Integ Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which modality is contraindicated for clean, granulating wounds?

  • A. Pulsed Lavage
  • B. Whirlpool Therapy
  • C. Wound Irrigation
  • D. Electrical Stimulation
A
  • Correct: B. Whirlpool Therapy Whirlpool is contraindicated for clean, granulating wounds as it can disrupt healing tissue.
  • Incorrect: A. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage can be used for irrigation and is not contraindicated.
  • Incorrect: C. Wound Irrigation Irrigation is suitable for clean wounds.
  • Incorrect: D. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation is indicated for granulating wounds.
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2
Q

What is the primary effect of pulsed lavage with suction?

  • A. Thermal insulation
  • B. Reduction of bioburden
  • C. Pain management
  • D. Enhance oxygen perfusion
A
  • Correct: B. Reduction of bioburden Pulsed lavage removes necrotic tissue and debris, reducing bioburden.
  • Incorrect: A. Thermal insulation Pulsed lavage does not provide thermal effects.
  • Incorrect: C. Pain management Pain relief is not a primary effect of pulsed lavage.
  • Incorrect: D. Enhance oxygen perfusion Oxygenation is improved by other modalities like hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
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3
Q

Which modality facilitates wound contraction and reduces bioburden using subatmospheric pressure?

  • A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy
  • B. Pulsed Lavage
  • C. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy
  • D. Electrical Stimulation
A
  • **Correct: A. Negative Pressure Wound ** Therapy NPWT applies subatmospheric pressure, promoting granulation tissue and reducing bioburden.
  • Incorrect: B. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage uses irrigation, not subatmospheric pressure.
  • Incorrect: C. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy HBO involves oxygenation, not pressure reduction.
  • Incorrect: D. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation does not involve subatmospheric pressure.
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4
Q

Which modality uses monophasic high-voltage pulsed current to stimulate healing?

  • A. Electrical Stimulation
  • B. Diathermy
  • C. Ultrasound
  • D. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy
A
  • Correct: A. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation uses high-voltage pulsed current to enhance wound healing.
  • Incorrect: B. Diathermy Diathermy uses electromagnetic energy, not electrical currents.
  • Incorrect: C. Ultrasound Ultrasound uses sound waves, not electrical currents.
  • Incorrect: D. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT involves suction, not electrical stimulation.
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5
Q

What is a contraindication for using whirlpool therapy?

  • A. Thick eschar
  • B. Infected wounds
  • C. Clean, granulating wounds
  • D. Pain management
A
  • Correct: C. Clean, granulating wounds Whirlpool therapy can disrupt healing in clean, granulating wounds.
  • Incorrect: A. Thick eschar Whirlpool therapy can help soften eschar.
  • Incorrect: B. Infected wounds Whirlpool therapy can aid in managing infected wounds.
  • Incorrect: D. Pain management Pain management is a benefit, not a contraindication, of whirlpool therapy.
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6
Q

What is the primary purpose of ultraviolet C (UVC) therapy?

  • A. Promote oxygen perfusion
  • B. Reduce bacterial bioburden
  • C. Manage granulation tissue
  • D. Enhance scar pliability
A
  • Correct: B. Reduce bacterial bioburden UVC therapy is primarily bactericidal and helps reduce bioburden in wounds.
  • Incorrect: A. Promote oxygen perfusion Oxygenation is not a primary effect of UVC therapy.
  • Incorrect: C. Manage granulation tissue UVC is not focused on granulation tissue.
  • Incorrect: D. Enhance scar pliability Scar pliability is not a goal of UVC therapy.
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7
Q

Which therapy uses sound waves to facilitate wound debridement and healing?

  • A. Pulsed Lavage
  • B. Electrical Stimulation
  • C. Ultrasound
  • D. Diathermy
A
  • Correct: C. Ultrasound Ultrasound uses sound waves to facilitate debridement and healing.
  • Incorrect: A. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage uses pressurized irrigation, not sound waves.
  • Incorrect: B. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation involves electrical currents, not sound waves.
  • Incorrect: D. Diathermy Diathermy uses electromagnetic energy.
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8
Q

Which therapy is contraindicated for wounds with untreated osteomyelitis? * A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy * B. Electrical Stimulation * C. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy * D. Wound Irrigation

A
  • Correct: A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT is contraindicated for wounds with untreated osteomyelitis. * Incorrect: B. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation may be used with caution in osteomyelitis cases. * Incorrect: C. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy HBO is often used to treat osteomyelitis. * Incorrect: D. Wound Irrigation Wound irrigation is not contraindicated for osteomyelitis.
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9
Q

Which modality enhances healing by increasing oxygen concentration in the wound bed? * A. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy * B. Electrical Stimulation * C. Pulsed Lavage * D. Diathermy

A
  • Correct: A. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy HBO increases oxygen levels in the wound bed to facilitate healing. * Incorrect: B. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation does not directly increase oxygen concentration. * Incorrect: C. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage is for irrigation and bioburden reduction. * Incorrect: D. Diathermy Diathermy uses heat, not oxygen concentration.
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10
Q

Which therapy utilizes electromagnetic energy to heat tissue and promote wound healing? * A. Diathermy * B. Ultrasound * C. Electrical Stimulation * D. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy

A
  • Correct: A. Diathermy Diathermy uses electromagnetic energy to improve circulation, fibroblast activity, and nitric oxide release. * Incorrect: B. Ultrasound Ultrasound uses sound waves, not electromagnetic energy. * Incorrect: C. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation uses electrical currents, not heat. * Incorrect: D. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT uses suction, not heat.
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11
Q

Which modality combines irrigation with suction to facilitate debridement and bioburden reduction? * A. Pulsed Lavage * B. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy * C. Whirlpool Therapy * D. Ultrasound

A
  • Correct: A. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage combines pressurized irrigation with suction to reduce bioburden and debride wounds. * Incorrect: B. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT applies subatmospheric pressure but does not use irrigation. * Incorrect: C. Whirlpool Therapy Whirlpool therapy softens necrotic tissue but does not use suction. * Incorrect: D. Ultrasound Ultrasound uses sound waves, not irrigation and suction.
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12
Q

Which modality uses noncontact low-frequency ultrasound to gently debride wounds? * A. Ultrasound Mist * B. High-Frequency Ultrasound * C. Pulsed Lavage * D. Electrical Stimulation

A
  • Correct: A. Ultrasound Mist Noncontact low-frequency ultrasound (Mist) gently debrides wounds while reducing bioburden. * Incorrect: B. High-Frequency Ultrasound High-frequency ultrasound is used for deeper tissue effects, not noncontact debridement. * Incorrect: C. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage involves irrigation, not ultrasound. * Incorrect: D. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation does not involve ultrasound.
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13
Q

Which therapy is most appropriate for a wound with thick eschar and heavy bioburden? * A. Whirlpool Therapy * B. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy * C. Electrical Stimulation * D. Wound Irrigation

A
  • Correct: A. Whirlpool Therapy Whirlpool therapy softens eschar and reduces bioburden, making it effective for wounds with thick necrotic tissue. * Incorrect: B. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT requires a clean wound bed and is not suitable for thick eschar. * Incorrect: C. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation does not soften eschar or reduce heavy bioburden. * Incorrect: D. Wound Irrigation While useful, irrigation alone is less effective for thick eschar.
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14
Q

What is a contraindication for using hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBO)? * A. Claustrophobia * B. Gas gangrene * C. Peripheral ischemia * D. Crush injuries

A
  • Correct: A. Claustrophobia Patients with claustrophobia may struggle with the enclosed environment required for HBO therapy. * Incorrect: B. Gas gangrene HBO is indicated for gas gangrene. * Incorrect: C. Peripheral ischemia HBO is used to treat ischemic wounds. * Incorrect: D. Crush injuries HBO is indicated for crush injuries.
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15
Q

Which modality stimulates mitochondria and growth factor production to enhance wound healing? * A. Low-Intensity Laser Therapy * B. Electrical Stimulation * C. Pulsed Lavage * D. Diathermy

A
  • Correct: A. Low-Intensity Laser Therapy Low-intensity laser therapy stimulates cellular activity, including mitochondrial function and growth factor release. * Incorrect: B. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation attracts cells to the wound site but does not directly stimulate mitochondria. * Incorrect: C. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage does not affect cellular functions like mitochondria or growth factors. * Incorrect: D. Diathermy Diathermy promotes circulation but does not target mitochondria or growth factors.
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16
Q

What is a primary advantage of cold atmospheric plasma (CAP) therapy? * A. Promotes fibroblast proliferation * B. Provides thermal effects * C. Directly softens necrotic tissue * D. Increases oxygen delivery

A
  • Correct: A. Promotes fibroblast proliferation CAP therapy supports fibroblast and keratinocyte proliferation, promoting wound healing. * Incorrect: B. Provides thermal effects CAP therapy is not thermal. * Incorrect: C. Directly softens necrotic tissue CAP does not physically debride tissue. * Incorrect: D. Increases oxygen delivery Oxygen delivery is not a primary effect of CAP.
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17
Q

Which therapy is contraindicated for wounds with exposed organs? * A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy * B. Whirlpool Therapy * C. Electrical Stimulation * D. Pulsed Lavage

A
  • Correct: A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT is contraindicated for wounds with exposed organs unless specialized systems are used. * Incorrect: B. Whirlpool Therapy Whirlpool therapy does not directly harm exposed organs. * Incorrect: C. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation is not directly contraindicated for wounds with exposed organs. * Incorrect: D. Pulsed Lavage Pulsed lavage can be used cautiously but is not contraindicated.
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18
Q

Which modality reduces wound edema while promoting angiogenesis and granulation tissue formation? * A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy * B. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy * C. Ultrasound * D. Electrical Stimulation

A
  • Correct: A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT decreases edema and promotes granulation and angiogenesis. * Incorrect: B. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy HBO promotes angiogenesis but does not reduce edema. * Incorrect: C. Ultrasound Ultrasound facilitates healing but does not directly reduce edema. * Incorrect: D. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation improves circulation but is less effective for edema reduction.
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19
Q

Which therapy is particularly useful for reducing bioburden in critically colonized category III/IV pressure ulcers? * A. Ultraviolet C Therapy * B. Electrical Stimulation * C. Low-Intensity Laser Therapy * D. Whirlpool Therapy

A
  • Correct: A. Ultraviolet C Therapy UVC therapy is bactericidal and helps reduce bioburden in critically colonized pressure ulcers. * Incorrect: B. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation promotes healing but does not directly reduce bioburden. * Incorrect: C. Low-Intensity Laser Therapy Laser therapy has limited evidence for bioburden reduction. * Incorrect: D. Whirlpool Therapy Whirlpool therapy is not as specific for bioburden in pressure ulcers.
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20
Q

What is the primary goal of using a support surface in pressure relief? * A. To reduce edema in the lower extremities * B. To redistribute body weight and protect skin tissue * C. To prevent heat loss in patients * D. To assist with pulmonary therapy

A
  • Correct: B. To redistribute body weight and protect skin tissue Support surfaces are designed to redistribute pressure and protect vulnerable areas, like bony prominences, from breakdown. * Incorrect: A. To reduce edema in the lower extremities Edema reduction is not the main goal of support surfaces. * Incorrect: C. To prevent heat loss in patients Preventing heat loss is unrelated to pressure relief. * Incorrect: D. To assist with pulmonary therapy Pulmonary therapy may involve different types of support but is not the primary goal here.
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21
Q

What tissue interface pressure is considered the threshold for skin breakdown? * A. 15 mmHg * B. 23 mmHg * C. 32 mmHg * D. 45 mmHg

A
  • Correct: C. 32 mmHg Tissue interface pressures above 32 mmHg are associated with impaired capillary blood flow, leading to tissue breakdown. * Incorrect: A. 15 mmHg This pressure is too low to cause significant breakdown. * Incorrect: B. 23 mmHg This is the range for pressure-relieving devices, not the breakdown threshold. * Incorrect: D. 45 mmHg This is above the threshold but not a commonly cited value for breakdown risk.
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22
Q

What is the purpose of pressure mapping in pressure relief management? * A. To diagnose existing pressure ulcers * B. To map patient mobility patterns * C. To assess how interface pressure affects tissue loading * D. To design custom support surfaces

A
  • Correct: C. To assess how interface pressure affects tissue loading Pressure mapping evaluates tissue loading by measuring interface pressure between the patient and the surface. * Incorrect: A. To diagnose existing pressure ulcers Diagnosis of ulcers is based on clinical assessment, not pressure mapping. * Incorrect: B. To map patient mobility patterns Pressure mapping focuses on static pressure, not mobility. * Incorrect: D. To design custom support surfaces While it provides data, it is not directly used to design surfaces.
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23
Q

Which type of support surface provides continuous air circulation to manage heat and moisture? * A. Low Air Loss * B. Alternating Pressure * C. Air-Fluidized Beds * D. Viscoelastic Foam

A
  • Correct: A. Low Air Loss Low air loss mattresses continuously circulate air to manage heat and moisture at the patient-surface interface. * Incorrect: B. Alternating Pressure Alternating pressure redistributes pressure through cyclic inflation, not air circulation. * Incorrect: C. Air-Fluidized Beds These beds use air to create a fluid-like medium but do not focus on moisture control. * Incorrect: D. Viscoelastic Foam Foam does not provide active air circulation.
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24
Q

What is a major disadvantage of lateral rotation beds in pressure management? * A. They are uncomfortable for most patients * B. They increase the risk of shear injuries * C. They are ineffective for pulmonary therapy * D. They are too costly for most healthcare settings

A
  • Correct: B. They increase the risk of shear injuries Lateral rotation beds can cause excessive shear forces, increasing the risk of tissue injury. * Incorrect: A. They are uncomfortable for most patients Discomfort is not commonly cited as a major disadvantage. * Incorrect: C. They are ineffective for pulmonary therapy These beds are often used for pulmonary therapy. * Incorrect: D. They are too costly for most healthcare settings While they are costly, this is not their primary disadvantage in pressure management.
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25
Q

Which type of support surface is most appropriate for a patient with a stage III or IV pressure ulcer who is bedridden? * A. Standard Foam Mattress * B. Low Air Loss Mattress * C. Air-Fluidized Bed * D. Alternating Pressure Mattress

A
  • Correct: C. Air-Fluidized Bed Air-fluidized beds provide advanced pressure relief and are indicated for stage III or IV pressure ulcers. * Incorrect: A. Standard Foam Mattress These mattresses do not provide sufficient pressure relief for advanced ulcers. * Incorrect: B. Low Air Loss Mattress While effective, these are typically used for less severe cases. * Incorrect: D. Alternating Pressure Mattress Alternating pressure mattresses are appropriate but less effective than air-fluidized beds for advanced cases.
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26
Q

Which support surface technology minimizes shear forces while maintaining immersion and envelopment? * A. Air-Fluidized Beds * B. Alternating Pressure Mattresses * C. Low Air Loss Mattresses * D. Foam Mattresses

