Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathophysiology Part 4 > Integumentary Function > Flashcards

Integumentary Function Flashcards

1
Q

The innermost layer of the skin. It is composed of soft, fatty tissue as well as blood vessels, nerves, and immune cells. Also called subcutaneous tissue

A

Hypodermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The middle layer of the skin, which is composed of dense, irregular connective tissue and little fat tissue. Includes nerves, hair follicles, smooth muscle, glands, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels

A

Dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The outermost layer of the skin, which is composed of squamous epithelia

A

Epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A protein that strengthens skin

A

Keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A pigment that provides color to the skin as well as protection from ultraviolet rays. Disorders involving this result in alterations in skin coloring and can leave the skin vulnerable to the harmful effects of UV light. Disorders include albinism and vitiligo

A

Melanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A gland that produces sebum

A

Sebaceous gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Secretion of the sebaceous gland that moisturizes and protects the skin

A

Sebum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Gland that secretes sweat through skin pores in response to the sympathetic nervous system. Also called merocrine gland

A

Eccrine gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gland that opens into hair follicles in the axillae, scalp, face, and external genitalia

A

Apocrine gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A skin anomaly that is present at birth or shortly after

A

Birthmark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Birthmark that consists of blood vessels that have not formed correctly; therefore, there birthmarks are generally red

A

Vascular birthmark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The most common type of vascular birthmark. These faint red marks often occur on the forehead, eyelids, posterior neck, nose, upper lip, or posterior head. Also called salmon patch, angel kiss, and stork bite

A

Macular stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A vascular birthmark that appears as a bright red patch or a nodule of extra blood vessels in the skin. Also called a strawberry

A

Hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vascular birthmark that looks like wine was spilled on an area of the body. These birthmarks most often occur on the face, neck, arms, and legs

A

Port-wine stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A birthmark made of a cluster of pigment cells, which cause color in skin. These birthmarks can be many different colors, from tan to brown, gray to black, or even blue

A

Pigmented birthmark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Common type of birthmark that is the color of coffee with milk

A

Cafe au lait spot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Type of birthmark that is a flat bluish-gray area often found on the lower back or buttocks. These birthmarks are most common on individuals with darker complexions

A

Mongolian spot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A brown nevus. Can be tan, brown, or black; can be flat or raised; and may have hair growth

A

Mole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A recessive condition that results in little or no melanin production

A

Albinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A rare condition characterized by small patchy areas of hypopigmentation. Occurs when the cells that produce melanin die or no longer form melanin, leading to slowly enlarging white patches of irregular shapes on the skin

A

Vitiligo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A large pigmented spot that may appear in a sun-exposed area. Also called age spot or liver spot

A

Lentigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A benign soft brown or flesh-colored growth, usually on the neck

A

Skin tag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An acute inflammatory reaction triggered by direct exposure to an irritant or allergen-producing substance

A

Contact dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A chronic inflammatory skin condition triggered by an allergen

A

Atopic dermatitis (eczema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Raised erythematous skin lesions that are a result of a type I hypersensitivity reaction. Also called hives

A

Urticaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A raised erythematous skin lesion

A

Welt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A common chronic inflammatory condition that affects the life cycle of the skin cells

A

Psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A small, red elevated area of the skin

A

Papule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Infections involving the hair follicles. Characterized by tender, swollen areas that form around hair follicles, often on the neck, breasts, buttocks, and face

A

Folliculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

An infection that begins in the hair follicles and then spreads into the surrounding dermis. The lesion starts as a firm, red, painful nodule that develops into a large painful mass, which frequently drains large amounts of purulent exudate. Also called boil

A

Furuncle

31
Q

A cluster of boils (or furuncles)

A

Carbuncle

32
Q

A common and highly contagious skin infection. Although it can occur without an apparent break, it typically arises from a breach in the skin. It spreads easily to others by direct contact with skin or contaminated objects. Lesions usually begin as a small vesicle that enlarges and ruptures, forming a characteristic honey-colored crust

A

Impetigo

33
Q

An infection deep in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. Usually results from a direct invasion through a breach in the skin, especially those breaches where contamination is likely.

