthritis and crystal-induced arthritis) and the Yersinia enterocolitica O3 seropositivity.

76
Q

INT - 12.98
Which complementary investigations have to be performed?
A middle-aged patient had participated in a pigsticking before Christmas, he had been eating a lot of meat and offal and he had drunk some wine. Some days later he became febrile, and he was having right-sided lower abdominal pain for some days. Abdominal pain vanished spontaneously, but after a week, he noticed subfebrility, or fever on some occasions, and his left knee became swollen, painful and red. Similar symptoms appeared in the left ankle, and he was hardly able to walk. Examination of the joints revealed fluid accumulation in the joint space, whereas laboratory investigations suggested inflammation (high ESR, leukocytosis, left shift of WBCs).
1) investigation of the synovial fluid from the knee to detect urate crystals
2) culture of the synovial fluid from the knee
3) a smear of the synovial fluid sediment and investigation of cellular elements and screening for the presence of bacteria using Gram stain
4) serologic investigation of Yersinia enterocolitica
5) measurement of serum urate levels
A) all answers are correct
B) answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C) only answer 4 is correct
D) only answer 5 is correct
E) none of the answers is correct

A

ANSWER
A) all answers are correct
EXPLANATION
In this case description the patient has fever and asymmetrical oligo-arthritis. Past medical history (consumption of large amount of meat, offal and some alcohol) suggests acute gout attack. The consumption of potentially undercooked pork meat, the abdominal pain and the time course of the symptoms, however, may indicate Yersinia enterocolitica O3 infection and consequent oligo-arthritis. Yersinia enterocolitica often contaminates pork meat, and it can reproduce well in the cold. Acute gout attach should resolve spontaneously within some weeks. The least probable cause of the disorder is septic arthritis, as it is very uncommon in patients who are not immunocompromised and who do not suffer any injury. Final diagnosis is based on the investigation of synovial fluid from the knee (that excluded septic arthritis and crystal-induced arthritis) and the Yersinia enterocolitica O3 seropositivity.

77
Q

INT - 12.6
Anorexia nervosa is characterized by the following:
A) fear from gaining weight despite actual weight loss
B) disturbed body image
C) at least 25% loss of original body weight and rejection of reaching normal weight
D) exclusion of other potential reasons of weight loss
E) all of the listed

A

ANSWER
E) all of the listed

EXPLANATION
Anorexia and bulimia nervosa belong to the same group of eating disorders. Anorexia nervosa is also more common in women. Psychiatric analysis reveals a depressive disorder in almost half of the cases. Psychiatric treatment is necessary.

78
Q

INT - 12.23
The prevalence of type 1 (insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus in the general population:
A) 2%
B) 10%
C) 0.2%
D) 0.02%
E) 1%

A

ANSWER
C) 0.2%

EXPLANATION
The prevalence of type 1 diabetes mellitus varies according to geographical regions. There is a decrease in prevalence from north to south, with some exceptions (such as Sardinia). Type 1 diabetes is more prevalent in Sweden (1.9%) than in Albania (0.11%). World average is 0.2%. The prevalence of type 2 diabetes is 1.75% worldwide, also with significant regional variability (4.68% in North America and 1.4% in Asia)

79
Q

INT - 12.41
What kind of insulin treatment can be applied in type 2 diabetes mellitus if a patient requires insulin?
A) intensive conservative treatment
B) bedtime insulin treatment (insulin applied before going to bed) and sulfonylurea
C) twice daily insulin treatment using premix insulin
D) three times daily insulin: premix insulin before breakfast and dinner and short-acting insulin before lunch
E) any of the listed above
F) none of the listed

A

ANSWER
E) any of the listed above

EXPLANATION
During the course of type 2 diabetes mellitus complete insulin deficiency may develop, which requires insulin administration. As first phase insulin secretion may be absent in type 2 diabetes as well, patients may need ultra-short-acting insulin analogues before meals, whereas basal insulin need is covered by endogenous insulin production. The opposite method is the administration of bedtime intermediate-acting insulin to supplement basal insulin secretion. In this case, prandial insulin is produced endogenously and accumulates in secretory granules at night. The dose of bedtime insulin has to be raised until morning euglycemia is reached. Administration of premix insulin about half an hour before breakfast and dinner is a simple and efficient method; such insulin contains 30% short-acting and 70% intermediate-acting components. Insulin treatment may be complemented with metformin.