A
  • Correct: A. Air-Fluidized Beds These beds reduce shear while providing excellent immersion and envelopment. * Incorrect: B. Alternating Pressure Mattresses These redistribute pressure but do not significantly minimize shear forces. * Incorrect: C. Low Air Loss Mattresses Low air loss mattresses focus on heat and moisture control rather than shear reduction. * Incorrect: D. Foam Mattresses Foam mattresses may reduce pressure but are less effective at shear reduction.
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27
Q

Which type of positioning is recommended to minimize pressure on the sacrum and coccyx? * A. Semi-Recumbent * B. 30-Degree Tilted Side-Lying * C. 90-Degree Side-Lying * D. Supine

A
  • Correct: B. 30-Degree Tilted Side-Lying This position offloads pressure from the sacrum and coccyx, reducing risk of pressure injury. * Incorrect: A. Semi-Recumbent This position increases pressure on the sacrum and coccyx. * Incorrect: C. 90-Degree Side-Lying This position increases pressure on the greater trochanter. * Incorrect: D. Supine Supine positioning places direct pressure on the sacrum and coccyx.
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28
Q

How often should patients who are immobile be repositioned to prevent pressure ulcers? * A. Every 30 minutes * B. Every 1–2 hours * C. Every 4 hours * D. Every 6 hours

A
  • Correct: B. Every 1–2 hours Immobile patients should be repositioned every 1–2 hours to prevent pressure ulcers. * Incorrect: A. Every 30 minutes While more frequent repositioning is beneficial, it is not standard practice. * Incorrect: C. Every 4 hours This frequency may increase the risk of pressure injuries. * Incorrect: D. Every 6 hours This is too infrequent to effectively prevent ulcers.
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29
Q

What is the purpose of a viscoelastic foam mattress? * A. To prevent heat loss * B. To redistribute pressure and conform to body contours * C. To reduce shear forces * D. To enhance moisture evaporation

A
  • Correct: B. To redistribute pressure and conform to body contours Viscoelastic foam molds to the body, redistributing pressure. * Incorrect: A. To prevent heat loss Foam mattresses are not designed for heat management. * Incorrect: C. To reduce shear forces Foam does not significantly reduce shear forces. * Incorrect: D. To enhance moisture evaporation Foam does not actively manage moisture.
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30
Q

Which type of mattress is most appropriate for patients with multiple stage II pressure ulcers that have not improved with standard care? * A. Air-Fluidized Mattress * B. Low Air Loss Mattress * C. Alternating Pressure Mattress * D. Viscoelastic Foam Mattress

A
  • Correct: B. Low Air Loss Mattress Low air loss mattresses are indicated for patients with stage II ulcers that have not improved with standard care. * Incorrect: A. Air-Fluidized Mattress These are typically reserved for advanced stage III or IV ulcers. * Incorrect: C. Alternating Pressure Mattress Alternating pressure mattresses are often a step before low air loss mattresses. * Incorrect: D. Viscoelastic Foam Mattress Foam mattresses are for prevention and less severe cases.
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31
Q

What is the primary advantage of using an alternating pressure mattress? * A. Continuous air circulation * B. Cyclic redistribution of pressure * C. Reduced moisture at the wound site * D. Enhanced immersion and envelopment

A
  • Correct: B. Cyclic redistribution of pressure Alternating pressure mattresses cyclically inflate and deflate to redistribute pressure across different body areas. * Incorrect: A. Continuous air circulation This is a feature of low air loss mattresses, not alternating pressure systems. * Incorrect: C. Reduced moisture at the wound site Moisture management is not the primary function of alternating pressure. * Incorrect: D. Enhanced immersion and envelopment This is more typical of air-fluidized beds.
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32
Q

Which positioning technique reduces pressure on the ischial tuberosities in a wheelchair? * A. Reclining backward * B. Side-lean * C. Forward lean * D. Push-up pressure relief

A
  • Correct: C. Forward lean Leaning forward effectively offloads the ischial tuberosities. * Incorrect: A. Reclining backward Reclining may redistribute pressure but does not specifically offload the ischial tuberosities. * Incorrect: B. Side-lean Side-lean redistributes pressure to one side but not from the ischial tuberosities. * Incorrect: D. Push-up pressure relief This offloads the buttocks entirely, not specifically the ischial tuberosities.
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33
Q

What is the purpose of the 30-degree tilted side-lying position? * A. To offload the greater trochanter * B. To reduce moisture accumulation * C. To minimize shear forces * D. To facilitate pulmonary drainage

A
  • Correct: A. To offload the greater trochanter The 30-degree tilted side-lying position reduces pressure on the greater trochanter. * Incorrect: B. To reduce moisture accumulation This position does not directly address moisture control. * Incorrect: C. To minimize shear forces Shear reduction is not the primary goal of this position. * Incorrect: D. To facilitate pulmonary drainage Pulmonary drainage is not the intended outcome.
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34
Q

What type of support surface uses air-filled bladders to redistribute pressure evenly? * A. Low Air Loss Mattress * B. Fluid-Filled Bladders * C. Air-Fluidized Mattress * D. Alternating Pressure Mattress

A
  • Correct: B. Fluid-Filled Bladders Fluid-filled bladders evenly distribute pressure across the surface area. * Incorrect: A. Low Air Loss Mattress These manage heat and moisture but do not use fluid-filled bladders. * Incorrect: C. Air-Fluidized Mattress These create a fluid-like medium using air, not fluid bladders. * Incorrect: D. Alternating Pressure Mattress These rely on cyclic inflation and deflation, not fluid-filled components.
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35
Q

Which type of support surface is contraindicated for patients with active bleeding? * A. Air-Fluidized Mattress * B. Alternating Pressure Mattress * C. Low Air Loss Mattress * D. Foam Mattress

A
  • Correct: A. Air-Fluidized Mattress Air-fluidized beds are contraindicated for patients with active bleeding due to their effect on moisture evaporation and potential for bleeding exacerbation. * Incorrect: B. Alternating Pressure Mattress These are not contraindicated for active bleeding. * Incorrect: C. Low Air Loss Mattress Low air loss mattresses are suitable for patients with active bleeding. * Incorrect: D. Foam Mattress Foam mattresses are not contraindicated.
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36
Q

How often should wheelchair-bound patients perform pressure relief techniques? * A. Every 15–30 minutes * B. Every 1–2 hours * C. Every 4 hours * D. Every 6 hours

A
  • Correct: A. Every 15–30 minutes Wheelchair users should perform pressure relief techniques every 15–30 minutes to prevent pressure injuries. * Incorrect: B. Every 1–2 hours This frequency is recommended for bed-bound patients, not wheelchair users. * Incorrect: C. Every 4 hours This is too infrequent to prevent pressure injuries. * Incorrect: D. Every 6 hours This is insufficient to prevent pressure injuries.
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37
Q

Which type of ulcer requires elevation and offloading of the heels to prevent further damage? * A. Trochanteric ulcer * B. Sacral ulcer * C. Heel ulcer * D. Coccygeal ulcer

A
  • Correct: C. Heel ulcer Elevating and offloading the heels is critical for managing and preventing further damage to heel ulcers. * Incorrect: A. Trochanteric ulcer Trochanteric ulcers require offloading from the greater trochanter, not the heels. * Incorrect: B. Sacral ulcer Sacral ulcers require offloading from the sacrum. * Incorrect: D. Coccygeal ulcer Coccygeal ulcers also require offloading but not from the heels.
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38
Q

What is a disadvantage of gel overlays used in support surfaces? * A. They are costly to manufacture * B. They retain body heat and can warm over time * C. They lack pressure redistribution capabilities * D. They are ineffective for multiple pressure ulcers

A
  • Correct: B. They retain body heat and can warm over time Gel overlays absorb body heat, initially feeling cool but warming over time, which can cause discomfort. * Incorrect: A. They are costly to manufacture Cost is not a primary disadvantage. * Incorrect: C. They lack pressure redistribution capabilities Gel overlays do provide pressure redistribution. * Incorrect: D. They are ineffective for multiple pressure ulcers Gel overlays can be effective for multiple ulcers.
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39
Q

What is a key feature of lateral rotation beds that makes them beneficial for pulmonary therapy? * A. Pressure redistribution * B. Cyclic inflation and deflation * C. Positioning one lung higher than the other * D. Managing heat and moisture

A
  • Correct: C. Positioning one lung higher than the other Lateral rotation beds assist in pulmonary therapy by positioning one lung higher to prevent pneumonia. * Incorrect: A. Pressure redistribution While they redistribute pressure, this is not specific to pulmonary therapy. * Incorrect: B. Cyclic inflation and deflation This is a feature of alternating pressure beds, not lateral rotation beds. * Incorrect: D. Managing heat and moisture This is not the primary function of lateral rotation beds.
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40
Q

What is the primary function of the tunica media in arteries? * A. Protect vessel walls from trauma * B. Regulate vessel diameter * C. Facilitate oxygen exchange * D. Provide structural support

A
  • Correct: B. Regulate vessel diameter The tunica media, composed of smooth muscle, modulates vessel diameter to regulate blood flow. * Incorrect: A. Protect vessel walls from trauma This is the function of the tunica externa. * Incorrect: C. Facilitate oxygen exchange Oxygen exchange occurs at the capillaries. * Incorrect: D. Provide structural support Structural support is the role of the tunica externa.
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41
Q

Which condition is the most common cause of arterial ulcers? * A. Diabetes mellitus * B. Arteriosclerosis * C. Thromboangiitis obliterans * D. Trauma

A
  • Correct: B. Arteriosclerosis Arteriosclerosis leads to thickening and hardening of the arterial walls, decreasing perfusion and causing ulcers. * Incorrect: A. Diabetes mellitus Diabetes contributes to arterial insufficiency but is not the most common direct cause. * Incorrect: C. Thromboangiitis obliterans This is a rare condition associated with arterial ulcers. * Incorrect: D. Trauma Trauma may precipitate arterial ulcers but is not the primary cause.
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42
Q

What is intermittent claudication? * A. Pain at rest caused by ischemia * B. Activity-induced discomfort relieved by rest * C. Burning pain exacerbated by elevation * D. Pain caused by venous insufficiency

A
  • Correct: B. Activity-induced discomfort relieved by rest Intermittent claudication is ischemic pain triggered by activity and relieved within minutes of rest. * Incorrect: A. Pain at rest caused by ischemia This describes ischemic rest pain, not claudication. * Incorrect: C. Burning pain exacerbated by elevation This also describes ischemic rest pain. * Incorrect: D. Pain caused by venous insufficiency Claudication is specific to arterial insufficiency, not venous issues.
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43
Q

Where are arterial ulcers most commonly located? * A. Medial malleolus * B. Anterior leg and lateral malleolus * C. Popliteal fossa * D. Thigh

A
  • Correct: B. Anterior leg and lateral malleolus Arterial ulcers are typically found in the lower extremities, particularly the anterior leg and lateral malleolus. * Incorrect: A. Medial malleolus This is a common location for venous ulcers. * Incorrect: C. Popliteal fossa Arterial ulcers are rarely found in this area. * Incorrect: D. Thigh Arterial ulcers are uncommon in the thigh.
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44
Q

Which symptom is most indicative of arterial insufficiency? * A. Swelling and edema * B. Dependent rubor and elevational pallor * C. Varicose veins * D. Warm skin temperature

A
  • Correct: B. Dependent rubor and elevational pallor These signs indicate impaired arterial perfusion and are hallmark symptoms of arterial insufficiency. * Incorrect: A. Swelling and edema These are more indicative of venous insufficiency. * Incorrect: C. Varicose veins These are associated with venous insufficiency. * Incorrect: D. Warm skin temperature Cool skin temperature is a characteristic of arterial insufficiency.
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45
Q

What are the characteristic features of arterial ulcers? * A. Irregular, shallow wounds with heavy exudate * B. Well-defined, dry, and “punched out” wounds * C. Circular, moist wounds with granulation tissue * D. Large, weeping wounds above the knee

A
  • Correct: B. Well-defined, dry, and “punched out” wounds Arterial ulcers often have smooth edges and are associated with dry necrosis. * Incorrect: A. Irregular, shallow wounds with heavy exudate These are features of venous ulcers. * Incorrect: C. Circular, moist wounds with granulation tissue Moist wounds are more indicative of pressure or mixed ulcers. * Incorrect: D. Large, weeping wounds above the knee Arterial ulcers are usually located below the knee.
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46
Q

What is the primary purpose of measuring the Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)? * A. Assess oxygenation of tissues * B. Diagnose venous insufficiency * C. Determine the severity of arterial insufficiency * D. Identify neuropathic involvement

A
  • Correct: C. Determine the severity of arterial insufficiency ABI compares upper and lower extremity pressures to evaluate arterial perfusion. * Incorrect: A. Assess oxygenation of tissues Oxygenation is measured with tcpO2, not ABI. * Incorrect: B. Diagnose venous insufficiency ABI assesses arterial insufficiency, not venous issues. * Incorrect: D. Identify neuropathic involvement ABI is unrelated to neuropathic assessment.
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47
Q

Which dressing is most appropriate for an arterial ulcer with dry necrotic tissue and adequate perfusion? * A. Hydrogel with a secondary dressing * B. Foam dressing * C. Alginate * D. Hydrocolloid

A
  • Correct: A. Hydrogel with a secondary dressing Hydrogel provides moisture to the wound bed, softening necrotic tissue for autolytic debridement. * Incorrect: B. Foam dressing Foam dressings are not typically used for dry necrotic wounds. * Incorrect: C. Alginate Alginate is better suited for wounds with heavy exudate. * Incorrect: D. Hydrocolloid Hydrocolloids are not ideal for arterial ulcers with dry necrosis.
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48
Q

What is a contraindication for debridement of arterial ulcers? * A. Presence of slough * B. ABI <0.5 * C. Toe pressure >50 mmHg * D. Moderate exudate

A
  • Correct: B. ABI <0.5 Debridement is contraindicated when perfusion is insufficient to support healing (ABI <0.5). * Incorrect: A. Presence of slough Slough may require debridement if perfusion is adequate. * Incorrect: C. Toe pressure >50 mmHg This indicates sufficient perfusion for debridement. * Incorrect: D. Moderate exudate Exudate level does not contraindicate debridement.
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49
Q

What is the recommended intervention goal for arterial ulcers with impaired perfusion? * A. Apply compression therapy * B. Maintain warmth and avoid compression * C. Aggressively debride necrotic tissue * D. Use foam dressings for heavy exudate

A
  • Correct: B. Maintain warmth and avoid compression Maintaining warmth supports circulation, while compression is contraindicated for impaired perfusion. * Incorrect: A. Apply compression therapy Compression is contraindicated in arterial insufficiency. * Incorrect: C. Aggressively debride necrotic tissue Debridement is contraindicated with impaired perfusion. * Incorrect: D. Use foam dressings for heavy exudate Foam dressings are not ideal for dry wounds.
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50
Q

Which risk factor is most strongly associated with the progression of arterial insufficiency ulcers? * A. Smoking * B. Advanced age * C. Trauma * D. Hypertension

A
  • Correct: A. Smoking Smoking significantly contributes to arterial insufficiency by causing vasoconstriction, increasing clot formation, and reducing oxygen availability. * Incorrect: B. Advanced age While age is a risk factor, smoking has a stronger association with progression. * Incorrect: C. Trauma Trauma is often a precipitating factor but not the primary contributor to progression. * Incorrect: D. Hypertension Hypertension contributes but less significantly than smoking.
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51
Q

What is the purpose of the Rubor of Dependency test? * A. Assess venous reflux * B. Evaluate arterial flow in the lower extremities * C. Determine capillary refill time * D. Measure oxygenation in tissues

A
  • Correct: B. Evaluate arterial flow in the lower extremities The Rubor of Dependency test evaluates arterial blood flow by observing color changes with leg elevation and dependency. * Incorrect: A. Assess venous reflux This test does not evaluate venous function. * Incorrect: C. Determine capillary refill time Capillary refill is assessed separately using nail bed pressure. * Incorrect: D. Measure oxygenation in tissues Tissue oxygenation is measured with tcpO2, not this test.
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52
Q

Which finding indicates severe arterial insufficiency on an Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) test? * A. ABI ≥ 1.3 * B. ABI 0.95–1.0 * C. ABI 0.5–0.8 * D. ABI <0.5

A
  • Correct: D. ABI <0.5 An ABI value below 0.5 indicates severe arterial insufficiency, often associated with rest pain or tissue loss. * Incorrect: A. ABI ≥ 1.3 This suggests calcified, non-compressible vessels, common in diabetes or CKD. * Incorrect: B. ABI 0.95–1.0 This range is considered normal. * Incorrect: C. ABI 0.5–0.8 This range indicates moderate arterial disease.
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53
Q

What adjunctive modality is most appropriate for arterial ulcers with adequate perfusion? * A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy * B. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy * C. Low-Intensity Laser Therapy * D. Electrical Stimulation

A
  • Correct: B. Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy HBO improves oxygenation and promotes healing in well-perfused arterial ulcers. * Incorrect: A. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy NPWT is contraindicated for poorly perfused wounds. * Incorrect: C. Low-Intensity Laser Therapy While helpful, HBO is more directly beneficial for arterial ulcers. * Incorrect: D. Electrical Stimulation Electrical stimulation is useful but secondary to HBO in arterial ulcers.
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54
Q

What is the clinical significance of dependent rubor in arterial insufficiency? * A. Indicates venous congestion * B. Suggests collateral circulation is intact * C. Demonstrates arterial insufficiency with reactive hyperemia * D. Confirms the presence of neuropathy

A
  • Correct: C. Demonstrates arterial insufficiency with reactive hyperemia Dependent rubor is a classic sign of arterial insufficiency and indicates poor perfusion. * Incorrect: A. Indicates venous congestion Venous congestion does not cause dependent rubor. * Incorrect: B. Suggests collateral circulation is intact Dependent rubor suggests inadequate arterial perfusion, not sufficient collateral circulation. * Incorrect: D. Confirms the presence of neuropathy Neuropathy does not typically cause dependent rubor.
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55
Q

What is the primary indication for transcutaneous oxygen pressure (tcpO2) testing in arterial ulcers? * A. To assess venous insufficiency * B. To evaluate oxygen diffusion across the skin * C. To measure ankle pressure * D. To determine the risk of neuropathy

A
  • Correct: B. To evaluate oxygen diffusion across the skin TcpO2 measures oxygen diffusion to assess tissue perfusion. * Incorrect: A. To assess venous insufficiency TcpO2 is used for arterial, not venous, evaluation. * Incorrect: C. To measure ankle pressure Ankle pressures are measured using ABI, not tcpO2. * Incorrect: D. To determine the risk of neuropathy TcpO2 does not assess neuropathy risk.
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56
Q

What is the recommended treatment goal for arterial ulcers with ischemic rest pain? * A. Aggressive debridement * B. Revascularization * C. Compression therapy * D. Autolytic debridement

A
  • Correct: B. Revascularization Revascularization is essential to restore blood flow and relieve ischemic rest pain. * Incorrect: A. Aggressive debridement Debridement is contraindicated without adequate perfusion. * Incorrect: C. Compression therapy Compression is contraindicated in arterial insufficiency. * Incorrect: D. Autolytic debridement Autolytic debridement is not effective without adequate perfusion.
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57
Q

Which dressing is contraindicated for arterial ulcers with dry necrosis and inadequate perfusion? * A. Hydrocolloid * B. Non-adherent foam * C. Hydrogel * D. Alginate

A
  • Correct: A. Hydrocolloid Hydrocolloids are occlusive and not recommended for dry necrotic arterial ulcers. * Incorrect: B. Non-adherent foam Foam dressings are suitable for protecting dry necrotic areas. * Incorrect: C. Hydrogel Hydrogel is appropriate for moistening dry necrotic tissue. * Incorrect: D. Alginate Alginate is inappropriate for dry wounds but is not contraindicated.
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58
Q

Which factor contributes most significantly to arterial ulcer progression? * A. Hyperlipidemia * B. Impaired wound healing * C. Smoking * D. Poor glycemic control

A
  • Correct: C. Smoking Smoking exacerbates arterial insufficiency by increasing clot formation, vasoconstriction, and reducing oxygen delivery. * Incorrect: A. Hyperlipidemia While significant, hyperlipidemia contributes less directly than smoking. * Incorrect: B. Impaired wound healing Impaired healing is a consequence, not a primary contributor. * Incorrect: D. Poor glycemic control Glycemic control impacts arterial health but less than smoking.
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59
Q

What is the best initial step in managing arterial ulcers with ABI <0.5? * A. Compression therapy * B. Surgical debridement * C. Revascularization consultation * D. Apply hydrogel dressing

A
  • Correct: C. Revascularization consultation Immediate revascularization is required for severe arterial insufficiency. * Incorrect: A. Compression therapy Compression is contraindicated with ABI <0.5. * Incorrect: B. Surgical debridement Debridement is unsafe without adequate perfusion. * Incorrect: D. Apply hydrogel dressing Hydrogel does not address perfusion issues.
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60
Q

What is the primary cause of neuropathic ulcers in patients with diabetes? * A. Venous insufficiency * B. Peripheral neuropathy * C. Arterial insufficiency * D. Pressure injuries

A
  • Correct: B. Peripheral neuropathy Peripheral neuropathy leads to loss of sensation, making patients unaware of injuries and pressure, which can lead to ulceration. * Incorrect: A. Venous insufficiency Venous insufficiency causes different types of ulcers. * Incorrect: C. Arterial insufficiency Arterial insufficiency is not the primary cause of neuropathic ulcers. * Incorrect: D. Pressure injuries Pressure injuries can contribute but are secondary to neuropathy.
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61
Q

Which factor contributes most significantly to delayed wound healing in patients with diabetes? * A. Poor glycemic control * B. Advanced age * C. Inadequate protein intake * D. Lack of exercise

A
  • Correct: A. Poor glycemic control Hyperglycemia impairs immune function, collagen synthesis, and angiogenesis, delaying wound healing. * Incorrect: B. Advanced age While age is a factor, poor glycemic control is more significant in diabetes. * Incorrect: C. Inadequate protein intake Protein deficiency affects healing but is not the primary issue in diabetes. * Incorrect: D. Lack of exercise Exercise affects overall health but is less directly linked to delayed wound healing.
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62
Q

What is the hallmark characteristic of a neuropathic ulcer? * A. Irregular edges with heavy exudate * B. Well-defined margins with surrounding callus * C. Painful wound with erythematous base * D. Punched-out appearance with dry necrosis

A
  • Correct: B. Well-defined margins with surrounding callus Neuropathic ulcers typically have well-defined margins and callus around the wound due to repetitive trauma and pressure. * Incorrect: A. Irregular edges with heavy exudate These are characteristics of venous ulcers. * Incorrect: C. Painful wound with erythematous base Neuropathic ulcers are often painless due to sensory loss. * Incorrect: D. Punched-out appearance with dry necrosis This describes arterial ulcers.
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63
Q

Where are neuropathic ulcers most commonly located? * A. Dorsum of the foot * B. Medial malleolus * C. Plantar aspect of the foot * D. Popliteal fossa

A
  • Correct: C. Plantar aspect of the foot Neuropathic ulcers commonly occur on weight-bearing areas like the plantar surface. * Incorrect: A. Dorsum of the foot This location is less typical for neuropathic ulcers. * Incorrect: B. Medial malleolus This is a common site for venous ulcers. * Incorrect: D. Popliteal fossa Neuropathic ulcers do not typically occur in this area.
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64
Q

What is the purpose of a 10-gram monofilament test? * A. Assess motor neuropathy * B. Evaluate arterial blood flow * C. Identify loss of protective sensation * D. Determine autonomic dysfunction

A
  • Correct: C. Identify loss of protective sensation The monofilament test assesses sensory function to identify areas of diminished sensation. * Incorrect: A. Assess motor neuropathy Motor neuropathy involves muscle weakness, not sensory loss. * Incorrect: B. Evaluate arterial blood flow The monofilament test does not assess circulation. * Incorrect: D. Determine autonomic dysfunction The test does not evaluate autonomic functions.
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65
Q

What is the gold standard off-loading device for neuropathic ulcers? * A. Total contact cast * B. Diabetic shoes * C. Gel heel cushion * D. Knee scooter

A
  • Correct: A. Total contact cast Total contact casting evenly redistributes pressure, protecting the ulcer and promoting healing. * Incorrect: B. Diabetic shoes Diabetic shoes are effective for prevention but not the gold standard for treatment. * Incorrect: C. Gel heel cushion Heel cushions reduce pressure locally but are not comprehensive solutions. * Incorrect: D. Knee scooter Knee scooters are used for mobility, not pressure off-loading.
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66
Q

Which type of neuropathy is responsible for autonomic dysfunction in diabetic patients? * A. Sensory neuropathy * B. Motor neuropathy * C. Autonomic neuropathy * D. Mixed neuropathy

A
  • Correct: C. Autonomic neuropathy Autonomic neuropathy affects involuntary functions, such as sweat production and blood flow, contributing to diabetic wound pathology. * Incorrect: A. Sensory neuropathy Sensory neuropathy involves loss of protective sensation, not autonomic function. * Incorrect: B. Motor neuropathy Motor neuropathy causes muscle weakness, not autonomic dysfunction. * Incorrect: D. Mixed neuropathy While mixed neuropathy may involve autonomic dysfunction, the specific cause here is autonomic neuropathy.
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67
Q

What is the significance of elevated plantar pressure in diabetic patients? * A. Increased risk of arterial insufficiency ulcers * B. Decreased callus formation * C. Increased risk of neuropathic ulcers * D. Improved blood flow to the toes

A
  • Correct: C. Increased risk of neuropathic ulcers Elevated plantar pressure exacerbates tissue damage, leading to ulcer formation in patients with sensory loss. * Incorrect: A. Increased risk of arterial insufficiency ulcers Arterial ulcers are not caused by plantar pressure. * Incorrect: B. Decreased callus formation Plantar pressure increases callus formation. * Incorrect: D. Improved blood flow to the toes Elevated pressure does not improve circulation.
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68
Q

What is a contraindication for total contact casting? * A. Plantar ulcers with moderate exudate * B. Presence of infection or osteomyelitis * C. Neuropathic ulcers in non-weight-bearing areas * D. Patients with normal sensation

A
  • Correct: B. Presence of infection or osteomyelitis Total contact casting is contraindicated when infection or osteomyelitis is present, as it can exacerbate the condition. * Incorrect: A. Plantar ulcers with moderate exudate Total contact casting can still be used for exudative ulcers with appropriate dressings. * Incorrect: C. Neuropathic ulcers in non-weight-bearing areas Off-loading is not required for non-weight-bearing areas. * Incorrect: D. Patients with normal sensation Total contact casting is primarily for those with sensory loss.
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69
Q

What is the recommended frequency for diabetic foot inspections to prevent ulcer development? * A. Weekly * B. Biweekly * C. Daily * D. Monthly

A
  • Correct: C. Daily Diabetic patients should inspect their feet daily to identify early signs of injury or ulceration. * Incorrect: A. Weekly Weekly inspections may miss early signs of injury. * Incorrect: B. Biweekly This frequency is insufficient for high-risk patients. * Incorrect: D. Monthly Monthly inspections are not frequent enough for prevention.
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70
Q

What is the role of autonomic neuropathy in the development of diabetic foot ulcers? * A. Increases tissue oxygenation * B. Reduces sweat production, causing dry and cracked skin * C. Enhances vascular dilation * D. Strengthens plantar muscles

A
  • Correct: B. Reduces sweat production, causing dry and cracked skin Autonomic neuropathy reduces sweat production, leading to dry skin and fissures that increase ulcer risk. * Incorrect: A. Increases tissue oxygenation Autonomic dysfunction reduces perfusion rather than improving oxygenation. * Incorrect: C. Enhances vascular dilation It impairs vascular regulation, not dilation. * Incorrect: D. Strengthens plantar muscles Motor neuropathy affects muscles, not autonomic neuropathy.
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71
Q

What is the first step in managing a diabetic foot ulcer with signs of infection? * A. Apply an alginate dressing * B. Start broad-spectrum antibiotics * C. Perform surgical debridement * D. Initiate total contact casting

A
  • Correct: B. Start broad-spectrum antibiotics Antibiotics address infection, which must be managed before other interventions like debridement or casting. * Incorrect: A. Apply an alginate dressing Dressings alone do not manage infections. * Incorrect: C. Perform surgical debridement Debridement can spread infection if not controlled first. * Incorrect: D. Initiate total contact casting Casting is contraindicated in the presence of infection.
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72
Q

Which test is most commonly used to evaluate protective sensation in diabetic patients? * A. Tuning fork test * B. 10-gram monofilament test * C. Ankle-brachial index (ABI) * D. Transcutaneous oxygen pressure (tcpO2)

A
  • Correct: B. 10-gram monofilament test The monofilament test is the gold standard for identifying loss of protective sensation. * Incorrect: A. Tuning fork test The tuning fork evaluates vibratory sensation, not protective sensation. * Incorrect: C. Ankle-brachial index (ABI) ABI assesses arterial perfusion, not sensation. * Incorrect: D. Transcutaneous oxygen pressure (tcpO2) TcpO2 measures tissue oxygenation, not sensory function.
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73
Q

What is a primary characteristic of motor neuropathy in diabetic patients? * A. Loss of sensation * B. Muscle atrophy and foot deformities * C. Increased sweat production * D. Elevated plantar pressures

A
  • Correct: B. Muscle atrophy and foot deformities Motor neuropathy causes intrinsic muscle weakness, leading to deformities like claw toes. * Incorrect: A. Loss of sensation This is a feature of sensory neuropathy, not motor neuropathy. * Incorrect: C. Increased sweat production Autonomic neuropathy reduces, not increases, sweat production. * Incorrect: D. Elevated plantar pressures This results from foot deformities caused by motor neuropathy but is not a direct characteristic.
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74
Q

What is the purpose of a Charcot restraint orthotic walker (CROW)? * A. Enhance vascular flow to the foot * B. Off-load pressure and immobilize the foot * C. Improve ankle joint mobility * D. Reduce sweat production in autonomic neuropathy

A
  • Correct: B. Off-load pressure and immobilize the foot The CROW device redistributes pressure and immobilizes the foot to facilitate healing. * Incorrect: A. Enhance vascular flow to the foot It does not improve vascular flow. * Incorrect: C. Improve ankle joint mobility The CROW is designed for immobilization, not mobility. * Incorrect: D. Reduce sweat production in autonomic neuropathy It does not address autonomic dysfunction.
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75
Q

Which intervention is most effective in preventing recurrence of neuropathic ulcers? * A. Total contact casting * B. Daily foot inspections and protective footwear * C. Routine whirlpool therapy * D. Application of hydrogel dressings

A
  • Correct: B. Daily foot inspections and protective footwear Regular inspections and appropriate footwear prevent injury and reduce recurrence risk. * Incorrect: A. Total contact casting Casting is effective for treatment but not prevention. * Incorrect: C. Routine whirlpool therapy Whirlpool therapy is not indicated for prevention. * Incorrect: D. Application of hydrogel dressings Dressings are for wound management, not prevention.
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76
Q

What is the best strategy to reduce plantar pressures in diabetic patients? * A. Custom-molded orthotics * B. Heel cushions * C. Increased walking activity * D. Surgical intervention

A
  • Correct: A. Custom-molded orthotics Orthotics redistribute plantar pressure, reducing the risk of ulceration. * Incorrect: B. Heel cushions Cushions only address localized pressure and are not sufficient alone. * Incorrect: C. Increased walking activity Excessive activity may increase plantar pressures and injury risk. * Incorrect: D. Surgical intervention Surgery is reserved for severe cases or deformities.
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77
Q

Which sign is most indicative of infection in a diabetic foot ulcer? * A. Presence of granulation tissue * B. Increased exudate and erythema * C. Dry wound bed * D. Reduced wound size

A
  • Correct: B. Increased exudate and erythema These signs indicate inflammation and possible infection in a diabetic ulcer. * Incorrect: A. Presence of granulation tissue Granulation tissue is a sign of healing, not infection. * Incorrect: C. Dry wound bed A dry wound bed does not necessarily indicate infection. * Incorrect: D. Reduced wound size Reduction in size is a sign of healing.
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78
Q

Which off-loading device is appropriate for a patient who cannot tolerate total contact casting? * A. Charcot restraint orthotic walker (CROW) * B. Diabetic shoes with custom inserts * C. Gel heel cushion * D. Ankle-foot orthosis (AFO)

A
  • Correct: A. Charcot restraint orthotic walker (CROW) The CROW is an alternative off-loading device for patients unable to tolerate casting. * Incorrect: B. Diabetic shoes with custom inserts These are preventive measures, not substitutes for casting. * Incorrect: C. Gel heel cushion Cushions provide localized relief but are insufficient for significant off-loading. * Incorrect: D. Ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) AFOs are used for support but do not redistribute pressure.
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79
Q

What is the ideal ABI range for safe compression therapy in diabetic patients? * A. 0.9–1.2 * B. 0.8–1.0 * C. 0.5–0.7 * D. <0.5

A
  • Correct: B. 0.8–1.0 ABI values in this range indicate sufficient arterial perfusion for safe compression. * Incorrect: A. 0.9–1.2 While normal, this range may not include all diabetic patients. * Incorrect: C. 0.5–0.7 This range indicates moderate arterial insufficiency, making compression risky. * Incorrect: D. <0.5 ABI below 0.5 is contraindicated for compression therapy.
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80
Q

What is the primary function of venous valves? * A. Propel blood forward using muscle contraction * B. Prevent backflow of blood * C. Facilitate oxygen exchange * D. Regulate venous blood pressure

A
  • Correct: B. Prevent backflow of blood Venous valves ensure unidirectional flow of blood toward the heart. * Incorrect: A. Propel blood forward using muscle contraction Propulsion is achieved by the muscle pump, not valves. * Incorrect: C. Facilitate oxygen exchange Oxygen exchange occurs in capillaries, not veins. * Incorrect: D. Regulate venous blood pressure Pressure regulation involves multiple factors, not solely valves.
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81
Q

Which of the following is a primary risk factor for venous insufficiency? * A. Prolonged standing * B. Low blood pressure * C. Sedentary lifestyle * D. Low BMI

A
  • Correct: A. Prolonged standing Standing for extended periods increases venous pressure and contributes to valve dysfunction. * Incorrect: B. Low blood pressure Low blood pressure does not cause venous insufficiency. * Incorrect: C. Sedentary lifestyle While relevant, it is less directly linked than prolonged standing. * Incorrect: D. Low BMI High BMI is a more significant risk factor.
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82
Q

What is the hallmark clinical sign of venous insufficiency? * A. Intermittent claudication * B. Dependent edema * C. Cool, pale skin * D. Thickened toenails

A
  • Correct: B. Dependent edema Dependent edema is a hallmark of venous insufficiency, caused by increased venous pressure and fluid leakage. * Incorrect: A. Intermittent claudication This is associated with arterial insufficiency. * Incorrect: C. Cool, pale skin These symptoms suggest arterial disease. * Incorrect: D. Thickened toenails Thickened toenails are not a primary sign of venous insufficiency.
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83
Q

What is the purpose of the Trendelenburg test in venous insufficiency? * A. Evaluate arterial perfusion * B. Assess valve competency * C. Measure capillary refill time * D. Determine risk of neuropathy

A
  • Correct: B. Assess valve competency The Trendelenburg test evaluates venous valve function and retrograde blood flow. * Incorrect: A. Evaluate arterial perfusion This is unrelated to the Trendelenburg test. * Incorrect: C. Measure capillary refill time Capillary refill is assessed using different methods. * Incorrect: D. Determine risk of neuropathy Neuropathy is unrelated to venous insufficiency.
84
Q

What is the significance of a venous filling time of less than 5 seconds? * A. Normal venous return * B. Venous reflux or insufficiency * C. Delayed arterial perfusion * D. Elevated capillary pressure

A
  • Correct: B. Venous reflux or insufficiency Rapid venous filling indicates valve incompetence and venous reflux. * Incorrect: A. Normal venous return Normal filling time is 5–15 seconds. * Incorrect: C. Delayed arterial perfusion Delayed filling (>20 seconds) suggests arterial disease. * Incorrect: D. Elevated capillary pressure Capillary pressure is not directly measured in this test.
85
Q

Where are venous ulcers most commonly located? * A. Medial malleolus * B. Plantar surface of the foot * C. Dorsum of the foot * D. Anterior leg

A
  • Correct: A. Medial malleolus Venous ulcers frequently develop near the medial malleolus due to high venous pressure. * Incorrect: B. Plantar surface of the foot This is common for neuropathic ulcers. * Incorrect: C. Dorsum of the foot This location is associated with arterial ulcers. * Incorrect: D. Anterior leg This is less typical for venous ulcers.
86
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of venous ulcers? * A. Punched-out, dry, with black eschar * B. Shallow, irregular, with moderate exudate * C. Well-defined, calloused edges * D. Circular, deep, with minimal drainage

A
  • Correct: B. Shallow, irregular, with moderate exudate Venous ulcers typically appear shallow, irregularly shaped, and moderately exudative. * Incorrect: A. Punched-out, dry, with black eschar This describes arterial ulcers. * Incorrect: C. Well-defined, calloused edges These are characteristics of neuropathic ulcers. * Incorrect: D. Circular, deep, with minimal drainage This describes pressure ulcers.
87
Q

What is the primary intervention goal for venous ulcers? * A. Promote arterial perfusion * B. Reduce venous hypertension * C. Enhance sensory perception * D. Decrease oxygen demand

A
  • Correct: B. Reduce venous hypertension Lowering venous pressure promotes healing and reduces ulcer recurrence. * Incorrect: A. Promote arterial perfusion This is relevant for arterial ulcers, not venous. * Incorrect: C. Enhance sensory perception Sensory deficits are not a primary concern in venous ulcers. * Incorrect: D. Decrease oxygen demand This is unrelated to venous ulcer management.
88
Q

Which compression therapy is most appropriate for managing venous insufficiency ulcers? * A. Short-stretch bandages * B. Low air loss mattress * C. Total contact cast * D. Hydrocolloid dressing

A
  • Correct: A. Short-stretch bandages These provide graduated compression, reducing venous hypertension and promoting healing. * Incorrect: B. Low air loss mattress This is for pressure management, not compression. * Incorrect: C. Total contact cast This is used for off-loading neuropathic ulcers. * Incorrect: D. Hydrocolloid dressing This addresses moisture but does not provide compression.
89
Q

What is a contraindication for compression therapy in venous insufficiency? * A. ABI <0.8 * B. Swelling and edema * C. Presence of exudate * D. Irregular wound edges

A
  • Correct: A. ABI <0.8 Compression is contraindicated when ABI indicates moderate or severe arterial insufficiency. * Incorrect: B. Swelling and edema Compression is indicated for edema management. * Incorrect: C. Presence of exudate Compression can help manage venous ulcers with exudate. * Incorrect: D. Irregular wound edges Compression therapy is not contraindicated for irregular wounds.
90
Q

What is the purpose of the CEAP classification system in venous insufficiency? * A. Evaluate arterial insufficiency * B. Determine risk of neuropathy * C. Classify severity of venous disorders * D. Identify underlying infection

A
  • Correct: C. Classify severity of venous disorders CEAP (Clinical, Etiological, Anatomical, Pathophysiological) categorizes venous disease for standardized assessment. * Incorrect: A. Evaluate arterial insufficiency CEAP is not used for arterial disorders. * Incorrect: B. Determine risk of neuropathy Neuropathy is unrelated to CEAP. * Incorrect: D. Identify underlying infection CEAP does not assess infection.
91
Q

What is the clinical significance of hemosiderin staining in venous insufficiency? * A. Indicates arterial insufficiency * B. Suggests reduced tissue oxygenation * C. Reflects chronic venous hypertension * D. Confirms neuropathy

A
  • Correct: C. Reflects chronic venous hypertension Hemosiderin staining occurs due to chronic leakage of red blood cells and venous pressure. * Incorrect: A. Indicates arterial insufficiency Hemosiderin staining is unrelated to arterial conditions. * Incorrect: B. Suggests reduced tissue oxygenation Oxygenation issues are more common in arterial insufficiency. * Incorrect: D. Confirms neuropathy Hemosiderin staining is not related to neuropathy.
92
Q

Which factor is most critical for the development of venous ulcers? * A. Increased venous pressure * B. Loss of protective sensation * C. Arterial ischemia * D. Muscle atrophy

A
  • Correct: A. Increased venous pressure Chronic venous hypertension leads to tissue damage and ulcer formation. * Incorrect: B. Loss of protective sensation This is a key factor in neuropathic ulcers. * Incorrect: C. Arterial ischemia Ischemia contributes to arterial ulcers, not venous ulcers. * Incorrect: D. Muscle atrophy Muscle atrophy is not a primary factor in venous ulcer development.
93
Q

What is the primary role of the calf muscle pump in venous circulation? * A. Prevent venous reflux * B. Propel blood toward the heart * C. Enhance capillary oxygen exchange * D. Maintain valve integrity

A
  • Correct: B. Propel blood toward the heart The calf muscle pump assists in venous return by contracting and pushing blood toward the heart. * Incorrect: A. Prevent venous reflux Valves, not muscles, prevent reflux. * Incorrect: C. Enhance capillary oxygen exchange Oxygen exchange occurs in capillaries, not veins. * Incorrect: D. Maintain valve integrity Valve integrity is not directly affected by the muscle pump.
94
Q

Which intervention is most appropriate for managing large, shallow venous ulcers with heavy exudate? * A. Hydrocolloid dressing * B. Alginate dressing * C. Foam dressing * D. Transparent film

A
  • Correct: B. Alginate dressing Alginates absorb large amounts of exudate, making them suitable for heavily draining venous ulcers. * Incorrect: A. Hydrocolloid dressing Hydrocolloids are not ideal for heavily exudative wounds. * Incorrect: C. Foam dressing Foam dressings absorb moderate exudate but may not be sufficient for heavy drainage. * Incorrect: D. Transparent film Films are unsuitable for exudative wounds.
95
Q

What is a common skin change associated with chronic venous insufficiency? * A. Erythema * B. Lipodermatosclerosis * C. Cyanosis * D. Pallor

A
  • Correct: B. Lipodermatosclerosis This condition involves skin thickening and inflammation due to chronic venous hypertension. * Incorrect: A. Erythema Erythema is nonspecific and not unique to venous disease. * Incorrect: C. Cyanosis Cyanosis is more indicative of arterial or systemic issues. * Incorrect: D. Pallor Pallor is associated with arterial insufficiency, not venous disease.
96
Q

Which compression therapy technique provides the highest level of sustained compression? * A. Elastic stockings * B. Multi-layer bandaging * C. Tubular bandages * D. Unna boot

A
  • Correct: B. Multi-layer bandaging Multi-layer bandages deliver sustained, graduated compression for venous insufficiency management. * Incorrect: A. Elastic stockings Stockings provide compression but not as effectively as multi-layer systems. * Incorrect: C. Tubular bandages Tubular bandages offer light compression. * Incorrect: D. Unna boot Unna boots are effective but less adjustable than multi-layer systems.
97
Q

What is the purpose of a duplex ultrasound in venous insufficiency evaluation? * A. Assess arterial perfusion * B. Visualize venous valve function and flow * C. Measure tissue oxygenation * D. Determine ABI

A
  • Correct: B. Visualize venous valve function and flow Duplex ultrasound provides real-time imaging to assess valve competency and venous flow. * Incorrect: A. Assess arterial perfusion Duplex ultrasound is not primarily used for arterial evaluation. * Incorrect: C. Measure tissue oxygenation TcpO2 evaluates oxygenation, not duplex ultrasound. * Incorrect: D. Determine ABI ABI measures arterial pressure, not venous flow.
98
Q

Which venous ulcer intervention improves lymphatic drainage and venous return? * A. Compression therapy * B. Negative pressure wound therapy * C. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy * D. Electrical stimulation

A
  • Correct: A. Compression therapy Compression promotes venous return and lymphatic drainage, reducing edema and enhancing healing. * Incorrect: B. Negative pressure wound therapy NPWT does not directly enhance venous return or lymphatic drainage. * Incorrect: C. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy HBO is for oxygenation, not venous return. * Incorrect: D. Electrical stimulation Electrical stimulation is not a primary treatment for venous insufficiency.
99
Q

What is the recommended frequency for compression garment use in venous insufficiency? * A. Daily, during waking hours * B. Every other day * C. Only when swelling is present * D. During sleep only

A
  • Correct: A. Daily, during waking hours Compression garments should be worn daily to manage venous pressure and prevent ulcer recurrence. * Incorrect: B. Every other day Intermittent use is ineffective for venous insufficiency. * Incorrect: C. Only when swelling is present Consistent use is required regardless of swelling. * Incorrect: D. During sleep only Compression is typically avoided during sleep.
100
Q

Which surgical intervention is used to eliminate reflux in superficial veins? * A. Endovenous ablation * B. Vein stripping * C. Sclerotherapy * D. Subfascial endoscopic perforator surgery (SEPS)

A
  • Correct: A. Endovenous ablation Endovenous ablation uses thermal energy to close incompetent superficial veins. * Incorrect: B. Vein stripping This is a more invasive procedure than ablation. * Incorrect: C. Sclerotherapy Sclerotherapy involves chemical closure, not thermal energy. * Incorrect: D. Subfascial endoscopic perforator surgery (SEPS) SEPS targets perforator veins, not superficial veins.
101
Q

What is a contraindication for Unna boot application? * A. Active infection * B. Edema * C. ABI >1.0 * D. Hemosiderin staining

A
  • Correct: A. Active infection Unna boots are contraindicated in the presence of infection due to the risk of exacerbation. * Incorrect: B. Edema Unna boots are effective for edema management. * Incorrect: C. ABI >1.0 Normal ABI is not a contraindication. * Incorrect: D. Hemosiderin staining Staining does not contraindicate Unna boot use.
102
Q

What is the clinical purpose of a Subfascial Endoscopic Perforator Surgery (SEPS)? * A. Remove superficial varicose veins * B. Treat incompetent perforator veins * C. Increase venous pressure * D. Improve oxygen diffusion to tissues

A
  • Correct: B. Treat incompetent perforator veins SEPS targets perforator veins to reduce venous reflux and improve circulation. * Incorrect: A. Remove superficial varicose veins SEPS is not designed for superficial vein treatment. * Incorrect: C. Increase venous pressure The goal is to reduce venous pressure, not increase it. * Incorrect: D. Improve oxygen diffusion to tissues SEPS does not directly affect oxygen diffusion.
103
Q

What is the primary goal of venous insufficiency management? * A. Reduce venous hypertension * B. Enhance arterial flow * C. Increase oxygen delivery * D. Prevent neuropathic changes

A
  • Correct: A. Reduce venous hypertension Managing venous hypertension is critical to healing and preventing venous ulcer recurrence. * Incorrect: B. Enhance arterial flow Arterial flow is not the focus of venous management. * Incorrect: C. Increase oxygen delivery Oxygen delivery is not directly addressed in venous ulcer management. * Incorrect: D. Prevent neuropathic changes Neuropathy is not the primary concern in venous insufficiency.
104
Q

What is the primary physiological effect of compression therapy? * A. Increase arterial blood flow * B. Promote venous return and reduce edema * C. Decrease oxygen demand in tissues * D. Prevent skin breakdown

A
  • Correct: B. Promote venous return and reduce edema Compression therapy enhances venous return, reduces venous hypertension, and decreases edema. * Incorrect: A. Increase arterial blood flow Compression primarily targets the venous system, not arterial flow. * Incorrect: C. Decrease oxygen demand in tissues Compression does not directly affect oxygen demand. * Incorrect: D. Prevent skin breakdown Prevention of skin breakdown is a secondary benefit.
105
Q

Which type of compression bandage is most appropriate for active ambulatory patients? * A. Long-stretch bandages * B. Short-stretch bandages * C. Elastic stockings * D. Unna’s Boot

A
  • Correct: B. Short-stretch bandages Short-stretch bandages provide high working pressure during movement, making them ideal for active patients. * Incorrect: A. Long-stretch bandages Long-stretch bandages provide more resting pressure, suitable for less active patients. * Incorrect: C. Elastic stockings These are used for maintenance, not primary therapy. * Incorrect: D. Unna’s Boot This is effective but less adjustable for activity levels.
106
Q

What is the minimum Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) required for safe compression therapy? * A. 0.5 * B. 0.6 * C. 0.8 * D. 1.0

A
  • Correct: C. 0.8 ABI ≥0.8 indicates sufficient arterial perfusion for safe compression therapy. * Incorrect: A. 0.5 ABI <0.8 suggests significant arterial insufficiency and risks ischemia with compression. * Incorrect: B. 0.6 This value indicates borderline safety, requiring caution. * Incorrect: D. 1.0 ABI of 1.0 is normal but not a minimum requirement.
107
Q

What is a contraindication for compression therapy? * A. Mild edema * B. Cellulitis * C. Lymphedema * D. Venous ulcers

A
  • Correct: B. Cellulitis Active cellulitis is a contraindication as compression can exacerbate infection. * Incorrect: A. Mild edema Compression is indicated for edema management. * Incorrect: C. Lymphedema Compression is a cornerstone of lymphedema treatment. * Incorrect: D. Venous ulcers Compression is essential for venous ulcer management.
108
Q

What is the effect of higher stiffness in compression bandages? * A. Increases resting pressure * B. Reduces working pressure * C. Improves venous return during movement * D. Enhances skin hydration

A
  • Correct: C. Improves venous return during movement Higher stiffness creates greater pressure differences, improving venous return during activity. * Incorrect: A. Increases resting pressure Stiff bandages have lower resting pressure. * Incorrect: B. Reduces working pressure Higher stiffness increases working pressure. * Incorrect: D. Enhances skin hydration Compression does not directly affect hydration.
109
Q

Which compression system provides the greatest pressure gradient from distal to proximal? * A. Multi-layer bandage system * B. Elastic stockings * C. Intermittent pneumatic compression * D. Long-stretch bandages

A
  • Correct: A. Multi-layer bandage system Multi-layer bandages create a strong pressure gradient, optimizing venous return. * Incorrect: B. Elastic stockings Stockings provide a consistent gradient but are less adjustable than multi-layer systems. * Incorrect: C. Intermittent pneumatic compression This provides intermittent rather than static gradient pressure. * Incorrect: D. Long-stretch bandages These lack the strong gradient of multi-layer systems.
110
Q

What is the primary purpose of Unna’s Boot? * A. Prevent arterial insufficiency * B. Maintain skin hydration * C. Treat venous ulcers * D. Reduce muscle fatigue

A
  • Correct: C. Treat venous ulcers Unna’s Boot provides consistent compression and supports healing in venous ulcers. * Incorrect: A. Prevent arterial insufficiency Compression does not address arterial insufficiency. * Incorrect: B. Maintain skin hydration While the zinc oxide in Unna’s Boot can support skin integrity, hydration is not its main purpose. * Incorrect: D. Reduce muscle fatigue Unna’s Boot is unrelated to muscle fatigue management.
111
Q

Which compression garment is recommended for long-term venous insufficiency management? * A. Compression wraps * B. Elastic stockings * C. Pneumatic compression device * D. Gel heel cushions

A
  • Correct: B. Elastic stockings Elastic stockings are commonly used for maintenance therapy in chronic venous insufficiency. * Incorrect: A. Compression wraps Wraps are more appropriate for acute or short-term management. * Incorrect: C. Pneumatic compression device These are used for specific conditions, not general maintenance. * Incorrect: D. Gel heel cushions Cushions do not provide therapeutic compression.
112
Q

What is the pressure range typically required to treat venous insufficiency? * A. 10–20 mmHg * B. 20–30 mmHg * C. 30–40 mmHg * D. 40–50 mmHg

A
  • Correct: C. 30–40 mmHg This range provides effective therapeutic compression for venous insufficiency. * Incorrect: A. 10–20 mmHg This range is insufficient for venous insufficiency. * Incorrect: B. 20–30 mmHg This range is used for mild conditions, not venous insufficiency. * Incorrect: D. 40–50 mmHg This range may be excessive for many patients.
113
Q

Which device combines sequential compression with mobility to reduce edema? * A. Multi-layer bandage * B. Intermittent pneumatic compression pump * C. Short-stretch bandage * D. Toe wraps

A
  • Correct: B. Intermittent pneumatic compression pump These pumps enhance venous return by sequentially compressing different sections. * Incorrect: A. Multi-layer bandage Bandages provide static compression, not sequential. * Incorrect: C. Short-stretch bandage These create high working pressure during movement but are not sequential. * Incorrect: D. Toe wraps These address localized compression but do not provide sequential compression.
114
Q

What is the recommended compression for patients with mild lymphedema? * A. 15–20 mmHg * B. 20–30 mmHg * C. 30–40 mmHg * D. 40–50 mmHg

A
  • Correct: B. 20–30 mmHg This range is appropriate for managing mild lymphedema. * Incorrect: A. 15–20 mmHg This range is typically used for prevention or minor swelling. * Incorrect: C. 30–40 mmHg This range is for moderate to severe conditions. * Incorrect: D. 40–50 mmHg This range is generally too high for mild lymphedema.
115
Q

Which patient factor is most critical for ensuring compression therapy success? * A. BMI * B. Skin hydration * C. Compliance with wearing schedules * D. Age

A
  • Correct: C. Compliance with wearing schedules Consistent use is essential for the effectiveness of compression therapy. * Incorrect: A. BMI BMI may affect selection but is not critical for success. * Incorrect: B. Skin hydration While important for comfort, hydration is secondary to compliance. * Incorrect: D. Age Age is not a direct determinant of success.
116
Q

Which type of compression is most suitable for treating active venous ulcers with heavy exudate? * A. Elastic stockings * B. Multi-layer bandage system * C. Pneumatic compression pump * D. Long-stretch bandage

A
  • Correct: B. Multi-layer bandage system Multi-layer systems provide effective compression and manage exudate with absorbent layers. * Incorrect: A. Elastic stockings Stockings are better suited for maintenance therapy. * Incorrect: C. Pneumatic compression pump Pumps are not first-line therapy for active ulcers. * Incorrect: D. Long-stretch bandage These lack sufficient working pressure for venous ulcers.
117
Q

What is the primary function of short-stretch bandages in compression therapy? * A. Maintain consistent pressure at rest * B. Provide high working pressure during activity * C. Reduce arterial perfusion * D. Prevent muscle fatigue

A
  • Correct: B. Provide high working pressure during activity Short-stretch bandages increase pressure during muscle contraction, enhancing venous return. * Incorrect: A. Maintain consistent pressure at rest They provide low resting pressure. * Incorrect: C. Reduce arterial perfusion Compression does not aim to reduce arterial perfusion. * Incorrect: D. Prevent muscle fatigue Muscle fatigue is not directly addressed by compression.
118
Q

Which compression product is best for localized edema in toes or forefoot? * A. Elastic stockings * B. Toe wraps * C. Pneumatic compression pump * D. Multi-layer bandage system

A
  • Correct: B. Toe wraps Toe wraps effectively target localized swelling in the toes or forefoot. * Incorrect: A. Elastic stockings Stockings provide general compression but may not address localized edema. * Incorrect: C. Pneumatic compression pump Pumps are not ideal for small, localized areas. * Incorrect: D. Multi-layer bandage system Multi-layer systems address larger areas, not localized edema.
119
Q

What is the key mechanism of intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC) in managing lymphedema? * A. Reduces venous hypertension * B. Enhances lymphatic drainage * C. Increases arterial perfusion * D. Prevents muscle atrophy

A
  • Correct: B. Enhances lymphatic drainage IPC stimulates lymphatic flow, reducing fluid accumulation in lymphedema. * Incorrect: A. Reduces venous hypertension IPC can reduce venous pressure, but its primary mechanism in lymphedema is lymphatic drainage. * Incorrect: C. Increases arterial perfusion IPC does not directly affect arterial flow. * Incorrect: D. Prevents muscle atrophy Muscle atrophy is unrelated to IPC use.
120
Q

What is a contraindication for intermittent pneumatic compression? * A. Peripheral edema * B. DVT or thrombophlebitis * C. Post-surgical swelling * D. Chronic venous insufficiency

A
  • Correct: B. DVT or thrombophlebitis IPC is contraindicated in active DVT or thrombophlebitis due to the risk of embolism. * Incorrect: A. Peripheral edema IPC is commonly used to manage edema. * Incorrect: C. Post-surgical swelling IPC is often beneficial in post-surgical edema management. * Incorrect: D. Chronic venous insufficiency IPC is an effective adjunct in managing venous insufficiency.
121
Q

Which compression pressure is recommended for managing moderate lymphedema? * A. 10–20 mmHg * B. 20–30 mmHg * C. 30–40 mmHg * D. 40–50 mmHg

A
  • Correct: C. 30–40 mmHg This range is effective for managing moderate lymphedema. * Incorrect: A. 10–20 mmHg This range is insufficient for moderate lymphedema. * Incorrect: B. 20–30 mmHg This range is used for mild lymphedema. * Incorrect: D. 40–50 mmHg This range may be excessive for moderate cases.
122
Q

What is the purpose of graduated compression in venous insufficiency management? * A. Equalize pressure throughout the limb * B. Create a distal-to-proximal pressure gradient * C. Increase muscle contraction * D. Prevent arterial ischemia

A
  • Correct: B. Create a distal-to-proximal pressure gradient Graduated compression improves venous return by increasing pressure distally and decreasing proximally. * Incorrect: A. Equalize pressure throughout the limb Compression is not equal across the limb. * Incorrect: C. Increase muscle contraction Compression indirectly supports muscle function but does not increase contraction. * Incorrect: D. Prevent arterial ischemia Compression does not address arterial issues.
123
Q

Which material is commonly used in short-stretch bandages? * A. Zinc oxide * B. Elastic fibers * C. Cotton and non-elastic fibers * D. Silicone gel

A
  • Correct: C. Cotton and non-elastic fibers Short-stretch bandages use materials that provide low stretch and high stiffness. * Incorrect: A. Zinc oxide Zinc oxide is used in Unna boots, not short-stretch bandages. * Incorrect: B. Elastic fibers Elastic fibers are characteristic of long-stretch bandages. * Incorrect: D. Silicone gel Silicone gel is used in scar management, not bandages.
124
Q

What is the key difference between static and dynamic compression? * A. Static compression uses pumps * B. Dynamic compression adjusts pressure with movement * C. Static compression requires patient activity * D. Dynamic compression is contraindicated for venous ulcers

A
  • Correct: B. Dynamic compression adjusts pressure with movement Dynamic compression, such as IPC, changes pressure during use, unlike static compression. * Incorrect: A. Static compression uses pumps Static compression does not involve pumps. * Incorrect: C. Static compression requires patient activity Static compression works regardless of activity level. * Incorrect: D. Dynamic compression is contraindicated for venous ulcers Dynamic compression is not contraindicated.
125
Q

What is the typical lifespan of compression stockings before replacement is recommended? * A. 1 month * B. 3 months * C. 6 months * D. 12 months

A
  • Correct: C. 6 months Compression stockings typically lose elasticity after 6 months and should be replaced. * Incorrect: A. 1 month One month is too short for typical stocking use. * Incorrect: B. 3 months Stockings usually last longer than 3 months. * Incorrect: D. 12 months Elasticity is often insufficient after 12 months.
126
Q

Which compression therapy is most appropriate for managing acute edema after surgery? * A. Elastic stockings * B. Intermittent pneumatic compression * C. Hydrocolloid dressings * D. Short-stretch bandages

A
  • Correct: B. Intermittent pneumatic compression IPC effectively reduces acute post-surgical edema. * Incorrect: A. Elastic stockings Stockings are for maintenance, not acute edema. * Incorrect: C. Hydrocolloid dressings These address wound moisture, not edema. * Incorrect: D. Short-stretch bandages Bandages are less effective for acute swelling compared to IPC.
127
Q

What is the key consideration when selecting compression therapy for elderly patients? * A. High working pressure * B. Low resting pressure * C. Skin integrity and tolerance * D. High compression gradients

A
  • Correct: C. Skin integrity and tolerance Elderly patients often have fragile skin, requiring careful selection of compression materials. * Incorrect: A. High working pressure High working pressure may not be well-tolerated by elderly patients. * Incorrect: B. Low resting pressure This is less critical than skin integrity. * Incorrect: D. High compression gradients Compression gradients should be adjusted based on patient needs, not age alone.
128
Q

What is the primary function of the lymphatic system? * A. Transport oxygen to tissues * B. Remove interstitial fluid and transport immune cells * C. Regulate blood pressure * D. Maintain muscle tone

A
  • Correct: B. Remove interstitial fluid and transport immune cells The lymphatic system manages fluid balance and immune responses. * Incorrect: A. Transport oxygen to tissues Oxygen transport is handled by the circulatory system. * Incorrect: C. Regulate blood pressure This is a function of the cardiovascular system. * Incorrect: D. Maintain muscle tone Muscle tone is unrelated to the lymphatic system.
129
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary lymphedema worldwide? * A. Malignancy * B. Filariasis * C. Obesity * D. Trauma

A
  • Correct: B. Filariasis Filariasis, a parasitic infection, is the leading cause of secondary lymphedema globally. * Incorrect: A. Malignancy Cancer is a leading cause in developed countries but not worldwide. * Incorrect: C. Obesity Obesity contributes to secondary lymphedema but is not the primary global cause. * Incorrect: D. Trauma Trauma is a potential cause but less common than filariasis.
130
Q

Which structure is responsible for collecting lymph from the lower body? * A. Thoracic duct * B. Cisterna chyli * C. Axillary nodes * D. Right lymphatic duct

A
  • Correct: B. Cisterna chyli The cisterna chyli collects lymph from the lower body and drains into the thoracic duct. * Incorrect: A. Thoracic duct The thoracic duct transports lymph to the venous system but does not collect from the lower body. * Incorrect: C. Axillary nodes These nodes manage lymph from the upper extremities and chest. * Incorrect: D. Right lymphatic duct This duct drains lymph from the right upper body, not the lower body.
131
Q

Which condition is characterized by non-pitting edema and fibrosis in advanced stages? * A. Venous insufficiency * B. Lymphedema * C. Lipedema * D. Arterial insufficiency

A
  • Correct: B. Lymphedema Advanced lymphedema causes non-pitting edema and fibrosis due to chronic lymph stasis. * Incorrect: A. Venous insufficiency Venous edema is typically pitting, not non-pitting. * Incorrect: C. Lipedema Lipedema involves fat deposition and is not characterized by fibrosis. * Incorrect: D. Arterial insufficiency Arterial insufficiency leads to ischemic symptoms, not lymphedema.
132
Q

What is the hallmark characteristic of primary lymphedema? * A. Sudden onset after infection * B. Congenital or hereditary origin * C. Symmetric bilateral swelling * D. Associated with venous ulcers

A
  • Correct: B. Congenital or hereditary origin Primary lymphedema is caused by congenital or hereditary lymphatic abnormalities. * Incorrect: A. Sudden onset after infection This is more indicative of secondary lymphedema. * Incorrect: C. Symmetric bilateral swelling Lymphedema is often asymmetric. * Incorrect: D. Associated with venous ulcers Venous ulcers are not a hallmark of primary lymphedema.
133
Q

What is a common risk factor for secondary lymphedema? * A. Family history of edema * B. History of cancer treatment with lymph node dissection * C. Low BMI * D. Regular physical activity

A
  • Correct: B. History of cancer treatment with lymph node dissection Lymph node dissection disrupts lymphatic pathways, increasing lymphedema risk. * Incorrect: A. Family history of edema This is more relevant to primary lymphedema. * Incorrect: C. Low BMI Obesity, not low BMI, is a risk factor. * Incorrect: D. Regular physical activity Physical activity is protective, not a risk factor.
134
Q

Which test measures lymphatic insufficiency by assessing protein concentration in tissue fluid? * A. Stemmer’s sign * B. Bioimpedance spectroscopy * C. Fluoroscopy * D. Lymphoscintigraphy

A
  • Correct: B. Bioimpedance spectroscopy This test evaluates tissue fluid composition to identify lymphatic insufficiency. * Incorrect: A. Stemmer’s sign This is a clinical test for skin thickening. * Incorrect: C. Fluoroscopy Fluoroscopy visualizes lymphatic anatomy but does not assess protein concentration. * Incorrect: D. Lymphoscintigraphy This imaging test assesses lymphatic flow, not fluid protein levels.
135
Q

What is the clinical significance of a positive Stemmer’s sign? * A. Indicates arterial insufficiency * B. Suggests venous stasis * C. Confirms lymphedema * D. Diagnoses neuropathy

A
  • Correct: C. Confirms lymphedema A positive Stemmer’s sign, indicated by inability to pinch the skin, is a reliable diagnostic sign of lymphedema. * Incorrect: A. Indicates arterial insufficiency Arterial insufficiency does not cause skin thickening. * Incorrect: B. Suggests venous stasis Venous stasis edema does not typically present with Stemmer’s sign. * Incorrect: D. Diagnoses neuropathy Neuropathy is unrelated to Stemmer’s sign.
136
Q

Which stage of lymphedema is characterized by spontaneous reversibility with elevation? * A. Stage 0 * B. Stage 1 * C. Stage 2 * D. Stage 3

A
  • Correct: B. Stage 1 In Stage 1 lymphedema, swelling is reversible with elevation and does not involve fibrosis. * Incorrect: A. Stage 0 Stage 0 involves latent lymphedema with no visible swelling. * Incorrect: C. Stage 2 Stage 2 involves irreversible swelling and fibrosis. * Incorrect: D. Stage 3 Stage 3 is the most advanced, with severe fibrosis and deformity.
137
Q

What is the purpose of manual lymphatic drainage (MLD) in lymphedema management? * A. Break down fibrotic tissue * B. Increase lymphatic flow and reduce fluid buildup * C. Promote angiogenesis * D. Improve muscle strength

A
  • Correct: B. Increase lymphatic flow and reduce fluid buildup MLD uses gentle techniques to stimulate lymphatic drainage and reduce edema. * Incorrect: A. Break down fibrotic tissue MLD does not directly address fibrosis. * Incorrect: C. Promote angiogenesis MLD focuses on lymphatic, not vascular, flow. * Incorrect: D. Improve muscle strength MLD does not target muscle function.
138
Q

What is a contraindication for manual lymphatic drainage? * A. Mild edema * B. Active infection * C. Fibrosis * D. Venous insufficiency

A
  • Correct: B. Active infection MLD is contraindicated in active infections to avoid spreading pathogens. * Incorrect: A. Mild edema MLD is effective for reducing mild edema. * Incorrect: C. Fibrosis MLD is not contraindicated for fibrosis. * Incorrect: D. Venous insufficiency MLD can complement venous insufficiency management.
139
Q

Which compression class is recommended for managing moderate lymphedema? * A. Class I (15–20 mmHg) * B. Class II (20–30 mmHg) * C. Class III (30–40 mmHg) * D. Class IV (>40 mmHg)

A
  • Correct: C. Class III (30–40 mmHg) This level provides adequate pressure for moderate lymphedema management. * Incorrect: A. Class I (15–20 mmHg) This is insufficient for moderate cases. * Incorrect: B. Class II (20–30 mmHg) This is appropriate for mild cases. * Incorrect: D. Class IV (>40 mmHg) This is used for severe or refractory cases.
140
Q

Which exercise type is most beneficial for lymphedema management? * A. Isometric exercises * B. Resistance training * C. Aerobic exercise * D. Gentle, rhythmic movements

A
  • Correct: D. Gentle, rhythmic movements Gentle exercises stimulate lymphatic flow and reduce fluid accumulation without increasing strain. * Incorrect: A. Isometric exercises Isometric exercises do not promote lymphatic flow effectively. * Incorrect: B. Resistance training Resistance training can be used cautiously but is less beneficial than gentle movements. * Incorrect: C. Aerobic exercise Aerobic exercise benefits overall health but is less targeted for lymphedema.
141
Q

What is the primary purpose of compression bandaging in lymphedema management? * A. Increase arterial blood flow * B. Promote lymphatic return and prevent fluid reaccumulation * C. Improve skin elasticity * D. Reduce muscle fatigue

A
  • Correct: B. Promote lymphatic return and prevent fluid reaccumulation Compression reduces edema by promoting lymphatic drainage and preventing fluid accumulation. * Incorrect: A. Increase arterial blood flow Compression targets the lymphatic system, not arterial flow. * Incorrect: C. Improve skin elasticity Skin elasticity is not directly improved by compression. * Incorrect: D. Reduce muscle fatigue Compression does not address muscle fatigue.
142
Q

Which stage of lymphedema is characterized by irreversible swelling and fibrosis? * A. Stage 0 * B. Stage 1 * C. Stage 2 * D. Stage 3

A
  • Correct: C. Stage 2 Stage 2 lymphedema involves irreversible swelling and the onset of fibrosis. * Incorrect: A. Stage 0 This stage involves latent lymphedema with no visible symptoms. * Incorrect: B. Stage 1 Swelling is still reversible in Stage 1. * Incorrect: D. Stage 3 Stage 3 is the most advanced, with severe fibrosis and deformity.
143
Q

What is the significance of a negative Stemmer’s sign in lymphedema assessment? * A. Confirms early-stage lymphedema * B. Suggests another cause of swelling * C. Indicates venous insufficiency * D. Confirms primary lymphedema

A
  • Correct: B. Suggests another cause of swelling A negative Stemmer’s sign suggests that swelling may not be due to lymphedema. * Incorrect: A. Confirms early-stage lymphedema A positive, not negative, Stemmer’s sign supports lymphedema diagnosis. * Incorrect: C. Indicates venous insufficiency Venous insufficiency does not correlate directly with Stemmer’s sign. * Incorrect: D. Confirms primary lymphedema A positive Stemmer’s sign is indicative, not negative.
144
Q

Which type of lymphedema is most commonly associated with obesity? * A. Congenital lymphedema * B. Secondary lymphedema * C. Primary lymphedema tarda * D. Idiopathic lymphedema

A
  • Correct: B. Secondary lymphedema Obesity is a common risk factor for secondary lymphedema due to mechanical compression and inflammation. * Incorrect: A. Congenital lymphedema This occurs due to genetic abnormalities, unrelated to obesity. * Incorrect: C. Primary lymphedema tarda This develops later in life but is not specifically linked to obesity. * Incorrect: D. Idiopathic lymphedema Idiopathic cases have no identifiable cause.
145
Q

What is a primary benefit of aquatic exercise for patients with lymphedema? * A. Increased resistance for muscle strengthening * B. Reduced gravity effects aiding lymphatic flow * C. Improved cardiovascular endurance * D. Enhanced joint mobility

A
  • Correct: B. Reduced gravity effects aiding lymphatic flow Water immersion supports lymphatic flow by reducing gravitational forces and providing gentle compression. * Incorrect: A. Increased resistance for muscle strengthening Resistance training is not the primary benefit for lymphedema. * Incorrect: C. Improved cardiovascular endurance Cardiovascular benefits are secondary. * Incorrect: D. Enhanced joint mobility Joint mobility is not specific to lymphedema.
146
Q

Which manual therapy technique is contraindicated in patients with cardiac edema? * A. Effleurage * B. Manual lymphatic drainage (MLD) * C. Petrissage * D. Trigger point therapy

A
  • Correct: B. Manual lymphatic drainage (MLD) MLD is contraindicated in cardiac edema as it may exacerbate fluid overload. * Incorrect: A. Effleurage Effleurage does not specifically target the lymphatic system. * Incorrect: C. Petrissage Petrissage focuses on muscle manipulation, not lymphatics. * Incorrect: D. Trigger point therapy This is unrelated to lymphatic drainage.
147
Q

What is the purpose of multilayer compression bandaging in lymphedema management? * A. Provide uniform compression * B. Maintain low resting pressure * C. Deliver graduated compression for lymphatic flow * D. Improve arterial circulation

A
  • Correct: C. Deliver graduated compression for lymphatic flow Multilayer bandages provide a pressure gradient to promote lymphatic drainage. * Incorrect: A. Provide uniform compression Compression is graduated, not uniform. * Incorrect: B. Maintain low resting pressure Resting pressure varies based on the bandage system. * Incorrect: D. Improve arterial circulation The focus is on lymphatic flow, not arterial circulation.
148
Q

What is the recommended daily duration for wearing compression garments in lymphedema? * A. 6 hours * B. 8 hours * C. 12–16 hours * D. 20–24 hours

A
  • Correct: C. 12–16 hours Compression garments should be worn during waking hours to manage lymphedema effectively. * Incorrect: A. 6 hours This is insufficient for therapeutic outcomes. * Incorrect: B. 8 hours Eight hours may not provide optimal results. * Incorrect: D. 20–24 hours Continuous wear, including sleep, is typically unnecessary.
149
Q

What distinguishes lymphedema from lipedema? * A. Lymphedema involves symmetrical swelling * B. Lipedema spares the hands and feet * C. Lymphedema is triggered by trauma * D. Lipedema leads to fibrosis

A
  • Correct: B. Lipedema spares the hands and feet Lipedema affects the lower body but spares the extremities, unlike lymphedema. * Incorrect: A. Lymphedema involves symmetrical swelling Lymphedema is often asymmetrical. * Incorrect: C. Lymphedema is triggered by trauma This can apply to secondary lymphedema but is not diagnostic. * Incorrect: D. Lipedema leads to fibrosis Fibrosis is more characteristic of advanced lymphedema.
150
Q

Which imaging modality is most effective for assessing lymphatic system abnormalities? * A. X-ray * B. MRI * C. Lymphoscintigraphy * D. Ultrasound

