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B38M Tech > Instruments and Autoflight > Flashcards

Instruments and Autoflight Flashcards

1
Q

How many pitot & static probes?

A

3 pitot, 6 static.

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2
Q

What is the additional pitot tube & static ports used for?

A

ISFD

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3
Q

How many AOA sensors?

A

2

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4
Q

What happens if both inboard DU’s fail to the ENG display?

A

ENG will not be shown, unless display switches are adjusted.

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5
Q

When does slip/skid rectangle fill white?

A

At full scale deflection.

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6
Q

At what bank angle does the bank angle pointer & slip/skid rectangle turn Amber?

A

35 degrees of bank.

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7
Q

When does slip/skid rectangle turn Amber?

A

When bank angle above 35 degrees, and rectangle at full deflection.

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8
Q

What does ASA stand for? Examples?

A

AFDS Status Annunciator. Examples are FD, CMD, LAND 2, LAND 3.

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9
Q

When does box around airspeed turn Amber?

A

When speed below minimum manoeuvring speed.

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10
Q

What is the minimum IAS and Mach display? ISFD difference?

A

45kts, and M0.40.

ISFD displays above 30kts.

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11
Q

When is V2+15 shown until? (2)

A

Flap retraction starts or VREF entered.

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12
Q

What system must be operational for auto V-speed callouts?

A

Look ahead terrain alerting system.

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13
Q

When does the Landing Altitude Reference Bar illuminate on altitude tape? What are the colours for?

A

Below 1000ft AAL.
1000-500FT - white bar
500FT and below - amber bar

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14
Q

At what rate is the minimum vertical display shown on the PFD?

A

400FPM

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15
Q

What does the ISFD RST button do?

A

Aligns horizon to aircraft symbol. Takes 10 seconds.

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16
Q

How long does RA box highlight for on passing 2500FT?

A

10 seconds.

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17
Q

When does RA display turn Amber?

A

Below minimums.

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18
Q

What does a GS flashing indicate?

A

Excessive GS deviation. (When AP/FD engaged)

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19
Q

In expanded LOC display in LOC mode and close to centreline, what does the rectangle deviation mean?

A

1/2 dot deviation is full scale. (Within 5 degrees of MCP selected course)

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20
Q

At what altitude does rising runway illuminate?

A

2500FT, starts rising towards aircraft at 200FT RA.

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21
Q

How long does minimums flash?

A

3 seconds on passing, then Amber.

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22
Q

Does RADIO minimums have pointer on altitude tape?

A

No

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23
Q

When does PITCH warning display?

A

When CAP & FO pitch angle disagree by 5 degrees or more. Flashes for 10 seconds then steady, only above 400FT.

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24
Q

What values does IAS and ALT DISAGREE cautions indicate?

A

IAS - 5kts or more for 5 seconds
ALT - 200ft or more for 5 seconds

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25
Q

What modes are HDG UP, TRK UP and NORTH UP on ND?

A

VOR/APP - heading up
MAP - track up
PLAN - north up

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26
Q

What is the maximum offset possible in the CDU?

A

99.9NM

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27
Q

What do large font altitudes indicate on LEGS page? (2)

A

Arrival procedure limit or pilot inputted altitudes.

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28
Q

How can you cycle through FMC waypoints?

A

In PLAN mode, hit CTR to cycle through.

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29
Q

What is a conditional waypoint?

A

A waypoint in brackets, that cannot be edited.

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30
Q

What are the prerequisites for LNAV engagement? (3)

A
  • FD or AP engaged
  • Within 3nm of active route
  • Beyond 3nm, will engage if on an intercept heading within 90 degrees, and will intercept before active waypoint.
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31
Q

Why will LNAV drop out? (2)

A
  • Fly into a discontinuity
  • End of route passed

Roll mode to CWS R

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32
Q

When does VNAV disengage? (7)

A
  • IAS exceeds FMC SPD restriction by 15kts
  • GS Capture
  • Crosstrack greater than 2xRNP when active leg has a vertical angle.
  • Limit speed will be exceeded
  • TOGA pressed on VNAV APP, MAPT crossed
  • Electrical power to FMC lost
  • Selects another pitch mode, or selects new MCP ALT with ALT HOLD engaged
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33
Q

What does ECON Climb change to if a new target speed is entered?