A

Cellulitis

34
Q

A rare, serious infection that can aggressively destroy skin, fat, muscle, and other tissue. One out of four people with this infection will die because of it. Also called flesh-eating bacteria

A

Necrotizing fasciitis

35
Q

A viral infection typically affecting the lips, mouth, and face. This common infection usually begins in childhood. Also called cold sore

A

Herpes simplex type 1

36
Q

A viral infection caused by the varicella-zoster virus. The condition appears in adulthood years after a primary infection of varicella (chickenpox) in childhood. The virus lies dormant on a cranial nerve or a spinal nerve dermatome until it becomes activated years later; it affects this nerve only. Also called shingles

A

Herpes zoster

37
Q

A viral infection caused by any of a number of the human papillomaviruses. Can develop at any age and often resolve spontaneously. They can be transmitted through direct skin contact between people or within the same person. Also called plantar wart

A

Verruca

38
Q

A poxvirus infection that is characterized by clusters of pink, cone-shaped, smooth, waxy, or pearly papules 2 to 5 mm in diameter.

A

Molluscum contagiosum

39
Q

A parasite that causes several types of superficial infections, which are described by the area of the body affected. (Tinea corporis, or ringworm, is an infection of the body. Tinea pedis, or athlete’s foot, involves the feet, especially the toes. Tinea unguium is an infection of the nails, typically the toenails).

A

Tinea

40
Q

A result of a mite infection. The female mites burrow into the epidermis, laying eggs over a period of several weeks. The larvae hatch from the eggs and then migrate to the skin’s surface. The larvae burrow into the skin in search of nutrients and mature to repeat the cycle. The burrowing and fecal matter left by the mites trigger the inflammatory process, leading to erythema and pruritus

A

Scabies

41
Q

A lice infestation that can take three forms - Pediculus humanus corpus (body louse), Pediculus pubic (public louse), and Pediculus humanus capitis (head louse). Lice are small, brown, parasitic insects that feed off human blood and cannot survive for long without the human host

A

Pediculosis

42
Q

A skin injury that can result from a thermal or a nonthermal source. These sources may include dry heat, wet heat, radiation, friction, heated objects, natural or artificial ultraviolet light, electricity, and chemicals

A

Burn

43
Q

A skin condition that commonly affects adolescents but can occur at any age. In this condition, the skin’s pores become clogged with oil, debris, or bacteria. The pore can become inflamed, developing a pustule, nodule, or cyst

A

Acne vulgaris

44
Q

A chronic inflammatory skin condition that typically affects the face. It is poorly understood, but it is prevalent in persons who are fair skinned, persons who bruise easily, and women. It may present as erythema, prominent spiderlike blood vessels (telangiectasia), swelling, and acnelike eruptions

A

Rosacea

45
Q

An abnormal growth of skin cells

A

Skin cancer

46
Q

What are the types of absence of melanin production?

A
  • Vitiligo: isolated
  • Albinism: complete lack of melanin
47
Q

Darker spots of pigmentation on skin, usually on face, that are related to hormone changes

Can change in size, color

A

Melasma

48
Q

Temporary eruptions of the skin

Causes: childhood diseases, heat, diaper irritation, or drug-induced reactions

A

Rashes

49
Q

A traumatic or pathologic loss of normal tissue continuity, structure, or function

A

Lesion

50
Q

Pruritis

A

Itching

51
Q

Pustule

A

Filled with pus

52
Q

Nevi

A

Moles

53
Q

Red and flat

A

Macule

54
Q

What are the types of rashes?

