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B38M Tech > Hydraulics > Flashcards

Hydraulics Flashcards

1
Q

What does HYD SYS A power? (7)

A
  • Rudder, ailerons, elevator & elevator feel.
  • No. 1 reverser
  • 1/2 Flight spoilers
  • Ground spoilers
  • Landing gear and nose wheel steering
  • Alternate brakes
  • AP A
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2
Q

What is the maximum hydraulic system pressure?

A

3500PSI

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3
Q

What hydraulic pressure may read if pumps are off?

A

100PSI. This is the reservoir ambient pressure.

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4
Q

What percentage will the A system drop too if there’s an EDP leak?

A

20%. This remains for EMDP. EMDP leak will empty in case of leak.

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5
Q

What light will indicate if overheat of hydraulic system?

A

OVERHEAT

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6
Q

What is the minimum amount of fuel to ensure cooling of hydraulic system? (For EMDP operation)

A

760kg in each Main Tank.

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7
Q

What happens to EDP SOV if loss of electrical power?

A

EDP SOV fails to the OPEN position.

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8
Q

What happens to EDP if fire handle pulled?

A

EDP off, and the LOW PRESSURE light is inhibited.

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9
Q

Where are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurised from?

A

Pneumatic manifold

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10
Q

What does HYD SYS B power? (10)

A
  • Rudder, ailerons, elevators and elevator feel
  • 1/2 flight spoilers
  • LE FLAPS and SLATS
  • TE FLAPS
  • Normal brakes
  • No. 2 thrust reverser
  • AP B
  • Alternate nose-wheel steering
  • Landing gear transfer unit
  • PTU
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11
Q

What will HYD SYS B drain too in case of leak in either pump?

A

Empty. Enough remains to supply PTU.

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12
Q

What does the PTU provide?

A

Backup pressure to Autoslat system and LE devices.

Automatically opens to provide SYS A pressure when necessary to operate PCU.

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13
Q

When does PTU operate?

A

When output of B SYS EDP below limits, when aircraft inflight and flaps extended.

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14
Q

When may you see hydraulic fluid levels vary? (4)

A
  • system becomes pressurised after start
  • gear in transit
  • LE devices in motion
  • Cold soaking occurs in long cruise (little effect)
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15
Q

When may hydraulic foaming occur?

A

When not pressurised correctly at higher altitudes.

Recognised by pressure fluctuations and blinking LOW PRESSURE lights.

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16
Q

What does STBY HYD SYS power? (4)

A
  • STBY Yaw Damper
  • STBY Rudder PCU
  • Autoslats (LE Devices)
  • Both reversers
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17
Q

Until what level in B system will the reservoir supply the standby reservoir?

A

72%

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18
Q

When will the STBY SYS indicate LOW QUANTITY?

A

1/2 FULL and electrical power available.

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19
Q

When will yaw damper disconnect?

A

With B FLT CONT STBY RYD or OFF position. Needs to be re selected.

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20
Q

What powers alternate flap extension of LE devices?

A

Standby hydraulic system.

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21
Q

When will standby system automatically operate in case of A or B failure?

A

During TO or landing, for full rudder control during slow flight.

  • Flaps extended
  • Activation of FFM
  • Wheel speed 60kts+
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22
Q

What is turning angle of the tiller?

A

78 degrees

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23
Q

What is the turning angle of the rudder?

A

6 degrees

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24
Q

How many air/ground sensors on the gear? (PSEU)

A

6, 2 on each gear.

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25
Q

What can you press if gear lever is stuck in position?

A

LOCK OVRD (A/G failure)

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26
Q

How many anti-skid valves per wheel?

A

4 per wheel. Relax pressure when skid develops.

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27
Q

What does the anti-skid do?

A

Receives information from wheel transducers and modulates hydraulic pressure to maintain maximum tyre friction.

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28
Q

How many valves does the alternate anti-skid system use through the anti-skid control unit?

A

2, 1 on each side.

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29
Q

What pressure is the brake accumulator charged too?