A
  • Correct: C. Lymphoscintigraphy Lymphoscintigraphy provides detailed imaging of lymphatic flow and blockages. * Incorrect: A. X-ray X-rays do not visualize the lymphatic system. * Incorrect: B. MRI MRI may show tissue edema but lacks specificity for lymphatics. * Incorrect: D. Ultrasound Ultrasound evaluates fluid accumulation but not lymphatic pathways.
151
Q

What is a common early symptom of lymphedema? * A. Painful swelling * B. Skin fibrosis * C. Feeling of heaviness in the limb * D. Visible discoloration

A
  • Correct: C. Feeling of heaviness in the limb Heaviness and tightness are early symptoms of lymphedema. * Incorrect: A. Painful swelling Lymphedema is typically painless in early stages. * Incorrect: B. Skin fibrosis Fibrosis occurs in advanced stages. * Incorrect: D. Visible discoloration Discoloration is not an early symptom.
152
Q

What is the most common cause of thermal burns? * A. Open flames * B. Chemicals * C. Electricity * D. Radiation

A
  • Correct: A. Open flames Open flames are the leading cause of thermal burns. * Incorrect: B. Chemicals Chemical burns are less common than thermal burns. * Incorrect: C. Electricity Electrical burns are rare and specific to occupational or accidental exposure. * Incorrect: D. Radiation Radiation burns are uncommon in general populations.
153
Q

Which burn classification involves damage to the epidermis and dermis with blister formation? * A. Superficial * B. Superficial partial-thickness * C. Deep partial-thickness * D. Full-thickness

A
  • Correct: B. Superficial partial-thickness This type of burn affects the epidermis and dermis, resulting in blisters. * Incorrect: A. Superficial Superficial burns only involve the epidermis. * Incorrect: C. Deep partial-thickness These burns damage deeper dermal layers and may not form blisters. * Incorrect: D. Full-thickness Full-thickness burns extend through the dermis into subcutaneous tissue.
154
Q

What is the primary method used to estimate burn size in adults? * A. Lund-Browder chart * B. Rule of Nines * C. Palmar method * D. Parkland formula

A
  • Correct: B. Rule of Nines The Rule of Nines is a quick method to estimate burn size in adults. * Incorrect: A. Lund-Browder chart This is more detailed and used primarily for children. * Incorrect: C. Palmar method The Palmar method estimates small burns using the patient’s palm size. * Incorrect: D. Parkland formula This is used for fluid resuscitation, not burn size estimation.
155
Q

Which zone in the pathophysiology of a burn is most likely to recover? * A. Zone of coagulation * B. Zone of stasis * C. Zone of hyperemia * D. Zone of necrosis

A
  • Correct: C. Zone of hyperemia The zone of hyperemia typically recovers due to adequate blood supply. * Incorrect: A. Zone of coagulation This zone is irreversibly damaged. * Incorrect: B. Zone of stasis This zone is at risk of further damage without intervention. * Incorrect: D. Zone of necrosis Necrosis is not a term used in burn zones.
156
Q

What is the hallmark characteristic of an electrical burn? * A. Blister formation * B. Entry and exit wounds * C. Charring of skin * D. Radiation effects

A
  • Correct: B. Entry and exit wounds Electrical burns typically present with distinct entry and exit points. * Incorrect: A. Blister formation Blisters are more characteristic of superficial partial-thickness burns. * Incorrect: C. Charring of skin Charring may occur but is not specific to electrical burns. * Incorrect: D. Radiation effects Radiation effects are unrelated to electrical burns.
157
Q

Which layer is affected in a full-thickness burn? * A. Epidermis only * B. Epidermis and dermis * C. Dermis and subcutaneous tissue * D. Epidermis, dermis, and deeper structures

A
  • Correct: D. Epidermis, dermis, and deeper structures Full-thickness burns extend through the skin into underlying tissues. * Incorrect: A. Epidermis only This describes superficial burns. * Incorrect: B. Epidermis and dermis Partial-thickness burns involve these layers. * Incorrect: C. Dermis and subcutaneous tissue This description is incomplete for full-thickness burns.
158
Q

What is the purpose of the Parkland formula in burn management? * A. Estimate burn size * B. Calculate fluid resuscitation needs * C. Assess infection risk * D. Determine grafting requirements

A
  • Correct: B. Calculate fluid resuscitation needs The Parkland formula calculates the volume of fluids needed for initial resuscitation. * Incorrect: A. Estimate burn size Burn size is estimated using methods like the Rule of Nines. * Incorrect: C. Assess infection risk The formula does not evaluate infection. * Incorrect: D. Determine grafting requirements Grafting decisions are based on wound depth and size.
159
Q

Which type of topical agent is commonly used to prevent infection in burn wounds? * A. Bacitracin * B. Mupirocin * C. Silver sulfadiazine * D. Hydrocortisone

A
  • Correct: C. Silver sulfadiazine This agent is widely used for its antimicrobial properties in burn care. * Incorrect: A. Bacitracin Bacitracin is effective for minor wounds but not first-line for burns. * Incorrect: B. Mupirocin Mupirocin targets specific infections, not general burn care. * Incorrect: D. Hydrocortisone This is an anti-inflammatory, not an antimicrobial.
160
Q

What is the primary complication associated with circumferential burns? * A. Increased infection risk * B. Restricted blood flow and compartment syndrome * C. Reduced immune response * D. Delayed healing time

A
  • Correct: B. Restricted blood flow and compartment syndrome Circumferential burns can constrict blood flow, leading to compartment syndrome. * Incorrect: A. Increased infection risk This is a complication of all burns, not specific to circumferential burns. * Incorrect: C. Reduced immune response Immune effects are systemic, not specific to circumferential burns. * Incorrect: D. Delayed healing time Delayed healing is a general burn concern.
161
Q

What intervention is indicated for eschar restricting chest expansion in burn patients? * A. Skin grafting * B. Escharotomy * C. Wound debridement * D. Negative pressure wound therapy

A
  • Correct: B. Escharotomy Escharotomy relieves pressure and restores chest expansion. * Incorrect: A. Skin grafting Grafting is a later-stage intervention. * Incorrect: C. Wound debridement Debridement removes necrotic tissue but does not relieve pressure. * Incorrect: D. Negative pressure wound therapy This is not used for acute restriction relief.
162
Q

Which burn classification requires grafting for wound closure? * A. Superficial burns * B. Partial-thickness burns * C. Deep partial-thickness burns * D. Full-thickness burns

A
  • Correct: D. Full-thickness burns Grafting is often required for full-thickness burns due to the loss of all skin layers. * Incorrect: A. Superficial burns These heal without intervention. * Incorrect: B. Partial-thickness burns Partial-thickness burns typically heal with conservative care. * Incorrect: C. Deep partial-thickness burns These may require grafting but not always.
163
Q

Which scar management strategy involves pressure garments? * A. Reduce pain * B. Prevent contractures * C. Minimize hypertrophic scarring * D. Promote moisture retention

A
  • Correct: C. Minimize hypertrophic scarring Pressure garments help remodel collagen and reduce scarring. * Incorrect: A. Reduce pain Pain management involves other modalities. * Incorrect: B. Prevent contractures ROM exercises and splints address contractures. * Incorrect: D. Promote moisture retention Pressure garments do not impact moisture.
164
Q

What is the typical healing time for superficial partial-thickness burns? * A. 2–5 days * B. 7–21 days * C. 3–4 weeks * D. More than 4 weeks

A
  • Correct: B. 7–21 days Superficial partial-thickness burns heal within this time frame. * Incorrect: A. 2–5 days This time frame is too short for superficial partial-thickness burns. * Incorrect: C. 3–4 weeks This applies to deeper burns. * Incorrect: D. More than 4 weeks This is typical of chronic wounds, not superficial partial-thickness burns.
165
Q

What is the primary concern with chemical burns? * A. Heat damage * B. Ongoing tissue destruction * C. Pain management * D. Risk of infection

A
  • Correct: B. Ongoing tissue destruction Chemical burns continue to damage tissue until the chemical is neutralized. * Incorrect: A. Heat damage Heat is unrelated to chemical burns. * **Incorrect:
166
Q

Which method is most appropriate for estimating burn size in children? * A. Rule of Nines * B. Palmar method * C. Lund-Browder chart * D. Parkland formula

A
  • Correct: C. Lund-Browder chart This method accounts for differences in body proportions in children. * Incorrect: A. Rule of Nines This is less accurate in children due to their body proportion differences. * Incorrect: B. Palmar method This is used for small, localized burns. * Incorrect: D. Parkland formula This calculates fluid resuscitation needs, not burn size.
167
Q

What is the first step in treating chemical burns? * A. Apply a topical antibiotic * B. Irrigate with copious amounts of water * C. Cover the burn with a sterile dressing * D. Neutralize the chemical with an antidote

A
  • Correct: B. Irrigate with copious amounts of water Immediate irrigation dilutes and removes the chemical, minimizing tissue damage. * Incorrect: A. Apply a topical antibiotic This is not the first step in chemical burn management. * Incorrect: C. Cover the burn with a sterile dressing This follows irrigation. * Incorrect: D. Neutralize the chemical with an antidote Neutralization is rarely recommended due to risks.
168
Q

Which burn depth is characterized by white, leathery skin with no sensation? * A. Superficial partial-thickness * B. Deep partial-thickness * C. Full-thickness * D. Subdermal

A
  • Correct: C. Full-thickness Full-thickness burns destroy nerve endings, resulting in white, leathery, insensate skin. * Incorrect: A. Superficial partial-thickness These burns retain sensation and are pink with blisters. * Incorrect: B. Deep partial-thickness These burns may be red or white and still have some sensation. * Incorrect: D. Subdermal Subdermal burns involve underlying structures like muscle or bone.
169
Q

What is the most reliable indicator of adequate fluid resuscitation in burn patients? * A. Blood pressure * B. Heart rate * C. Urine output * D. Skin turgor

A
  • Correct: C. Urine output Monitoring urine output ensures sufficient perfusion and fluid balance. * Incorrect: A. Blood pressure Blood pressure can be misleading in early burn shock. * Incorrect: B. Heart rate Tachycardia may persist despite adequate resuscitation. * Incorrect: D. Skin turgor This is a less specific indicator of fluid status.
170
Q

Which type of graft is sourced from the patient’s own skin? * A. Allograft * B. Xenograft * C. Autograft * D. Synthetic graft

A
  • Correct: C. Autograft Autografts use the patient’s skin and are ideal for permanent coverage. * Incorrect: A. Allograft Allografts are temporary grafts from human donors. * Incorrect: B. Xenograft Xenografts are temporary grafts from animal sources. * Incorrect: D. Synthetic graft Synthetic grafts are man-made materials for temporary use.
171
Q

What is the primary purpose of escharotomy in burn patients? * A. Remove necrotic tissue * B. Prevent infection * C. Relieve pressure and restore circulation * D. Prepare for skin grafting

A
  • Correct: C. Relieve pressure and restore circulation Escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure from circumferential burns and prevent ischemia. * Incorrect: A. Remove necrotic tissue Debridement addresses necrotic tissue, not escharotomy. * Incorrect: B. Prevent infection While beneficial, this is not the primary goal of escharotomy. * Incorrect: D. Prepare for skin grafting Escharotomy is not directly related to graft preparation.
172
Q

Which type of burn is most likely to require an escharotomy? * A. Superficial burns * B. Partial-thickness burns * C. Full-thickness circumferential burns * D. Electrical burns

A
  • Correct: C. Full-thickness circumferential burns These burns can restrict circulation, necessitating escharotomy. * Incorrect: A. Superficial burns These do not penetrate deeply enough to cause pressure complications. * Incorrect: B. Partial-thickness burns These are less likely to require escharotomy. * Incorrect: D. Electrical burns These may require escharotomy but not as commonly as circumferential full-thickness burns.
173
Q

Which systemic effect is common in severe burn injuries? * A. Hypervolemia * B. Hypometabolism * C. Hypermetabolism * D. Hyperthermia

A
  • Correct: C. Hypermetabolism Severe burns trigger a hypermetabolic state to support healing and energy needs. * Incorrect: A. Hypervolemia Hypovolemia is common due to fluid loss. * Incorrect: B. Hypometabolism The opposite, hypermetabolism, occurs. * Incorrect: D. Hyperthermia Hyperthermia is not a direct systemic effect of burns.
174
Q

What intervention reduces the risk of joint contractures in burn patients? * A. Immobilization * B. Pressure garments * C. Range of motion exercises * D. Topical antibiotics

A
  • Correct: C. Range of motion exercises Regular ROM exercises prevent joint contractures in burn patients. * Incorrect: A. Immobilization Prolonged immobilization increases the risk of contractures. * Incorrect: B. Pressure garments Pressure garments minimize scarring but do not prevent contractures. * Incorrect: D. Topical antibiotics These address infection but do not impact contracture prevention.
175
Q

Which complication is most associated with inhalation injuries in burn patients? * A. Pneumothorax * B. Respiratory distress * C. Pleural effusion * D. Pulmonary fibrosis

A
  • Correct: B. Respiratory distress Inhalation injuries can cause airway edema and respiratory distress. * Incorrect: A. Pneumothorax This is unrelated to inhalation injuries. * Incorrect: C. Pleural effusion Pleural effusion is not commonly associated with burns. * Incorrect: D. Pulmonary fibrosis Fibrosis is a chronic, not acute, condition.
176
Q

Which intervention helps reduce the risk of hypertrophic scarring in burn patients? * A. Daily wound debridement * B. Pressure garment use * C. Skin grafting * D. ROM exercises

A
  • Correct: B. Pressure garment use Pressure garments help remodel collagen and minimize hypertrophic scarring. * Incorrect: A. Daily wound debridement Debridement prevents infection but does not directly reduce scarring. * Incorrect: C. Skin grafting Grafting covers wounds but does not prevent hypertrophic scarring. * Incorrect: D. ROM exercises ROM prevents contractures but does not directly reduce scarring.
177
Q

What is a characteristic sign of superficial burns? * A. Blister formation * B. Dry, red skin without blisters * C. Leathery, white appearance * D. Absence of pain

A
  • Correct: B. Dry, red skin without blisters Superficial burns cause redness and dry skin without blistering. * Incorrect: A. Blister formation This occurs in superficial partial-thickness burns. * Incorrect: C. Leathery, white appearance This is characteristic of full-thickness burns. * Incorrect: D. Absence of pain Pain is present in superficial burns.
178
Q

Which method prevents wound desiccation during burn care? * A. Applying antimicrobial creams * B. Using occlusive dressings * C. Frequent dressing changes * D. Administering systemic antibiotics

A
  • Correct: B. Using occlusive dressings Occlusive dressings retain moisture and prevent wound desiccation. * Incorrect: A. Applying antimicrobial creams These prevent infection but do not retain moisture. * Incorrect: C. Frequent dressing changes Frequent changes can increase desiccation. * Incorrect: D. Administering systemic antibiotics These address systemic infection but do not impact wound moisture.
179
Q

