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Body Systems and Medical Terminology 2 > Integumentary and Musculoskeletal Systems > Flashcards

Integumentary and Musculoskeletal Systems Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

What is the Integumentary System?

A

The body system that provides coverage for your internal organs.

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2
Q

What does the integumentary system comprise of?

A 
Skin
Hair
Nails
Sweat glands 
Sebaceous glands
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3
Q

Nails protect what?

A

Protect the fingers and toes

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4
Q

What enables the body to regulate temperature?

A

Skin
Hair
Sebaceous glands
Sweat glands

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5
Q

What are the skin’s functions?

A

Provides protection from the outer environment
Acts as a barrier against foreign pathogens
Sends the pain, temperature, pressure, and touch stimuli to the brain
When exposed to the sun it helps in synthesizing vitamin D, an essential vitamin needed to carry out various body functions

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6
Q

What is the weight of skin?

A

Between 7 & 9 lbs.

On average it takes up 20 square feet

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7
Q

About how many skin cells?

A

300 million

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8
Q

A single centimeter of skin contains what?

A

Meter-long blood vessels.

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9
Q

What is grafting?

A

A process of taking a piece of your own skin or a piece of donor skin and transplanting it to the affected site to grow and repair.

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10
Q

What are the skin’s 3 layers?

A

Epidermis
Dermis
Subcutaneous

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11
Q

What is the the outer most layer of skin?

A

Epidermis

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12
Q

What are the 5 layers of epidermis?

A 
Stratum Corneum
Stratum Lucidum
Stratum Granulosum
Stratum Spinosum
Stratum Basale
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13
Q

What is the stratum corneum?

A

Surface layer

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14
Q

What is stratum lucidum?

A

Found just below the stratum corneum on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet only.
Provides additional protection for these high-use areas.
Cells in this area appear clear

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15
Q

What is stratum granulosum?

A

Cells begin the protection process and are then distributed among the layers.
These cells produce melanin

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16
Q

What is keratin?

A

The substance that constitutes your skin, hair, and nails.

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17
Q

What is stratum spinosum?

A

Known as the “prickle layer” for its spiny texture

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18
Q

What is stratum basale?

A

Deepest layer

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19
Q

What is the dermis?

A

Sometimes considered the “true skin” because it contains blood and lymph vessels, as well as nerve fibers
Also contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands
Lies under the epidermal layer and is much thicker
Located between the epidermis and the subcutaneous layer

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20
Q

What cells produce fiber that helps to repair injuries?

A

Fibroblast

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21
Q

What cells protect the body by swallowing foreign materials such as bacteria?

A

Phagocytic

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22
Q

Mast cells contain what?

A

Histamine

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23
Q

What substance produces allergic reactions and heparin?

A

Histamine

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24
Q

What substance prevents blood clotting?

A

Heparin

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25
Q

What is a gluey protein found in skin, connective tissue, bones, cartilage, tendons, and ligaments?

A

Collagen

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26
Q

These provide the skin with its strength and elasticity.

A

Collagen fibers

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27
Q

Whorls and Loops

A

Found on the soles of the feet, palms, and on the fingertips
“Prints” are actually formed from the ridges and furrows found in the dermis layer
On the fingertips help you grasp objects

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28
Q

Subcutaneous layer is:

A

A connective tissue layer that attaches the skin to the muscles and to other tissues lying beneath the skin
Also called the hypodermal layer
Made of connective tissue
Sometimes called superficial fascia

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29
Q

This tissue provides support and protection for organs

Also serves to shape the body

A

Fascia

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30
Q

Lipocytes are what?

A

Fat cells

Are stored in the subcutaneous layer in a special tissue called adipose tissue

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31
Q

Where are sweat glands located?

A

Deep in the dermal layer.

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32
Q

What are the 2 types of sweat glands?

A

Eccrine

Apocrine

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33
Q

Eccrine sweat glands are what?

A

Numerous, important, and widespread throughout your body

Produce watery sweat

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34
Q

Pores are what?

A

Crooked ducts

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35
Q

Apocrine sweat glands are what?

A

Found primarily in the axillae and in the pigmented skin areas around the genitals
Produce a thicker, milky secretion that can be odorous

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36
Q

Armpits are called what?

A

Axillae

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37
Q

Mammary glands are what?

A

Modified sweat gland

Secretes milk only after the birth of a child

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38
Q

Ceruminous glands are what?