A

3000PSI

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30
Q

What pressure will the brake accumulator indicate when depleted?

A

1000PSI - precharge, not usable.

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31
Q

When is anti-skid INOP in normal operations?

A

When parking brake set.

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32
Q

What does ANTI-SKID INOP light mean?

A

Fault detected. Fault in parking-brake system may cause this.

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33
Q

What unit controls the autobrake?

A

Anti-Skid/Autobrake control unit (ASCU)

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34
Q

When only should RTO be selected? (5)

A
  • On ground
  • Wheel speed under 60kts
  • Idle
  • Antiskid and autobrake systems operational
  • Autobrakes to RTO mode.
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35
Q

When will autobrakes activate on an RTO?

A

Above 90 knots when thrust levers to idle.

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36
Q

When does autobrake RTO automatically disarm?

A

Once airborne.

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37
Q

How are autobrakes disarmed? (4)

A
  • Speedbrake down detent
  • Advancing either thrust lever
  • Applying manual brakes
  • Autobrake switch to OFF
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38
Q

What provides roll input to Feel and Centering unit?

A

Cable from captains side. This then goes to aileron PCU’s.

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39
Q

Where are the balance tabs located?

A

Ailerons

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40
Q

What do you require for aileron trim to work?

A

Hydraulics or normal electrical power.

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41
Q

Can aileron trim activate spoilers?

A

Yes, if trim beyond 10 degrees.

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42
Q

What does the Spoiler Control Electronics Unit do?

A

Receives inputs from aileron PCUs. When control wheel raised over 10 degrees, extends to augment roll.

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43
Q

What does aileron transfer mechanism allow?

A

Use of one control wheel if the other is jammed.

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44
Q

When is aileron trim/spoiler mixing INOP?

A

Manual reversion if all hydraulics lost.

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45
Q

What are elevators and stabilizer powered by?

A

Elevators are hydraulic, stabiliser is electrical.

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46
Q

How are the elevators controlled?

A

Interconnected control columns provide dual cable input to 2 PCU’s. Each PCU has hydraulic pressure from separate system.

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47
Q

How many PTU’s or Hydraulic systems does elevator system need?

A

Can loose 1 PCU or 1 hydraulic system. Can’t loose 1 from each.

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48
Q

What does the elevator transfer mechanism allow?

A

Controls to move freely if one gets jammed.

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49
Q

What is the elevator jam landing assist system?

A

Uses spoilers for small changes to flight path when AP is OFF and F1 or greater. Need to select ON.

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50
Q

What hydraulic system does the Feel system use?

A

A or B, whichever has a higher pressure.

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51
Q

What 3 inputs does the elevator feel system receive?

A
  • input from horizontal stabiliser position
  • airspeed input from probes (vert. Stab)
  • inputs from A and B hydraulic system.
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52
Q

When will FEEL DIFF PRESS Amber light illuminate?

A

Significant pressure differential sensed. As with Hydraulic failure.

MASTER CAUTION - FLT CONT

53
Q

What enhances stall identification and control? (EFS)

A
  • Yaw damper
  • Elevator Feel Shift
  • Speed trim system
54
Q

When is Elevator Feel Shift (EFS) inhibited? (3)

A
  • on ground
  • RA under 100’
  • AP engaged
55
Q

What is the maximum speed with Mach trim failure?

A

280/0.82M

56
Q

When will STAB OUT OF TRIM illuminate?

A

When AP engaged, and not trimming adequately. Out of trim when disengaged.

57
Q

What does the control column trim cutout do?

A

If control force opposes trim direction, cuts out the trim. STAB TRIM switch to override.

MCAS - doesn’t do this with AFT control wheel motion.

58
Q

Can a jammed elevator affect horizontal stabiliser motion?

A

Can cause loss of electrical trim. OVERRIDE switch will restore stabiliser trim.

59
Q

When does speed trim occur?

A

Occurs during TO and GA with a low weight and aft CG.

Prevent stabiliser nose up trim exceeding elevator nose down capability.

60
Q

What does speed trim do?

A

Prevent stabiliser nose up trim exceeding elevator nose down capability.

61
Q

What trim circuit does speed trim use?

A

AP trim.

62
Q

What are the conditions for speed trim operation? (5)

A
  • between 100kts and M0.50
  • 10 seconds after liftoff
  • 5 seconds after trim switch release
  • AP not engaged
  • Sensed need of trim for stabiliser.
63
Q

What does SPEED TRIM FAIL mean?

A

Fault with speed trim system.

64
Q

When does rudder become effective on takeoff?

A

40-60knots

65
Q

If STBY RUD ON selected, when will A or B hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light remain illuminated?

A

If STBY RUD SOV fails to open.

66
Q

What is the standby yaw damper used for?

A

Improves handling qualities during manual reversion.

67
Q

When is standby yaw damper available?

A

When both A+B switches to STBY RUD on, and YAW DAMPER is reselected to ON.

68
Q

How much rudder deflection can the standby yaw damper command?

A

2.5 degrees driven by SMYD computer, when wheel input sensed.

69
Q

What does the yaw damper prevent/do? (3)

A
  • Dutch roll
  • ensures turn coordination
  • gust damping
70
Q

How many SMYD computers?

A

2

71
Q

What will happen to Yaw Dampet when hydraulic system B fails?

A

Yaw damper switch stays on until B system FLT CONT switch moved out of ON, to STBY RUD.

72
Q

Above what speeds does both the A and B pressure at the main rudder PCU reduce by 25%?

A

135kts, to prevent rudder hardover.

73
Q

What does the Force Flight Monitor do (FFM)?

A

Detects opposing A and B pressure at actuators. May occur if either system jammed/disconnected.

Automatically turns on STBY HYD pump pressuring standby PCU.

Indicated by STBY RUD ON.

74
Q

What light will illuminate when FFM is on?

A

STBY RUD ON and MASTER CAUTION.

75
Q

How many flight and ground spoilers?

A

4 and 2 on each wing. (8 and 4)

76
Q

When will SPD EXT illuminate?

A
  • When speed brakes extended beyond ARM position.
  • Thrust lever above idle for 15 seconds
  • TE flaps more than F10 (inflight)
  • RA below 800’
77
Q

When will SPD EXT illuminate on ground?

A

Ground spoilers not stowed, down detent.

78
Q

What do the SPOILER SHUT-OFF switches control?

A

Only switches flight spoilers off.

79
Q

What does Amber SPOILER light mean?

A

Spoiler fault.

80
Q

When does Landing Attitude Modifier (LAM) function?

A
  • when F30 or F40. Reduce lift for higher angle of attack.
  • Between F15 and F30 and near idle, creates additional drag.
81
Q

When will SPEEDBRAKE DO NOT ARM illuminate?

A

Malfunction exists. Can still use manually after landing. Light inhibited when in down detent.

82
Q

When will auto spoiler extend during RTO?

A

Rejected above 60 knots.

83
Q

When will Speedbrake extend on landing?

A

RA less than 6’ and gear compression.

84
Q

In a rejected landing, when will spoilers and autobrake disengage?

A

Thrust levers past the mid point.

85
Q

What monitors for skews and asymmetry in TE flaps?

A

Flap/Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU)

86
Q

When will FSEU shutdown TE drive unit, and how is it indicated?

A

Uncommanded motion detected.

Only known when flap indicator disagrees with flap handle position. Cannot be reset, alternate system used.

87
Q

What is TE flap load relief?

A

Operates at flap speed limit, and re-extends when 5kts below limit.

Operates for all flaps above F10.

88
Q

Above what flap does load relief work?

A

F10

89
Q

How many LE devices?

A

2 LE flaps and 4 slats on each wing.

90
Q

What is the difference between LE flaps and slats?

A
  • Flaps are hinged and rotate downwards
  • Slats extend by moving forward to form slotted LE.
91
Q

Where will LE FLAPS TRANSIT and LE FLAPS EXT illuminate?

A

On ENG display.

92
Q

What are hydraulic system are LE devices powered by?

A

B. STBY is alternate.

93
Q

When using alternate flaps, what pressure extends LE devices?

A

Standby pressure.

94
Q

Does the FSEU monitor LE device asymmetry and skew?

A

Only asymmetry for all. No skew detection for slats 1 and 8, and LE flaps.

95
Q

How does FSEU ensure LE devices stay retracted during cruise?

A

Maintains pressure on return lines.

96
Q

Between what flap settings will autoslat move LE slats to full extend with high AOA?

A

F1-F25. Slats already fully extended at F30 and above.

Autoslats return to extend when AOA reduced.

97
Q

What happens if inflight and B EDP pressure is low with regards to the Autoslats?

A

Hydraulic A system will power PTU to operate Autoslats with fluid from B reservoir.

Backup pressure in slow flight.

98
Q

What is STBY HYD system pressurised by?

A

A single EMDP, from AC XFR BUS2

99
Q

Maximum speed with gear down?

A

320 knots

100
Q

Between what flaps does the PTU operate autoslats?

A

F1-25

101
Q

How many times more powerful is EDP than EMDP?

A

6x

102
Q

What is the only way to turn off EDP?

A

Pull fire handle

103
Q

What are the 76’s to remember for hydraulics?

A

76% for RF. 760kg minimum for EMDP cooling.

104
Q

What does FFM do?

A

Automatically brings STBY RUD ON if senses pressure from A or B is wrong.

105
Q

When is FFM active?

A

Airborne, 60 knots+, loss of system A or B and flaps extended.

106
Q

How many A/G sensors on wheels?

A

6, 2 on each

107
Q

How long after UP does PSEU remove hydraulic pressure?

A

10 seconds

108
Q

When is LANDING GEAR red?

A

Unsafe, in transit and below 800’ RA TL Idle and gear not down.

109
Q

What is the maximum Mach for gear extension and extended?

A

M0.82

110
Q

When is anti-skid disarmed with gear retracted?

A

Once retracted

111
Q

What happens to anti-skid on alternate brakes?

A

Anti-skid in wheel pairs, not individual (like normal braking and accumulator braking)

112
Q

What does antiskid protect against? (4)

A
  • hydroplane
  • skid
  • locked wheel
  • touchdown protection
113
Q

Which pitot does elevator feel system use? What other inputs?

A

Pitot from tail, stabiliser position and A+B pressure.

114
Q

What will illuminate if tail pitot blocked, or EFS senses hydraulics are wrong?

A

FEEL DIFF PRESSURE

115
Q

How do you fix an elevator jam?

A

Breakout function, 62lbs of force.

116
Q

What hydraulic pressure does elevator PCU use?

A

Either, whichever is higher pressure

117
Q

When does speed trim work?

A

10 seconds after TO, 5 secs after trim release, AP OFF and sense trim requirement

118
Q

How is speed trim disabled?

A

AOA disagree or PRI/BU switch

119
Q

When does MCAS work?

A

Flaps up, airborne, 10 seconds after takeoff. Provides pitch stability.

120
Q

What does speed trim fail mean?

A

Inhibited for rest of flight, exceeded trim limit. MCAS

121
Q

When does the Cross FCC Trim monitor activate?

A

F15 or less
AP engaged
Not in GS/GP

Protects from erroneous trim runaway.

122
Q

When can STAB OUT OF TRIM illuminate?

A

AP engaged or less than 30 knots.

123
Q

What does the FO column control of aileron breakout?

A

Flight spoilers

124
Q

When will SPD EXT illuminate?

A

TL greater than idle for 15 seconds
TL greater than 40 degrees for 3 seconds
Flaps over 10
Less than 800’ RA

125
Q

When does LAM work?

A

F30/40. Also F15-25 when TL near idle.

126
Q

When will extend ground spoilers?

A

Both MLG conpressed, wheel spin up and TL idle

127
Q

When will auto speed brakes extend?

A

RA 6’

128
Q

When will flight spoilers extend?

A

Any gear compressed

B38M Tech (5 decks)

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