Dentistry Flashcards
FOG - 2
The location of the oral orifice of the Stenon’s duct (parotid gland’s duct):
A) in the vestible at the upper premolars’ region
B) in the cavum oris proprium( oral cavity) at the second upper molars
C) in the vestible at the upper canines’ region
D) in the vestible at the upper second molars
E) in the vestible at the upper first molars’ region
ANSWER
D) in the vestible at the upper second molars
EXPLANATION
The Stenon’s duct is the duct of the parotid gland it enters into the vestibule of the oral cavity at the upper second molars, creating a small nodule named as Caruncula
FOG-3
Which drug’s characteristic side effect is the dry mouth syndrome (Xersotomia)
A) Lidocain (lidocainium chloratum anhydricum)
B) Troparin (papaverinium sulfuricum + methylhomatropinum bromatum)
C) Papaverinum (papaverinium chloratum)
D) Eunoctin (nitrazepamum)
E) Tarivid (ofloxacinum)
ANSWER
B) Troparin (papaverinium sulfuricum + methylhomatropinum bromatum)
EXPLANATION
The Troparine’s side effect is the xerostomia ( see also FOG 27) The other listed drugs have no effect on the salivation
FOG - 4
The leading sign of the chronic osteomyelitis is:
A) sequestration
B) leukopenia
C) fibrinous exsudate
D) high fever
E) mostly associated with rheumatic complains
ANSWER
A) sequestration
EXPLANATION
The leading sign of the chronic osteomyelitis is the sequestration, the body’s chronic response. The other symptoms are characteristic to acute inflammation and or the inflammation of the cortical bone
FOG - 5
Which is a precancerous lesion?
A) fibromatosis gingivae
B) lingua pilosa nigra
C) Fordyce’s granules
D) geographic tongue
E) leukoplakia
ANSWER
E) leukoplakia
EXPLANATION
The leukoplakia (white plaque) is a premalignant lesion and the prevalence of malignant transformation is ranging between 2-6% (see also FOG.93) The other entities are not premalignant conditions
FOG - 6
The management of an abscess developed at deciduous teeth
A) immediate extraction
B) access cavity preparation with open therapy
C) access cavity preparation and putting a filling afterwards
D) the abscess is eliminated with a Volkmann curette
E) access cavity preparation and the abscess is drained and excavated
ANSWER
E) access cavity preparation and the abscess is drained and excavated
EXPLANATIONIt is no use to extract the deciduous molars – because of their space maintaining rolls. The filling is an inadequate therapy . The access cavity preparation or the drainage of the parulis will not solve the case. A comprehensive therapy should be performed.
FOG - 7
The consequence of the use of pacifier soaked in candy:
A) caries at the upper and lower central incisors
B) gingivitis
C) periodontitis
D) circular caries on the four upper deciduous incisors
E) all of them
ANSWER
D) circular caries on the four upper deciduous incisors
EXPLANATION
The pacifier soak in candy or the very sweet tea given from a bottle thru a nipple can cause very characteristic lesion- the so called circular caries. It is located on the upper deciduous incisors. A dark brown lesion develops around the cervical area of the crown, later a real decay is formed and can lead to crown fracture.
FOG - 8
It is a characteristic disease located on the soft palate:
A) aphthous stomatitis
B) herpangina
C) flue
D) morbilli ( measles)
E) pertussis (whooping cough )
ANSWER
B) herpangina
EXPLANATION
Only the vesicles of herpangina are located solely on the soft palate. The oral lesion associated with Morbilli (see FOG-1). The common flue and pertussis (whooping cough) have no characteristic oral symptoms. The aphthous stomatitis does not cause vesicle, it is an ulcer located on the lip, buccal mucosa the tongue or soft palate.
FOG - 9
The optimal fluoride intake at the age of one year :
A) should not be given
B) 0,05 mg
C) 0,3 mg
D) 0,1 mg
E) 1,0 mg
ANSWER
C) 0,3 mg
EXPLANATION
In a non fluoride supplemented environment the optimal dose that has caries protective effect, and does not damage the enamel and has no systemic side effects or poisoning effects is 0,3 mg. the 0,15-0,2x of the adult dose
FOG - 10
According to the Miller’s caries theory:
A) Adenylphosfate is provided by the saliva for the fermentation of carbohydrate in the dental plaque
B) The initial caries is caused by the bacterial penetration into the enamel
C) Lactic acid is produced in the dental plaque
D) A caries is mainly caused by anaerobic microorganisms
E) The protein content of the tooth is a decisive factor in the development of dental caries
ANSWER
C) Lactic acid is produced in the dental plaque
EXPLANATION
The father of the modern caries theory is Miller, according to this the cause of disease is the low acidic pH. In the dental plaque the Streptococcus mutans, sanguis, salivarius ferment the sugar and create lactic acid, as a consequence the plaque become acidic and the acids will solve- demonetize the enamel prism.
FOG - 11
What is characteristic of the so called cariogenic plaque?
A) It can develop on any tooth surface
B) its dominant bacterial flora is organized from lactobacilli and acidifying streptococci
C) it is bacterium-free
D) its pH is always above 6.3
E) in can be recognized by naked eye
ANSWER
B) its dominant bacterial flora is organized from lactobacilli and acidifying streptococci
EXPLANATION
Cariogenic plaque can only be formed on the so called non self-cleaning tooth surfaces. The plaque contains several different microbial species that sometimes can only be detected by plaque disclosing agents (see –also FOG 110)
FOG - 14
The optimal fluoride content of table salt
A) 1,25 mg/kg
B) 250 mg/kg
C) 25 mg/kg
D) 50 mg/kg
E) 150 mg/kg
ANSWER
B) 250 mg/kg
EXPLANATION
In the Hungarian cuisine 250mg/kg fluoridated table salt has an equivalent protective effect like a 1mg/l fluoridated water. The 150mg/kg content is only a supplement and the lower doses have no caries protective effects.
FOG - 15
What is the cause of the gingival enlargement in leukaemia ?
A) infiltration by malignant cells
B) reactive fibrosis
C) haemangioma
D) capillary rigidity
E) neither of them
ANSWER
A) infiltration by malignant cells
EXPLANATION
The early sign of acute leukemia is the swelling of the interdental gingiva, the spontaneously bleeds ,and finally necrotized creating ulcers. (see also FOG-1) It is caused by the infiltrating malignant hematological cells
FOG - 16
The management of pregnancy gingivitis :
A) gingivoplasty
B) topical metronidazole application
C) broad spectrum antibiotics
D) improved oral hygiene
E) neither of them
ANSWER
D) improved oral hygiene
EXPLANATION
The gingivitis was considered as one of the physiological symptoms of the pregnancy hormonal changes. After delivery and the finish of lactation it well recede but only the prefect oral hygiene can cure the disease. Medication or surgery is contraindicated. The best remedy is the perfect oral hygiene even during pregnancy
FOG - 17
The characteristic sign of pulpal hyperemia :
A) cold water will alleviate pain
B) the tooth is sensitive to percussion
C) it is a reversibly phenomenon
D) it is an irreversibly phenomenon
E) it is caused by antihypertensive drugs
ANSWER
C) it is a reversibly phenomenon
EXPLANATION
The inflammatory hyperemia leads to the elevation of the blood pressure in the pulp chamber, this irritates the cells. The very sudden sharp pain can spontaneously recede. If it frequently returns it sooner or later will progress to pulpitis. It is the irreversibly damage of the dental pulp. The thermal insults can aggravate the process, sensitivity to percussion is not experienced.
FOG - 18
The salivary flow will not enhanced :
A) Sjögren’s syndrome
B) acute heavy metal poisoning
C) during dental treatment
D) trigeminal neuralgia
E) in epileptic attack
ANSWER
A) Sjögren’s syndrome
EXPLANATION.
The mechanical, chemical and neurogenic stimuli can enhance the salivation. In this way the B,C.D are associated with elevated flow rate. The Sjogren’s disease , the autoimmune disease of the major salivary glands is associated with severe xresotomia. In this disease the mouth is totally dry and salivation cannot be stimulated.
FOG - 19
The biological effect of vitamin-A on the oral mucosa :
A) inflammation
B) increased keratinization
C) atrophy
D) hyperplasa
E) angular cheilitis
ANSWER
B) increased keratinization
EXPLANATION
In vitamin-A deficiency –the is considered as an epithelial protective vitamin increased mucous membrane keratinization occurs. The other lesions listed are not directly associated with the vitamin-A deficiency.
FOG - 20
It is not characteristic of ostitis alveolaris (dry socket) :
A) oral malodor
B) inflammation around the alveolar socket
C) severe pain at the day of extraction
D) general malaise
E) fever
ANSWER
C) severe pain at the day of extraction
EXPLANATION
The dry socket (alveolar ostitis) develops a couple of days after the extraction. Its main cause is the early degradation of the blood clot or the insufficient blood clot formation in the socket.
FOG - 21
Usually the nearest tooth to the basis of the maxillary sinus is:
A) the upper wisdom tooth
B) the palatal root of the upper first premolar
C) the upper second molar
D) the distal root of the upper second premolar
E) the upper first molar
ANSWER
C) the upper second molar
EXPLANATION
Usually in 45% of the cases the upper second molars’ roots are in the nearest position to the alveolar recess of the maxillary sinus. Sometimes the sinus floor protrudes into the interradicular area between the mesial and palatal roots. The next is the first molar (30%) and followed by the wisdom tooth (27%) according to the approximation. It is very rare that the sinus protrudes until the apex of the first premolar
FOG - 22
What does it mean „ the completion of the dental arch” ?
A) the eruption of the wisdom tooth
B) the eruption of a mesiodens
C) the eruption of a supernumeraly tooth
D) the eruption of the lower first permanent molar
E) all of them
ANSWER
D) the eruption of the lower first permanent molar
EXPLANATION
During the eruption of the first permanent molars the dental arch built up of 5 teeth by quadrants will be completed, in this way those teeth will not be exploited or changed and any damage on those teeth will be irreversible. Therefore those teeth need more attention and care from the dentist and parents.