A

Located in the skin that lines the external auditory canals

Secrete earwax or cerumen

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39
Q

Sebaceous glands are what?

A

Flask-shaped
Located in the dermis
Commonly attached hair follicles
Secrete an oily substance, or sebum

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40
Q

Sebum does what?

A

Oils the hair, lubricates the skin, and prevents water loss

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41
Q

How many sweat glands work together to help the body maintain its proper temperature?

A

2 million

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42
Q

On average, how much does a person sweat each day?

A

1 quart of water

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43
Q

What does hair do?

A

Keeps heads warm

Serves as a filter system for ears, eyes, and nose

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44
Q

What do nails do?

A

Protect the ends of fingers and toes

Provide physical support to the fingertips to allow you to pick up small objects

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45
Q

What are the 4 parts of a single hair?

A

Shaft
Root
Follicle
Papilla

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46
Q

What is the hair shaft?

A

Visible part of the hair

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47
Q

What is the hair root?

A

Embedded in the dermis

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48
Q

What is the hair follicle?

A

Bulblike attachment at the end of the hair

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49
Q

What is the papilla?

A

Loop of capillaries enclosed within the connective tissue.

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50
Q

What is the lunula?

A

Nail grows from here.

White crescent at the base of the nail

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51
Q

What is the cuticle?

A

Narrow band of the epidermis that extends from the nail wall onto the surface
Pinkish color seen beneath the nail is produced by underlying capillaries

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52
Q

What is the hypodermis?

A

Produces and stores fat and connects the skin to the body organs to give shape to your body

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53
Q

What are the 3 main functions of the subcutaneous layer?

A

Produce and store fat
Connect skin to internal organs
Provide protection to internal organs from mechanical injury

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54
Q

What do collagen fibers provide?

A

Strength

Elasticity

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55
Q

What are common symptoms of various skin diseases?

A 
Pruritus
Erythema
Edema
Scaling 
Lesions
Ulcers
Hives
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56
Q

What is pruritis?

A

Itching

Due to histamine release from the skin cells in response to an allergic reaction

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57
Q

What is erythema?

A

Redness

Caused by increased blood flow to the affected area of the skin

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58
Q

What is edema?

A

Swelling

Caused by fluid buildup in the affected skin area

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59
Q

What is scaling?

A

Due to excess keratin buildup in the epidermis layer of the skin

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60
Q

What are lesions?

A

Circumscribed area of the diseased skin tissue and is classified as primary and secondary

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61
Q

What are ulcers?

A

Open lesion

Results from tissue damage in the skin layers

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62
Q

What are hives?

A

Raised, irregularly shaped skin eruptions with red margins and pale centers
Usually result from an allergic reaction

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63
Q

What are skin infections?

A

Can be caused by various microorganisms

Including bacteria, fungi, viruses, and parasites

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64
Q

What are bacterial infections caused by?

A

Bacteria

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65
Q

What are fungal infections caused by? What is at a higher risk of acquiring fungal infections?

A

Fungi

Skin surfaces that are exposed to sweat.

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66
Q

What are viral infections caused by? Describe 2 things about these infections.

A

Viruses
They are highly contagious and sometimes require isolation.
They are difficult to treat.

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67
Q

What are parasitic infections caused by?

A

Parasites

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68
Q

What can cause skin lesions?

A

Infections, allergic reactions, and trauma to your skin

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69
Q

Primary skin lesions are what?

A 
Abrasion
Contusion
Cyst
Excoriation
Laceration
Macules
Papules
Polyp
Pustules
Vesicles
Wheals
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70
Q

What are abrasions?

A

The scraping away of epidermal tissue.

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71
Q

What are conustions?

A

Injured skin that’s intact and not broken.

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72
Q

What is a cyst?

A

A hollow cavity filled with liquid secretions.

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73
Q

What is excoriation?

A

The superficial loss of tissue due to trauma, chemicals, or burns.

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74
Q

What are lacerations?

A

Broken skin layers or torn flesh.

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75
Q

Macules are what?

A

Non-palpable discolored spots or patches.

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76
Q

Papules are what?

A

Small, solid, circumscribed, raised areas.

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77
Q

What is a polyp?

A

A small growth protruding from a mucous membrane.

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78
Q

What are pustules?

A

Small, elevated, circumscribed, pus-containing lesions.

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79
Q

What are vesicles?

A

Blister-like elevations containing serous fluid.

80
Q

What are wheals?

A

Localized areas of edema on the body surface.