A

FIXED CLIMB

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34
Q

What will illuminate if speed restriction below minimum speed for present flap selection?

A

FLAPS shown next to speed.

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35
Q

When is STEP line available? (2)

A
  • FMC in RTA mode
  • 100NM away from TOD
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36
Q

When will CDU display RESET MCP ALTITUDE?

A

Within 5NM of TOD if MCP not reset for descent.

If overfly with no descent, VNAV ALT annunciates.

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37
Q

When will thrust FMA FMC SPD appear during descent?

A

If GS becomes too slow to maintain path, or IAS decreases by 10kts+.

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38
Q

What causes DRAG REQUIRED to appear?

A

Shallow descent, and speed fast by 10kts+.

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39
Q

What is the scale of the VNAV vertical pointer?

A

400ft up/down. Number will show up to 9999ft deviation.

40
Q

When will MASTER CAUTION & GPS light illuminate?

A

Both GPS receivers fail. If only one fails, illuminates on RECALL.

41
Q

How do the IRU’s feed the FCC’s?

A

One will feed pitch to FCC A, then will feed roll to FCC B for redundancy.

42
Q

What will trigger MASTER CAUTION & IRS lights?

A

Any IRS panel light illuminates, apart from ALIGN.

43
Q

What are the IRS’s powered by?

A

HOT BATTERY BUS

44
Q

What does DC FAIL on IRS panel mean?

A

Backup source of power from SWITCHED BATTERY BUS is unavailable.

45
Q

What is the normal IRU power?

A

L IRU - AC STBY BUS
R IRU - AC XFR BUS 2

46
Q

When does IRS ON DC light illuminate?

A

AC power has been lost.

Horn in nose gear bay warns of battery drain.

47
Q

What will happen to IRS if no AC power?

A

L IRU - operate from HOT BATT BUS until drained
R IRU - shut off after 5 mins

48
Q

What latitudes can the aircraft operate between?

A

82N and 82S, due to magnetic variation

49
Q

Why will ON DC illuminate when IRS initially turned on?

A

Illuminate for 10 seconds whilst verifying backup power

50
Q

What does a fast realignment require? (2)

A

Aircraft parked for 30 seconds and PPOS entered

51
Q

What will happen if PPOS entered is greatly different from last position?

A

ALIGN will flash as assumes it’s an error input.

52
Q

When can an IRU loose alignment? (3)

A
  • Mode selector to OFF, ALIGN, or ATT
  • Loss of AC and DC power
  • FAULT light comes on
53
Q

What happens to AP when IRU looses alignment?

A

Operating AP disengages

54
Q

What should you do in ATT alignment?

A

Fly S+L in unaccelerated flight for 30 seconds.

EHSI remains flagged and HDG unavailable until magnetic heading entered on IRS panel or FMC.

55
Q

How long does ALIGN light illuminate on shutdown?

A

30 seconds

56
Q

Can autopilot be used with IRU failure?

A

No. No redundancy for AP hardcover commands.

57
Q

What modes does the weather radar have? (3)

A
  • Ground map mode
  • AUTO mode
  • Manual
58
Q

What is the maximum range of weather radar?

A

320NM

59
Q

What is the nominal flight path weather envelope?

A

Plus and minus 4000ft of expected flight path.

60
Q

What is the windshear range? What is the turbulence range?

A

5NM
60NM

61
Q

What windshear distance will you get a warning?

A

3NM on TO roll, within 30 degrees either side of track.

62
Q

When will the AT switch move from ARM to OFF?

A
  • AT system fault
  • 2 seconds after touchdown
  • Thrust levers separated by 10 degrees or more
  • Significant thrust difference
63
Q

What is the selectable speed range?