FOG - 23
The characteristic sing of periodontal abscess :
A) develops after the obturation of the orifice of the pocket
B) strong pulsating pain
C) the involved tooth has vital sign
D) a putrid charge from the sulcus
E) all of them
ANSWER
E) all of them
EXPLANATION
All the symptoms are characteristic of periodontal abscesses. The pyogenic exudates in the closed pocket will increase the pressure and this leads to acute pain and many ties can mimic the symptoms of the periapical abscess. On the other hand the tooth is vital . With pressing the pocket wall puss can be discharged from the sulcus. The location of the periodontal abscess helps the differential diagnosis, to differentiate from the acute periapical abscess. It is closer to the gingival margin than to the apex. It is usually smaller and can be drained thru the sulcus.
The oral signs and symptoms of AIDS :
A) Kaposi-sarcoma
B) severe progressing periodontitis
C) leukoplakia
D) candidiasis
E) all of them
ANSWER
E) all of them
EXPLANATION
All the listed conditions might associate with AIDS, their cause is the severely compromised immune status of the patient
FOG - 25
The lidocain cartridge/ampoule commercially delivered for dental anesthesia as
A) Inj. Lidocain 1% – Adrenalin 0,01%
B) Inj. Lidocain 2% – Adrenalin 0,1%
C) Inj. Lidocain 2% – Adrenalin 0,01%
D) Inj. Lidocain 2% – Adrenalin 0,001%
E) Inj. Lidocain 1% – Adrenalin 0,02%
ANSWER
D) Inj. Lidocain 2% – Adrenalin 0,001%
EXPLANATION
For dental infiltration and block anesthesia –unless the administration of adrenalin (epinephrine) contraindicated the proper anesthesia can be achieved with injections containing 2% lidocain (xilocain) +0,001% adrenalin. The commercial unit dose is 2 ml in brown ampoule. In general surgery 1 and 2% lidocain is used without epinephrine., but this has no adequate analgesic effect is dentistry . It can only be used for superficial soft tissue anesthesia for a short period of time. The reason is the special vascularisation of the oral tissues and the compact bony structure .
FOG - 26
salivary enzymes
1) proteases
2) maltase
3) lipase
4) amylase
A) 1., 2. and 3. answers are correct
B) 1. and 3. answers are correct
C) 2. and 4. answers are correct
D) only the 4. answer is correct
E) all the answers are correct
ANSWER
C) 2. and 4. answers are correct
EXPLANATION
In the oral cavity the fermentation of the carbohydrates are started by the salivary enzymes. If a carbohydrate containing foodstuff - like bread stays in the oral cavity for a relatively long time due to the fermentation it will be sweet. The metabolism of fat and proteins starts only in the deeper part of the GI system.
Drugs decreasing salivary flow rate
1) homatropine
2) scopolamine
3) atropine
4) noscapine
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
ANSWER
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
EXPLANATION
The tropeins ( a structure made up by the condensation of a pyridine and pirolidine ring) even in therapeutic dose cause xerostomia, dray through, thirst and mydriasis. This sometimes can be used for the transitory inhibition of the salivation. This is very useful during impression taking or special oral exams.
What can cause chronic glossitis ?
1) candidasis
2) diabetes mellitus
3) avitaminosis
4) hemophilia
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
ANSWER
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
EXPLANATION
The chronic glossitis is much more common than the acute one. Associated with systemic diseases the glossitis cannot be cured without controlling the background disease. The most common causes are: pernicious anemia, vitamin-B deficiency, gastrointestinal ailments candidiasis and diabetes mellitus.
FOG - 29
The characteristics of Pierre–Robin-syndrome
1) glossoptosis
2) micrognathia
3) palatoschisis
4) coarctatio aortae
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
ANSWER
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
EXPLANATION
The Pierre Robin syndrome (palatoschisis, micrognathia and glossoptosis) is a congenital hereditary condition. Its typical sign is the gothic palate, which frequently associated with palatourano-staphyloschisis . The lower jaw is underdeveloped and the tongue is in a retro position .
FOG - 30
Which can be a permanent trism ?
1) myogen
2) ankylosis
3) spastic
4) osteogen
A) if 1., 2. and 3. are correct
B) if 1. and 3. are correct
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) if all the answers are correct
ANSWER
C) if 2. and 4. are correct
EXPLANATION
The myogenic and spastic trismus (lockjaw) might suddenly develops and usually transitory and reversible. The ankylosis and osteogenic trismus slowly develops . The most common causes: The juvenile injuries can cause hematoma in the joint that can later maturate and finally ossifys.. In extreme cases a typical bird like face develops. In adulthood the chronic rheumatoid arthritis or other degenerative diseases like Marie—Stümpfell-spondylitis can lead to irreversible trismus