81
Q

What are secondary skin lesions?

A

A result from the healing process.

82
Q

What is a cicatrix?

A

A scar from a wound that has healed.

83
Q

What is hypertrophied?

A

Firm, raised, and thickened condition of a scar.

84
Q

What is a keloid?

A

Progressively enlarging, irregularly shaped scar tissue due to excessive collagen formation in the corneum during tissue repair

85
Q

What is an ulcer?

A

Open sore or lesion caused by trauma, intense heat or cold, pressure, or bacterial infection

86
Q

What are pressure ulcers? What are they also called?

A

Specifically caused by direct pressure due to prolonged immobility
Also called decubitus ulcers

87
Q

How many stages do pressure ulcers have?

A

4

88
Q

What is the 1st stage of pressure ulcers?

A

Reddened skin, but the skin isn’t broken

89
Q

What is the 2nd stage of pressure ulcers?

A

Can have broken or unbroken blisters that are reddened and/or irritated

90
Q

What is the 3rd stage of pressure ulcers?

A

Skin breakage through all layers

91
Q

What is the 4th stage of pressure ulcers?

A

Go through all layers of skin and can affect muscles, tendons, and even bone

92
Q

What does dermatitis refer to?

A

Any inflammation of the skin

93
Q

What are the most common inflammatory conditions?

A

Eczema

Psoriasis

94
Q

What is eczema? What is another name for eczema? Who is it more prevalent in?

A

Also known as atopic dermatitis
Common inflammatory disorder in which skin patches become rough and swollen with blisters
More prevalent in children, but can persist into adulthood

95
Q

What is psoriasis? When is it most common?

A

A chronic skin disorder that results from over production of the skin cells
Plaque formation on the skin surface due to the accumulation of the rapidly growing skin cells
Most common between the ages of 15-30

96
Q

What is classified by determining the number of tissue layers involved?

A

Burns

97
Q

What is a 1st degree burn?

A

There may be some redness and discomfort, blistering usually doesn’t occur and little tissue is destroyed
Minor burn
Labeled as a superficial burn

98
Q

What is a 2nd degree burn?

A

Dermis isn’t completely destroyed
Characterized by blisters, severe pain, generalized swelling, and fluid loss and usually results in scarring
Causing injury to the top layer of the dermis
Labeled as partial-thickness burns
Healing takes about 2 weeks

99
Q

What is a 3rd degree burn?

A

Epidermis and dermis have been completely destroyed, and the damage extends below the dermis into the subcutaneous layer
Labeled as full-thickness burns; damage goes into the fat, muscle, and bone
Usually requires skin grafting
Most severe and generally cause no pain at 1st because of the damage to the nerve endings

100
Q

What is skin grafting?

A

A type of surgery in which the burned skin is removed and replaced with skin from another location

101
Q

What are the 3 main structures of the musculoskeletal system?

A

Joints
Muscles
Skeleton

102
Q

What builds the framework of the body?

A

Bones/Skeleton

103
Q

Where are bones attached to each other?

A

Joints

104
Q

What is attached to bones, and together, they help the body move?

A

Muscles

105
Q

What is the skeleton?

A

Offers support by storing essential minerals and works as a protective layer for the soft inner tissues of the internal organs
Axial and Appendicular

106
Q

What is the skeleton’s 2 main parts?

A

Axial

Appendicular

107
Q

The axial consists of:

A

Thorax
Skull
Vertebral Column

108
Q

Bones of the skull are the:

A

Cranium
Face
Ears

109
Q

How many bones are in the cranium?

A

8 bones

110
Q

How many bones form the face?

A

14 bones

111
Q

How many bones form the ear?

A

6 tiny bones

112
Q

What does TMJ mean?

A

Tmeporomandibular joint

113
Q

The temporomandibular joint connects-

A

The sides and base of the jaw to the lower jaw bone

114
Q

The thorax contains what?

A

Ribs
Sternum
Thoracic vertebrae

115
Q

Which 2 important organs does the thorax protect?

A

Heart

Lungs

116
Q

The vertebral column has how many bones? Where is the vertebral column hinged? It is strong enough to what?

A

33 bones
Strong enough to carry your head
Supports your arms, ribs, and internal organs
Hinged at amphiarthrotic joints and intervertebral discs

117
Q

What are intervertebral discs?

A

Tiny pads that act as shock absorbers

118
Q

How many bones are in the appendicular section of the body? What does it consist of?

A

126 bones are from this section

Consists of the shoulder bones, arm and hand bones, hip bones, leg and foot bones

119
Q

What bones are considered shoulder bones? What is another name for shoulder bones?

A 
Scapula
Shoulder Blade
Clavicle
Collar Bone
Also called shoulder girdle or pectoral girdle
120
Q

Where is the clavicle attached?

A

To the sternum at a very small joint called the sternoclavicular joint

121
Q

What consists more bones that any other part of the body?

A

Arm and hand bones

122
Q

Where is the humerus?

A

Upper arm bone

2nd largest bone in the body

123
Q

Where is the ulna?

A

Medial lower arm bone

124
Q

Where is the radius?

A

Lateral lower arm bone that lines up with the thumb

Can feel on the thumb side of the arm

125
Q

What are carpals? How are they arranged?

A

8 wrist bones

In 2 rows of 4 bones

126
Q

What are metacarpals?

A

5 bones that connect to the fingers

127
Q

What are the 3 hip bones? What does the hip bones support? What is another name for the hip bones?

A

Support the trunk of your body
Ilium, Ischium, and Pubis
Also called pelvic girdle

128
Q

Where is the ilium?

A

Uppermost and largest portion of the pelvis

129
Q

Where is the iscium?

A

Back portion

Part you sit on

130
Q

Where is the pubis?

A

Either the 2 bones that make up the front-most portion of the hip bone

131
Q

Where is the femur?

A

Thigh bone

132
Q

What is the largest bone in the body?

A

Femur

133
Q

Where is the patella? What is another name for the patella?

A

Small flat bone formed in the tendons of the large muscle in front of the femur
Kneecap

134
Q

What is the tibia? What is it also called?

A

Also called the shin bone

Larger lower leg bone

135
Q

What is the fibula?

A

Thin bone hidden under the leg muscle

136
Q

What are the tarsals?

A

7 short bones that form the ankle

137
Q

What is the calcaneus? What is it commonly known as?

A

Largest tarsal bone

Known as heel bone

138
Q

What are long bones?

A

Leg bones

139
Q

Where are short bones located?

A

Hands
Feet
Wrists
Ankles

140
Q

What bone is considered a flat bone?

A

Scapula, or shoulder blade

141
Q

What do irregular bones work as? What do they do?

A

Connectors

Complete the skeletal structure by fitting in wherever needed

142
Q

What are 2 types of bone cells?

A

Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

143
Q

What do osteoblasts do?

A

Produce bones

144
Q

What are osteoclasts responsible for?

A

Reabsorption or breakdown of bone tissue

145
Q

What is ossification?

A

Process of bone formation

146
Q

What are joints? What are they also called?

A

Also called articulation

Point between 2 bones

147
Q

What are 3 joint structural types?

A

Diarthrosis
Amphiarthrosis
Synarthrosis

148
Q

What does diarthrosis joints do? What is it also called?

A

Most joints belong to this group
Allows a wide variety of movement
Also called synovial joints

149
Q

What is in the diarthrosis joint category?

A 
Shoulder
Wrist
Thumb
Hip
Knee Ankle
150
Q

What are amphiarthrosis joints? What are they able to do?

A

Able to perform limited movement
Cartilage connects the joined bones
Joints between the vertebrae of the spinal column and the pubic bones

151
Q

What are synarthrosis joints?

A

Totally immovable joints that don’t have a joint cavity
Tissue grows between the adjoining bones
Found in the skull and sternum

152
Q

What are 3 types of muscles?

A

Skeletal
Smooth
Cardiac

153
Q

What does the skeletal muscle do? What does it look like? How are the cells unusual?

A

Generates movement by pulling against bone
Appears to have bands running across the cells; called striated muscle
Voluntary, control the movements
Cells are unusual because they contain more than one nucleus

154
Q

What are smooth muscles? Where are they located?

A

Line the inside of many body organs
Contract involuntarily and in rhythmic, slow manner
In the walls of the stomach and intestines are responsible for the continuous movement of food along the gastrointestinal tract
No striations, only one nucleus per cell
Lines blood vessels

155
Q

What are cardiac muscles? Where are they found?

A 
Highly specialized
Striated and produces forceful contractions 
Involuntary movement
Contracts rhythmically
Found in heart
156
Q

What are tendons?

A

Cartilaginous bands that connect the ends of muscle to bone

157
Q

What is a strain? What is it a result from?