A
  • Blanched (white)
  • Erythematous (reddened)
  • Hemorrhagic or purpuric (containing blood)
  • Pigmented
55
Q

Primary bacterial infections that are superficial

A
  • impetigo: appears as a small vesicle or pustule or as a large bulla on the face or elsewhere
  • ecthyma: ulcerative form of impetigo
56
Q

Secondary bacterial infections that are deep cutaneous

A
  • Infected ulcer
  • Cellulitis: deep skin infection
57
Q

Chickenpox virus lays dormant in the spinal nerve root

After years or decades it may emerge, affecting only unilateral dermatome area

Manifested by painful, burning rash

Post-herpatic neuralgia: intense pain that continues after rash is gone

A

Herpes Zoster (Shingles)

58
Q

Contact and airborne virus

Worldwide remains a leading cause of mortality among children under 5

Incubation 6-21 days

Contagious from 5 days before rash through 4 days afterward

A

Measles

59
Q

What are the different manifestation of the measles?

A
  • Prodrome (2-4 days)
    Fever, malaise, anorexia, followed by conjunctivitis, coryza, and cough
  • Enanthem 48 hours prior to Exanthem
    Koplik spots (1-3mm whitish grayish or bluish elevations with erythematous base to mouth mucus membranes
  • Exanthem 2-4 days after fever
    Erythematous, maculopapular, blanching rash
60
Q

What are the complications of the measles?

A
  • Diarrhea
  • Respiratory tract complications (pneumonia is the most common cause of death)
  • Encephalitis
  • Otitis Media
61
Q

Virus transmitted via inhaled pathogens

Considered eliminated in Americas and most developed countries - outbreaks do still occur

Manifests as a generalized maculopapular rash

Infants born with this may have sensorineural hearing loss, intellectual disability, congenital heart defects and ocular defects

A

Rubella (German measles)

62
Q

A chronic inflammatory disease of the skin - begins as blushing

Four subtypes:
- Erythematotelangiectatic
- Papulopustular
- Phymatous
- Ocular

Women are 3 to 4 times more likely to develop
Men have more severe signs and symptoms

A

Rosacea

63
Q

Skin cells grow at an accelerated rate - increased growth causes build ups and forms patches

Cause of development is not fully known, but is thought to be a combination of one’s genes and their immune system

Five types:
- Plaque
- Guttate
- Inverse
- Pustular
- Erythrodermic

Error in the immune system causing the T-cells to attack the skin cells, then creating more skin cells, causing the process to continue

A

Psoriasis

64
Q

Type of dermatitis that results from a cell-mediated, type IV hypersensitivity response

A

Allergic contact dermatitis

65
Q

Type of dermatitis that is caused by chemicals that irritate the skin

A

Irritant contact dermatitis

66
Q

Inflammatory skin disorder that is characterized by poorly defined erythema, edema, vesicles, and weeping at the acute stage

Lichenification in the chronic stage

A

Atopic dermatitis (Eczema)

67
Q

What are the different types of arthropod infestations?

A
  • Scabies
  • Pediculosis: head lice
  • Ticks (Rocky Mountain spotted fever, Lyme disease)
68
Q

This type of burn is characterized by pain, no edema, redness, and blanches with pressure

A

Superficial

69
Q

This type of burn’s characteristics include blisters, moist, and pain

A

Partial thickness

70
Q

This type of burn is characterized by being dry, discolored, and no pain

A

Full thickness

71
Q

Ischemic lesions of the skin and underlying structures caused by unrelieved pressure

Four factors contribute to its development:
- Pressure
- Shear forces
- Friction
- Moisture

A

Pressure ulcers (bedsores)

72
Q

Prevention of Pressure Ulcers:

A
  1. Identifying at-risk persons who need preventative measures and the specific factors placing them at risk
  2. Maintaining and improving tissue tolerance to prevent injury
  3. Protecting against the adverse effects of external mechanical forces (pressure, friction, and shear)
  4. Reducing the incidence of pressure ulcers through educational programs
73
Q

Staging of Pressure Ulcers:

A
  • Stage 1: reddened, not open
  • Stage 2: open, dermal layer only
  • Stage 3: full thickness tissue loss, adipose tissue visible, not muscle or bone
  • Stage 4: full tissue loss with exposed bone, muscle or tendon
  • Unstageable: unable to assess due to necrotic or eschar tissue in wound

Pathophysiology Part 4 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions