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B38M Tech > Instruments and Autoflight > Flashcards

Instruments and Autoflight Flashcards

1
Q

How many pitot & static probes?

A

3 pitot, 6 static.

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2
Q

What is the additional pitot tube & static ports used for?

A

ISFD

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3
Q

How many AOA sensors?

A

2

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4
Q

What happens if both inboard DU’s fail to the ENG display?

A

ENG will not be shown, unless display switches are adjusted.

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5
Q

When does slip/skid rectangle fill white?

A

At full scale deflection.

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6
Q

At what bank angle does the bank angle pointer & slip/skid rectangle turn Amber?

A

35 degrees of bank.

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7
Q

When does slip/skid rectangle turn Amber?

A

When bank angle above 35 degrees, and rectangle at full deflection.

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8
Q

What does ASA stand for? Examples?

A

AFDS Status Annunciator. Examples are FD, CMD, LAND 2, LAND 3.

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9
Q

When does box around airspeed turn Amber?

A

When speed below minimum manoeuvring speed.

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10
Q

What is the minimum IAS and Mach display? ISFD difference?

A

45kts, and M0.40.

ISFD displays above 30kts.

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11
Q

When is V2+15 shown until? (2)

A

Flap retraction starts or VREF entered.

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12
Q

What system must be operational for auto V-speed callouts?

A

Look ahead terrain alerting system.

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13
Q

When does the Landing Altitude Reference Bar illuminate on altitude tape? What are the colours for?

A

Below 1000ft AAL.
1000-500FT - white bar
500FT and below - amber bar

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14
Q

At what rate is the minimum vertical display shown on the PFD?

A

400FPM

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15
Q

What does the ISFD RST button do?

A

Aligns horizon to aircraft symbol. Takes 10 seconds.

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16
Q

How long does RA box highlight for on passing 2500FT?

A

10 seconds.

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17
Q

When does RA display turn Amber?

A

Below minimums.

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18
Q

What does a GS flashing indicate?

A

Excessive GS deviation. (When AP/FD engaged)

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19
Q

In expanded LOC display in LOC mode and close to centreline, what does the rectangle deviation mean?

A

1/2 dot deviation is full scale. (Within 5 degrees of MCP selected course)

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20
Q

At what altitude does rising runway illuminate?

A

2500FT, starts rising towards aircraft at 200FT RA.

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21
Q

How long does minimums flash?

A

3 seconds on passing, then Amber.

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22
Q

Does RADIO minimums have pointer on altitude tape?

A

No

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23
Q

When does PITCH warning display?

A

When CAP & FO pitch angle disagree by 5 degrees or more. Flashes for 10 seconds then steady, only above 400FT.

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24
Q

What values does IAS and ALT DISAGREE cautions indicate?

A

IAS - 5kts or more for 5 seconds
ALT - 200ft or more for 5 seconds

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25
What modes are HDG UP, TRK UP and NORTH UP on ND?
VOR/APP - heading up MAP - track up PLAN - north up
26
What is the maximum offset possible in the CDU?
99.9NM
27
What do large font altitudes indicate on LEGS page? (2)
Arrival procedure limit or pilot inputted altitudes.
28
How can you cycle through FMC waypoints?
In PLAN mode, hit CTR to cycle through.
29
What is a conditional waypoint?
A waypoint in brackets, that cannot be edited.
30
What are the prerequisites for LNAV engagement? (3)
- FD or AP engaged - Within 3nm of active route - Beyond 3nm, will engage if on an intercept heading within 90 degrees, and will intercept before active waypoint.
31
Why will LNAV drop out? (2)
- Fly into a discontinuity - End of route passed Roll mode to CWS R
32
When does VNAV disengage? (7)
- IAS exceeds FMC SPD restriction by 15kts - GS Capture - Crosstrack greater than 2xRNP when active leg has a vertical angle. - Limit speed will be exceeded - TOGA pressed on VNAV APP, MAPT crossed - Electrical power to FMC lost - Selects another pitch mode, or selects new MCP ALT with ALT HOLD engaged
33
What does ECON Climb change to if a new target speed is entered?
FIXED CLIMB
34
What will illuminate if speed restriction below minimum speed for present flap selection?
FLAPS shown next to speed.
35
When is STEP line available? (2)
- FMC in RTA mode - 100NM away from TOD
36
When will CDU display RESET MCP ALTITUDE?
Within 5NM of TOD if MCP not reset for descent. If overfly with no descent, VNAV ALT annunciates.
37
When will thrust FMA FMC SPD appear during descent?
If GS becomes too slow to maintain path, or IAS decreases by 10kts+.
38
What causes DRAG REQUIRED to appear?
Shallow descent, and speed fast by 10kts+.
39
What is the scale of the VNAV vertical pointer?
400ft up/down. Number will show up to 9999ft deviation.
40
When will MASTER CAUTION & GPS light illuminate?
Both GPS receivers fail. If only one fails, illuminates on RECALL.
41
How do the IRU’s feed the FCC’s?
One will feed pitch to FCC A, then will feed roll to FCC B for redundancy.
42
What will trigger MASTER CAUTION & IRS lights?
Any IRS panel light illuminates, apart from ALIGN.
43
What are the IRS’s powered by?
HOT BATTERY BUS
44
What does DC FAIL on IRS panel mean?
Backup source of power from SWITCHED BATTERY BUS is unavailable.
45
What is the normal IRU power?
L IRU - AC STBY BUS R IRU - AC XFR BUS 2
46
When does IRS ON DC light illuminate?
AC power has been lost. Horn in nose gear bay warns of battery drain.
47
What will happen to IRS if no AC power?
L IRU - operate from HOT BATT BUS until drained R IRU - shut off after 5 mins
48
What latitudes can the aircraft operate between?
82N and 82S, due to magnetic variation
49
Why will ON DC illuminate when IRS initially turned on?
Illuminate for 10 seconds whilst verifying backup power
50
What does a fast realignment require? (2)
Aircraft parked for 30 seconds and PPOS entered
51
What will happen if PPOS entered is greatly different from last position?
ALIGN will flash as assumes it’s an error input.
52
When can an IRU loose alignment? (3)
- Mode selector to OFF, ALIGN, or ATT - Loss of AC and DC power - FAULT light comes on
53
What happens to AP when IRU looses alignment?
Operating AP disengages
54
What should you do in ATT alignment?
Fly S+L in unaccelerated flight for 30 seconds. EHSI remains flagged and HDG unavailable until magnetic heading entered on IRS panel or FMC.
55
How long does ALIGN light illuminate on shutdown?
30 seconds
56
Can autopilot be used with IRU failure?
No. No redundancy for AP hardcover commands.
57
What modes does the weather radar have? (3)
- Ground map mode - AUTO mode - Manual
58
What is the maximum range of weather radar?
320NM
59
What is the nominal flight path weather envelope?
Plus and minus 4000ft of expected flight path.
60
What is the windshear range? What is the turbulence range?
5NM 60NM
61
What windshear distance will you get a warning?
3NM on TO roll, within 30 degrees either side of track.
62
When will the AT switch move from ARM to OFF?
- AT system fault - 2 seconds after touchdown - Thrust levers separated by 10 degrees or more - Significant thrust difference
63
What is the selectable speed range?
100kts - VMO 0.60 - MMO
64
What will happen if thrust levers blocked on RETARD?
Need to manually reset to RETARD.
65
When is AFDS IAS/MACH display blank? (2)
- VNAV - Performing 2 engine go around
66
When speed must TO thrust be set by?
60 knots
67
At what speed does THR HOLD engage?
84kts. Pilot can still manually move levers (ARM illuminates)
68
What happens if you hit N1 switch and it is engaged?
Goes to ARM.
69
Overspeed and underspeed protection is provided by what mode?
MCP SPD
70
When does RETARD initiate on autoland? (2)
- 2.5 seconds after FLARE mode - 27’RA
71
When is AT GA mode armed?
From 2000ft to 2 seconds after landing
72
When do FD bars remove from view on approach? (2)
- 50’RA - and on ILS
73
When will FD bars remove if discrepancy found? (2)
- 1-4 degree pitch and 3-9 degree roll - Both FDs must be on and no AP engaged (Only operates in TOGA or APP mode below 800ft)
74
When are both FD MA lights on? (3)
- TO mode engaged below 400’ RA - APP mode with LOC/GS captured - GA mode engaged below 400’RA
75
When does VNAV SPD display?
Not on VNAV vertical profile
76
FD commands during takeoff?
10 degrees nose down to 60kts, then to 15 degrees nose up.
77
When does APP light extinguish?
Once established
78
What happens when invalid ILS received?
AP disengages and FD bars remove. APP mode remains engaged until TOGA. Retune.
79
When will you get altitude alerting? (2)
- 300ft deviation (box flashes) - 900ft alert for arrival (white box steady, extinguish 300ft away)
80
When is altitude alerting inhibited? (2)
- F25 or greater - GS captured
81
Maximum and minimum VS rates?
Maximum - 6000 Minimum - 7900
82
When will CWS not roll level when bank less than 6 degrees? (3)
- Below 1500’RA with gear down - FD has VOR capture with TAS under 250kts - FD has LOC capture with APP selected.
83
What is the service interphone used for?
Communicate with ground personnel.
84
What are the CALL light colours?
Blue - Pax Amber - Call in lavatory Pink - call from cockpit or FA station
85
What does GND CALL button cause?
Horn in nose gear until released
86
What does BLUE call light in cockpit indicate?
Call and chime from SELCAL/ACARS, ground crew or CC (single-tone).
87
What is the flight director powered by?
AC XFR BUS1 and BATT BUS.
88
Why would the flight director turn off? (3)
- Loss of power - Electric malfunction - Loss of input data
89
What is displayed by the trend vector on the ND?
30, 60 and 90 seconds turn trend. Amount depends on range. 10NM - 1 20NM - 2 20NM - 3
90
What will happen if EFIS drops out?
DISPLAY CONTROL PANEL displayed. Loose altitude display.
91
What AT mode will engage at 800FT AAL on a NADP2 departure?
ARM, as adjusting N1 to CLB
92
What VNAV mode is engaged throughout TO and initial climb?
VNAV SPD
93
What AT mode will engage at thrust reduction altitude?
N1
94
Can you use AP in windshear escape manoeuvre?
Yes.
95
What is the minimum altitude for SINGLE CH approach?
111ft
96
What do the letters /T and /B mean in the FMC for maximum altitude?
T is thrust limited B is buffet limited

B38M Tech (5 decks)

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