What is the defining characteristic of a skin tear? * A. Complete loss of skin layers * B. Separation of epidermis from dermis * C. Deep wound extending to muscle * D. Irregular wound with necrotic tissue

A
  • Correct: B. Separation of epidermis from dermis Skin tears occur when the epidermis separates from the dermis, often due to friction or shear forces. * Incorrect: A. Complete loss of skin layers This describes full-thickness wounds. * Incorrect: C. Deep wound extending to muscle This is not characteristic of a skin tear. * Incorrect: D. Irregular wound with necrotic tissue Necrosis is not typical of skin tears.
180
Q

Which classification system is used to categorize skin tears? * A. CEAP * B. Payne-Martin * C. Wagner * D. Braden Scale

A
  • Correct: B. Payne-Martin This system categorizes skin tears based on the extent of tissue damage. * Incorrect: A. CEAP CEAP is used for venous disorders. * Incorrect: C. Wagner Wagner classification is for diabetic foot ulcers. * Incorrect: D. Braden Scale Braden assesses pressure ulcer risk, not skin tears.
181
Q

What is the primary management goal for animal bite wounds? * A. Immediate closure with sutures * B. Prevent infection through debridement and cleaning * C. Use occlusive dressings * D. Apply compression therapy

A
  • Correct: B. Prevent infection through debridement and cleaning Animal bites are prone to infection and require thorough cleaning and debridement. * Incorrect: A. Immediate closure with sutures Immediate closure is often avoided due to infection risk. * Incorrect: C. Use occlusive dressings Occlusive dressings may trap bacteria. * Incorrect: D. Apply compression therapy Compression is not appropriate for bite wounds.
182
Q

Which spider bite is associated with a necrotic wound and systemic symptoms? * A. Black Widow * B. Brown Recluse * C. Tarantula * D. Hobo Spider

A
  • Correct: B. Brown Recluse Brown Recluse bites can cause necrotic wounds and systemic effects such as fever and malaise. * Incorrect: A. Black Widow Black Widow bites cause neurological symptoms, not necrosis. * Incorrect: C. Tarantula Tarantula bites are typically not medically significant. * Incorrect: D. Hobo Spider Hobo Spider bites are controversial in causing necrosis.
183
Q

What is the appropriate first-line treatment for frostbite? * A. Debridement of necrotic tissue * B. Rapid rewarming in warm water * C. Applying topical antibiotics * D. Immersion in ice water

A
  • Correct: B. Rapid rewarming in warm water Warm water immersion restores blood flow and minimizes tissue damage. * Incorrect: A. Debridement of necrotic tissue This is not the first-line treatment. * Incorrect: C. Applying topical antibiotics Antibiotics are secondary to rewarming. * Incorrect: D. Immersion in ice water Ice water worsens frostbite damage.
184
Q

What is the hallmark feature of wound dehiscence? * A. Erythema and swelling * B. Separation of surgical wound edges * C. Presence of exudate * D. Formation of granulation tissue

A
  • Correct: B. Separation of surgical wound edges Dehiscence occurs when surgical wound edges separate before healing is complete. * Incorrect: A. Erythema and swelling These are signs of inflammation, not dehiscence. * Incorrect: C. Presence of exudate Exudate may accompany dehiscence but is not its hallmark. * Incorrect: D. Formation of granulation tissue Granulation tissue is a sign of healing, not dehiscence.
185
Q

What is the primary indication for flap surgery in wound management? * A. Addressing minor skin tears * B. Covering large wounds with poor vascular supply * C. Treating superficial abrasions * D. Preventing hypertrophic scars

A
  • Correct: B. Covering large wounds with poor vascular supply Flaps are used to provide vascularized tissue to large or poorly healing wounds. * Incorrect: A. Addressing minor skin tears Skin tears do not typically require flaps. * Incorrect: C. Treating superficial abrasions Abrasions heal without flaps. * Incorrect: D. Preventing hypertrophic scars Scar prevention is not the primary purpose of flaps.
186
Q

What is the primary goal of residual limb shaping after amputation? * A. Promote rapid healing * B. Prepare the limb for prosthetic fitting * C. Prevent infection * D. Reduce phantom limb pain

A
  • Correct: B. Prepare the limb for prosthetic fitting Shaping ensures optimal prosthetic fit and function. * Incorrect: A. Promote rapid healing Shaping indirectly aids healing but is not its primary goal. * Incorrect: C. Prevent infection Infection prevention involves other interventions. * Incorrect: D. Reduce phantom limb pain Shaping does not address phantom limb pain directly.
187
Q

Which surgical wound classification carries the highest risk of infection? * A. Clean * B. Clean-contaminated * C. Contaminated * D. Dirty or infected

A
  • Correct: D. Dirty or infected These wounds are associated with active infection or necrotic tissue, posing the highest infection risk. * Incorrect: A. Clean Clean wounds have minimal infection risk. * Incorrect: B. Clean-contaminated These carry moderate infection risk. * Incorrect: C. Contaminated Contaminated wounds have a higher risk but not as much as dirty wounds.
188
Q

What is the primary intervention for a deep abscess? * A. Systemic antibiotics * B. Drainage and debridement * C. Application of topical antiseptics * D. Compression therapy

A
  • Correct: B. Drainage and debridement Abscesses require drainage to remove pus and prevent further infection. * Incorrect: A. Systemic antibiotics Antibiotics are supportive but do not address the abscess directly. * Incorrect: C. Application of topical antiseptics Antiseptics are insufficient for deep abscesses. * Incorrect: D. Compression therapy Compression is not used for abscess management.
189
Q

Which wound is most likely to develop necrotizing fasciitis if untreated? * A. Puncture wound * B. Abrasion * C. Skin tear * D. Superficial burn

A
  • Correct: A. Puncture wound Deep puncture wounds can introduce bacteria into fascia, increasing the risk of necrotizing fasciitis. * Incorrect: B. Abrasion Abrasions are superficial and less likely to lead to this condition. * Incorrect: C. Skin tear Skin tears are unlikely to develop necrotizing fasciitis. * Incorrect: D. Superficial burn These rarely progress to necrotizing fasciitis.
190
Q

What is the purpose of a negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) system? * A. Provide high-pressure irrigation * B. Promote wound healing by reducing edema and enhancing perfusion * C. Prevent scar tissue formation * D. Improve nerve regeneration

A
  • Correct: B. Promote wound healing by reducing edema and enhancing perfusion NPWT creates a vacuum that enhances healing by improving blood flow and reducing fluid buildup. * Incorrect: A. Provide high-pressure irrigation NPWT does not irrigate wounds. * Incorrect: C. Prevent scar tissue formation While helpful for healing, it does not prevent scarring. * Incorrect: D. Improve nerve regeneration NPWT does not directly impact nerves.
191
Q

What is the primary concern with human bite wounds? * A. Delayed healing * B. High infection risk * C. Severe tissue necrosis * D. Excessive scarring

A
  • Correct: B. High infection risk Human bites carry a significant infection risk due to oral bacteria. * Incorrect: A. Delayed healing Healing can be delayed, but infection risk is the primary concern. * Incorrect: C. Severe tissue necrosis Necrosis is less common than infection. * Incorrect: D. Excessive scarring Scarring is not the primary concern with human bites.
192
Q

Which intervention is critical for managing necrotic tissue in traumatic wounds? * A. Topical antibiotics * B. Autolytic debridement * C. Surgical debridement * D. Compression therapy

A
  • Correct: C. Surgical debridement Surgical debridement is essential for removing necrotic tissue to prevent infection and promote healing. * Incorrect: A. Topical antibiotics While antibiotics may help prevent infection, they do not remove necrotic tissue. * Incorrect: B. Autolytic debridement Autolytic debridement is slower and less effective for extensive necrosis. * Incorrect: D. Compression therapy Compression does not address necrotic tissue.
193
Q

What is the recommended intervention for controlling bleeding in a traumatic wound? * A. Apply pressure and elevate the wound * B. Use compression therapy * C. Irrigate with saline * D. Apply a tourniquet immediately

A
  • Correct: A. Apply pressure and elevate the wound Direct pressure and elevation help control bleeding effectively. * Incorrect: B. Use compression therapy Compression is for edema management, not acute bleeding. * Incorrect: C. Irrigate with saline Irrigation is secondary to stopping the bleeding. * Incorrect: D. Apply a tourniquet immediately Tourniquets are a last resort.
194
Q

What is the primary goal of wound irrigation? * A. Hydrate dry tissue * B. Remove debris and reduce bacterial load * C. Prevent granulation tissue formation * D. Increase vascular perfusion

A
  • Correct: B. Remove debris and reduce bacterial load Irrigation cleanses the wound and decreases the risk of infection. * Incorrect: A. Hydrate dry tissue This is not the primary purpose of irrigation. * Incorrect: C. Prevent granulation tissue formation Granulation tissue is desirable in wound healing. * Incorrect: D. Increase vascular perfusion Irrigation does not affect perfusion.
195
Q

Which type of wound is most likely to require prophylactic antibiotics? * A. Clean surgical wound * B. Contaminated traumatic wound * C. Closed laceration * D. Superficial abrasion

A
  • Correct: B. Contaminated traumatic wound Contaminated wounds have a high infection risk, warranting prophylactic antibiotics. * Incorrect: A. Clean surgical wound These wounds have a low infection risk. * Incorrect: C. Closed laceration Closed wounds generally do not require antibiotics. * Incorrect: D. Superficial abrasion Abrasions rarely require antibiotics.
196
Q

What is the primary intervention for a puncture wound caused by a rusty nail? * A. Apply a pressure dressing * B. Administer a tetanus booster * C. Perform immediate suturing * D. Apply negative pressure therapy

A
  • Correct: B. Administer a tetanus booster Tetanus prophylaxis is critical for puncture wounds with potential contamination. * Incorrect: A. Apply a pressure dressing Pressure dressings are unnecessary for puncture wounds. * Incorrect: C. Perform immediate suturing Puncture wounds are typically left open to prevent infection. * Incorrect: D. Apply negative pressure therapy NPWT is not appropriate for puncture wounds.
197
Q

What is the clinical significance of tunneling in traumatic wounds? * A. Indicates granulation tissue formation * B. Suggests underlying infection or tissue loss * C. Improves wound healing time * D. Reduces the need for debridement

A
  • Correct: B. Suggests underlying infection or tissue loss Tunneling may indicate hidden damage or infection, requiring thorough assessment. * Incorrect: A. Indicates granulation tissue formation Tunneling does not correlate with granulation tissue. * Incorrect: C. Improves wound healing time Tunneling complicates wound healing. * Incorrect: D. Reduces the need for debridement Tunneling often necessitates additional debridement.
198
Q

What is the most effective way to manage biofilm in a chronic wound? * A. Frequent dressing changes * B. Sharp debridement * C. Application of silver dressings * D. Use of systemic antibiotics

A
  • Correct: B. Sharp debridement Debridement physically disrupts biofilm and improves wound healing. * Incorrect: A. Frequent dressing changes Dressing changes alone do not remove biofilm. * Incorrect: C. Application of silver dressings Antimicrobial dressings help prevent biofilm formation but do not eliminate established biofilm. * Incorrect: D. Use of systemic antibiotics Antibiotics have limited effectiveness against biofilm.
199
Q

Which flap type is commonly used for reconstructing pressure ulcers? * A. Pedicle flap * B. Free flap * C. Rotational flap * D. Z-plasty

A
  • Correct: C. Rotational flap Rotational flaps provide coverage and vascular supply for pressure ulcer reconstruction. * Incorrect: A. Pedicle flap Pedicle flaps are less commonly used for pressure ulcers. * Incorrect: B. Free flap Free flaps are more complex and used for extensive defects. * Incorrect: D. Z-plasty Z-plasty is for scar revision, not pressure ulcers.
200
Q

What is the key consideration when treating a wound with exposed bone? * A. Apply a dry gauze dressing * B. Ensure moist wound healing with hydrogel or NPWT * C. Use compression bandages * D. Avoid debridement

A
  • Correct: B. Ensure moist wound healing with hydrogel or NPWT Moisture promotes healing and protects exposed bone. * Incorrect: A. Apply a dry gauze dressing Dry dressings may delay healing and increase infection risk. * Incorrect: C. Use compression bandages Compression is not appropriate for exposed bone wounds. * Incorrect: D. Avoid debridement Debridement may still be necessary to remove necrotic tissue.
201
Q

Which type of wound debridement involves the use of enzymatic agents? * A. Sharp debridement * B. Autolytic debridement * C. Enzymatic debridement * D. Mechanical debridement

A
  • Correct: C. Enzymatic debridement Enzymatic agents break down necrotic tissue selectively. * Incorrect: A. Sharp debridement This uses surgical tools, not chemicals. * Incorrect: B. Autolytic debridement Autolysis relies on the body’s natural enzymes. * Incorrect: D. Mechanical debridement Mechanical methods include wet-to-dry dressings or irrigation.
202
Q

What is the primary indication for wet-to-dry dressings? * A. Promote granulation tissue growth * B. Remove necrotic tissue * C. Increase wound hydration * D. Reduce bacterial load

A
  • Correct: B. Remove necrotic tissue Wet-to-dry dressings mechanically debride necrotic tissue when removed. * Incorrect: A. Promote granulation tissue growth These dressings are not designed to support granulation tissue. * Incorrect: C. Increase wound hydration They often dry out wounds rather than hydrate them. * Incorrect: D. Reduce bacterial load They are not primarily antimicrobial.
203
Q

What is the first priority when managing a traumatic wound with active bleeding? * A. Clean the wound * B. Control the bleeding * C. Apply a sterile dressing * D. Assess for infection

A
  • Correct: B. Control the bleeding Bleeding control takes precedence to stabilize the patient. * Incorrect: A. Clean the wound Cleaning follows bleeding control. * Incorrect: C. Apply a sterile dressing Dressings are secondary to hemostasis. * Incorrect: D. Assess for infection Infection assessment occurs after bleeding is managed.
204
Q

Which type of traumatic wound is most likely to result from a high-energy impact? * A. Abrasion * B. Laceration * C. Avulsion * D. Puncture wound

A
  • Correct: C. Avulsion Avulsion wounds occur when high-energy forces tear tissue away from underlying structures. * Incorrect: A. Abrasion Abrasions are caused by friction. * Incorrect: B. Laceration Lacerations result from sharp objects. * Incorrect: D. Puncture wound Puncture wounds are caused by narrow, pointed objects.
205
Q

What is the role of occlusive dressings in surgical wound management? * A. Maintain moisture and promote autolytic debridement * B. Provide compression to reduce edema * C. Deliver topical antibiotics * D. Absorb heavy exudate

A
  • Correct: A. Maintain moisture and promote autolytic debridement Occlusive dressings support moist wound healing and autolysis. * Incorrect: B. Provide compression to reduce edema Compression dressings are not occlusive. * Incorrect: C. Deliver topical antibiotics Occlusive dressings do not deliver medications directly. * Incorrect: D. Absorb heavy exudate They are less effective for highly exudative wounds.