A

100kts - VMO
0.60 - MMO

64
Q

What will happen if thrust levers blocked on RETARD?

A

Need to manually reset to RETARD.

65
Q

When is AFDS IAS/MACH display blank? (2)

A
  • VNAV
  • Performing 2 engine go around
66
Q

When speed must TO thrust be set by?

A

60 knots

67
Q

At what speed does THR HOLD engage?

A

84kts. Pilot can still manually move levers (ARM illuminates)

68
Q

What happens if you hit N1 switch and it is engaged?

A

Goes to ARM.

69
Q

Overspeed and underspeed protection is provided by what mode?

A

MCP SPD

70
Q

When does RETARD initiate on autoland? (2)

A
  • 2.5 seconds after FLARE mode
  • 27’RA
71
Q

When is AT GA mode armed?

A

From 2000ft to 2 seconds after landing

72
Q

When do FD bars remove from view on approach? (2)

A
  • 50’RA
  • and on ILS
73
Q

When will FD bars remove if discrepancy found? (2)

A
  • 1-4 degree pitch and 3-9 degree roll
  • Both FDs must be on and no AP engaged

(Only operates in TOGA or APP mode below 800ft)

74
Q

When are both FD MA lights on? (3)

A
  • TO mode engaged below 400’ RA
  • APP mode with LOC/GS captured
  • GA mode engaged below 400’RA
75
Q

When does VNAV SPD display?

A

Not on VNAV vertical profile

76
Q

FD commands during takeoff?

A

10 degrees nose down to 60kts, then to 15 degrees nose up.

77
Q

When does APP light extinguish?

A

Once established

78
Q

What happens when invalid ILS received?

A

AP disengages and FD bars remove. APP mode remains engaged until TOGA. Retune.

79
Q

When will you get altitude alerting? (2)

A
  • 300ft deviation (box flashes)
  • 900ft alert for arrival (white box steady, extinguish 300ft away)
80
Q

When is altitude alerting inhibited? (2)

A
  • F25 or greater
  • GS captured
81
Q

Maximum and minimum VS rates?

A

Maximum - 6000
Minimum - 7900

82
Q

When will CWS not roll level when bank less than 6 degrees? (3)

A
  • Below 1500’RA with gear down
  • FD has VOR capture with TAS under 250kts
  • FD has LOC capture with APP selected.
83
Q

What is the service interphone used for?

A

Communicate with ground personnel.

84
Q

What are the CALL light colours?

A

Blue - Pax
Amber - Call in lavatory
Pink - call from cockpit or FA station

85
Q

What does GND CALL button cause?

A

Horn in nose gear until released

86
Q

What does BLUE call light in cockpit indicate?

A

Call and chime from SELCAL/ACARS, ground crew or CC (single-tone).

87
Q

What is the flight director powered by?

A

AC XFR BUS1 and BATT BUS.

88
Q

Why would the flight director turn off? (3)

A
  • Loss of power
  • Electric malfunction
  • Loss of input data
89
Q

What is displayed by the trend vector on the ND?

A

30, 60 and 90 seconds turn trend. Amount depends on range.

10NM - 1
20NM - 2
20NM - 3

90
Q

What will happen if EFIS drops out?

A

DISPLAY CONTROL PANEL displayed. Loose altitude display.

91
Q

What AT mode will engage at 800FT AAL on a NADP2 departure?

A

ARM, as adjusting N1 to CLB

92
Q

What VNAV mode is engaged throughout TO and initial climb?

A

VNAV SPD

93
Q

What AT mode will engage at thrust reduction altitude?

A

N1

94
Q

Can you use AP in windshear escape manoeuvre?

A

Yes.

95
Q

What is the minimum altitude for SINGLE CH approach?

A

111ft

96
Q

What do the letters /T and /B mean in the FMC for maximum altitude?

A

T is thrust limited
B is buffet limited

B38M Tech (5 decks)

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