Instrument Procedures Flashcards
What sensitivity is required for the various segments for GPS approaches?
When an approach is loaded into the GPS unit, and the aircraft is within 30NM straight line distance from the airport, the receiver should be armed (if not automatically done so). This will make the sensitivity of the GPS CDI +/- 1 NM.
When within 2 NM of the FAWP with the approach mode armed, the CDI sensitivity will smoothly change from +/-1 NM to +/- .3 NM
You are flying a GPS approach and, prior to the final approach waypoint (FAWP), the receiver does not sequence into the approach mode. What should you do?
If the receiver does not sequence into the approach mode or a RAIM failure/status annunciation occurs prior to the FAWP, the pilot should not descend to Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA), but should proceed to the missed approach waypoint (MAWP) via the FAWP, perform a missed approach, and contact ATC as soon as practical.
You are flying the N87 VOR RWY 29 approach in no-wind conditions. You cross RBV VOR inbound at 1500 and start your timer and begin your descent at 60 knots groundspeed. After 4 minutes 36 seconds have elapsed, you pop out of the clouds and see the runway ahead of you. Can you land straight ahead on runway 29?
Hint: do the math.
At 60 knots groundspeed, in 4 minutes 36 seconds you will have flown about 4.6 nautical miles. Everything looks good according to the chart, right?
Wrong. You can not legally land straight ahead under IFR. This is one of the more hotly debated questions in aviation, but the fact is that FAA rulings have shown that the correct answer is that you may not land legally straight ahead.
When must a pilot initiate a missed approach (4 answers)?
A pilot must execute a missed approach if visual references for landing are insufficient, a safe landing isn’t possible, instructed by ATC, or approach avionics fail.
Can you fly the approach below if your aircraft does not have a traffic or weather radar installed?
Yes! - “Radar Required” means that you must be in radar contact with ATC (so that they can tell you when you are over JUNIA, the FAF).
What is an LNAV approach?
Lateral Navigation (LNAV) approaches are non-precision approaches that provide lateral guidance. The pilot must check RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) prior to the approach when not using the Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) equipment.
What are 3 tests that must be met to have straight-in landing minimums?
There are three required tests that must be met for an approach to have straight-in landing minimums.
The final approach course is aligned within 30 degrees of the runway
The final approach course comes sufficiently close to the runway threshold or extended centerline
The decent angle from the FAF is not excessive
Define Ground Visibility.
Ground visibility means prevailing horizontal visibility near the earth’s surface as reported by the United States National Weather Service or an accredited observer.
In the circling minimums, what does the number 468 mean?
468 is the Height Above Airport (HAA), which is not to be confused with the Height Above Touchdown (HAT). HAA is the height of the MDA above the published airport elevation.
For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?
TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030
FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB
FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM
CLR=
Legally, no alternate is required, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.
As a practical matter, given the cumulonimbus activity (OVC 025 CB), the prudent pilot would probably file an alternate in this case.
What is DH for the VOR Runway 29 approach when circling to land runway 11 in a Category A aircraft?
You could have answered this question without looking at the approach plate. There is no such thing as Decision Height (DH) on a circling approach (and, therefore, no such thing as a Decision Altitude (DA) either). Don’t confuse this with the MDA (Minimum Descent Altitude), which in this case is 800 feet.
What is the effect of a pitot tube blockage on the vertical speed indicator?
There is no effect. The VSI does not utilize pitot indications.
You have loaded the correct approach but have not activated approach mode prior to arriving at the FAWP. Nevertheless, you appear to be flying on the correct heading and altitude profile for the approach. What should you do?
The FAA advanced avionics handbook states:
” If you arrive at the final approach waypoint and the approach mode is not active, you must fly the missed approach procedure. There should be no attempt to activate or reactivate the approach after reaching the final approach fix using any means—simply fly the missed approach procedure.”
How can we test the pitot heat in an airplane?
With the engine off, and the Master Switch on, turn the pitot heat on. Verify that the ammeter shows a negative deflection when the pitot heat is turned on.
What instrument is pictured here?
This is a Turn and Slip Indicator. Do not confuse this with a Turn Coordinator.
What would be the effect of a complete static port blockage on an aircraft’s altimeter?
The altimeter would not show any change with gain or loss of altitude - it would continue to indicate the altitude at which the blockage occurred.
If the static system becomes blocked but the pitot tube remains clear, the ASI continues to operate; however, it is inaccurate. The airspeed indicates lower than the actual airspeed when the aircraft is operated above the altitude where the static ports became blocked, because the trapped static pressure is higher than normal for that altitude. When operating at a lower altitude, a faster than actual airspeed is displayed due to the relatively low static pressure trapped in the system.
Just as with a blocked pitot tube, the same principle applies for a blocked static port. If the aircraft descends, the static pressure increases on the pitot side showing an increase on the ASI. This assumes that the aircraft does not actually increase its speed. The increase in static pressure on the pitot side is equivalent to an increase in dynamic pressure since the pressure can not change on the static side.
If an aircraft begins to climb after a static port becomes blocked, the airspeed begins to show a decrease as the aircraft continues to climb. This is due to the decrease in static pressure on the pitot side, while the pressure on the static side is held constant.
A blockage of the static system also affects the altimeter and VSI. Trapped static pressure causes the altimeter to freeze at the altitude where the blockage occurred. In the case of the VSI, a blocked static system produces a continuous zero indication.
If the static system becomes blocked but the pitot tube remains clear, the __________continues to operate; however, it is inaccurate.
ASI
If the static system becomes blocked but the pitot tube remains clear, the ASI continues to operate; however, it is inaccurate. The airspeed indicates ____________ than the actual airspeed when the aircraft is operated above the altitude where the static ports became blocked, because the trapped static pressure is ____________ than normal for that altitude.