A

A tear in a tendon or muscle fiber as a result of overstretching a muscle
Usually a result from an injury or vigorous exercise without appropriate stretching
Muscle isn’t the same as joint

158
Q

What is a sprain? What is at the highest risk?

A

A tear in a ligament as a result of trauma or due to the joint being twisted beyond its normal range or motion
Ankles and wrist at the highest risk

159
Q

What is a spasm?

A

Cramp

Condition characterized by the undesired, prolonged contraction of a muscle

160
Q

What are the types of fractures?

A

Simple
Compound
Complete
Incomplete

161
Q

What is a simple fracture?

A

Closed
The bone is broken, but hasn’t broken through the skin.
The neighboring muscles and tissues aren’t damaged.

162
Q

What is a compound fracture?

A

Open

The bone breaks through the skin, and there’s considerable damage to the surrounding tissues.

163
Q

What is a complete fracture?

A

Bone is completely broken and the 2 broken ends are separated from each other.

164
Q

What is an incomplete fracture?

A

The break in the bone is more like a crack that doesn’t extend completely across.

165
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

Infection inside a bone

166
Q

What is necrosis?

A

Process of tissue death that may require amputation of the affected bone.

167
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

A condition characterized by a decrease in total bone mass.

168
Q

What are bones comprised of?

A

50% water and 50% solids

169
Q

What is bone marrow depression?

A

Decreases the number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

170
Q

What is arthritis?

A

Inflammation of the joint.

171
Q

What are 3 forms of arthritis?

A

Rheumatoid
Osteo
Gouty

172
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Systemic autoimmune disease that gradually affects more and more joints as time passes.
Body’s own autoimmune system starts attacking the joint tissue.
Most serious and crippling form of arthritis.

173
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Inflammation of the joints that link the vertebrae in the spine.
As the inflammation recedes, it leaves the joints hardened and damaged.

174
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

Normally occurs due to the wear and tear of the joints.
Commonly affects weight-bearing joints such as the spine, hips, and knees.
Causes the smooth lining of a joint to crack and flake.
Mostly affects the elderly.

175
Q

What is articular cartilage?

A

Smooth lining of a joint

176
Q

What is gouty arthritis?

A

Inflammation of the joints caused by a metabolism defect.
Results in an excessive amount of uric acid in the blood.
Mostly affects big toes and the adjoining areas.

177
Q

What is dislocation?

A

When a bone is displaced from its normal position in the joint.

178
Q

What is reducting?

A

Bone is returned to its proper place with gently force.

179
Q

What is myalgia?

A

Pain in the skeletal muscles.

180
Q

What is bursitis?

A

Inflammation of one or more bursae.

181
Q

What is bursae?

A

Small sacs filled with synovial fluid, located between bones and ligaments and between bones and muscles.

182
Q

What is carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Caused by tissues that swell and compress the median nerve as it runs between the ligament and the bones and tendons of the wrist.

183
Q

What does peripheral mean?

A

Organs or body parts that are situated away from the center of the body.

184
Q

What is keratin?

A

A non-soluble hard protein found in the outermost layer of the skin, nails, and hair.

185
Q

What are melanocytes?

A

Melanin producing cells found in the skin, hair, and eyes.

186
Q

What does contagious mean?

A

Infections and viruses that can be transmitted or spread from one person to another?

187
Q

What is a scab?

A

The hardening of the skin surface after wound healing.

188
Q

What does erosion mean?

A

The process of wearing away or wasting away of the skin surface, usually due to pressure and friction.

189
Q

What is a retinoid?

A

The class of medications that are derivatives of Vitamin A and are used to treat certain skin diseases due to their ability to regulate skin cell growth.

190
Q

What is an immunosuppressant?

A

Medications that suppress or decrease the effectiveness of your body’s immune response, useful to treat skin disorders that are caused by your body’s hyperactive immune response to an allergen.

191
Q

What is cartilage?

A

A firm, flexible, and elastic connective tissue that connects many tissues and organs in your body, not as hard as bones but stiffer and firmer than the muscles.

192
Q

What are ligaments?

A

Dense bands of connective tissue that connect bones to bones at joints.

193
Q

What are tendons?

A

A dense band of connective tissue that connects bones to muscles.

194
Q

What is necrosis?

A

The premature death of the living cells or tissues resulting from an irreversible damage.

195
Q

What does asymptomatic mean?

A

A disease that has no apparent symptoms.

Body Systems and Medical Terminology 2 (3 decks)

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