A _______than actual airspeed is displayed due to the relatively low static pressure trapped in the system
The airspeed indicates lower than the actual airspeed when the aircraft is operated above the altitude where the static ports became blocked, because the trapped static pressure is higher than normal for that altitude.
A faster than actual airspeed is displayed due to the relatively low static pressure trapped in the system
What is the (pseudo) airport abbreviation for “Homey Airport” / “Groom Lake” / “Area 51” that you should be aware of and unquestionably avoid under all conditions?
The answer is: KXTA. It may help you to remember: XTA - “Extra Terrestrial.”
What does “TCH 53” mean in the IAP profile-view excerpt below?
This is Threshold Crossing Height (TCH). TCH is the height of the aircraft above the threshold when crossing the threshold centered on the ILS glideslope The TCH is NOT the height of the wheels above the threshold.
What are Departure Procedures (DPs)?
Departure procedures (DPs) provide obstacle clearance protection to aircraft in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC), while reducing communications and departure delays. DPs are published in text and/or charted graphic form.
Regardless of the format, all DPs provide a way to depart the airport and transition to the en route structure safely. When available, pilots are strongly encouraged to file and fly a DP at night, during marginal visual meteorological conditions (VMC), and IMC.
When flying a DP, unless otherwise indicated, pilots are expected to fly straight ahead to ____ feet AGL before making a turn?
400
You are descending on an ILS (Cat I). At Decision Height / Decision Altitude you see the approach light system but not the runway. Must you fly the missed approach immediately? Can you land?
If the approach light system is distinctly visible and identifiable to you, you may continue below 200 feet AGL (below 200 feet DH).
However, you may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
When will a GPS receiver switch to active approach mode?
When within 2 NM of the FAWP with the approach mode armed, the approach mode will switch to active, which results in RAIM and CDI sensitivity changing to the approach mode.
You’re flying a GPS approach in IMC and seem to be doing a good job of flying a course with the CDI just slightly off center.
Suddenly, at around 2nm from the FAWP, the CDI displacement increases somewhat dramatically, but yet you’re not
particularly concerned. Why not?
When within 2 NM of the FAWP with the approach mode armed, the approach mode will switch to active, which results in RAIM
and CDI sensitivity changing to the approach mode.
Beginning 2 NM prior to the FAWP, the full scale CDI sensitivity will change smoothly from ±1 NM to ±0.3 NM at the FAWP.
sensitivity changes from ±1 NM to ±0.3 NM approaching the FAWP, and the CDI not centered, the corresponding
increase in CDI displacement may give the impression the aircraft is moving Further away From the intended course
even though it is on an acceptable intercept heading.
In this case, you’re not concerned because you correctly anticipated this.
The IMSAFE self-assessment checklist allows you to quickly verify your personal condition prior to flight. However, your
personal condition is one of only four major categories of risk areas that should be assessed prior to each flight. What are the
other three?
It is recommended that you use the PAVE mnemonic to recall all four items:
* P- Pilot (general health, physical/ mental/ emotional state, proficiency, currency)
* A Aircraft (airworthiness, equipment, performance)
* V- EnVironment (weather hazards, terrain, airports / runways to be used & other conditions)
- External pressure (meetings, people waiting at destination, etc.)
The IMSAFE checklist alluded to in the question refers to preflight personal self-assessment and is as follows:
I - Illness
M - Medication
S - Stress
A - Alcohol (8 hours bottle to throttle; no more than .04 of alcohol in blood)
F- Fatigue
E
- Emotion
What conditions must be met for a pilot to operate an aircraft below
an MDA or DA?
The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway of use can be made
using a normal descent rate and normal maneuvers.
The flight visibility is greater than what is prescribed for that particular approach
One of the following visual references is distinctly visible to the pilot:
1. The approach light system
2. The threshold
3. The threshold markings
4. The threshold lights
5. The runway end identifier lights
6. The visual approach slope indicator
7. The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings
8. The touchdown zone lights
9. The runway or runway markings
10. The runway lights
When the approach light system is identified, the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above TDZE unless the red
terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
You’re flying the WVI VOR/DME approach below at night. Due to wind or other runway conditions, you as PIC have decided that the only
available runway for you to land on is Runway 26, so you plan on a circle to land to runway 26.
You fly the approach, but see the airportjust
as you fly over the intersection of the two runways. What do you do?
Please take time to consider this question carefully before answering.
The only possible answer is that you must immediately execute the missed approach.
The notes section of this IAP chart says that circling maneuvers are not authorized west of runway 2-20. If you have crossed the intersection
of the runways on the VOR/DME approach, you are west of runway 2-20.
Read the notes carefully!
What is a Descent Ratio Table?
Basically, a Descent Ratio Table tells you how much distance you need to descend a given amount of altitude (usually 1000 feet) given your
groundspeed and vertical speed. This allows you to calculate TOD (top of descent - where you start descending from) far more accurately
compared to just “winging it” as you likely did earlier in your flying career when you were flying slower aircraft at relatively low altitudes.
What is the difference between a contact approach and a visual approach?
Pilots must explicitly request ATC authorization for a contact approach - ATC can not initiate a contact approach. On the other hand, ATC can
initiate a visual approach.
Additionally, the weather minimums are different. A visual approach requires a ceiling of 1 ,000 feet and at least 3 miles visibility.
A contact
approach requires only 1 mile visibility and there is no specific ceiling requirement.
In both the visual approach and the contact approach the
pilot must be able to operate clear of clouds.
Until synthetic vision systems become widespread, it seems unlikely that true or near zero visibility takeoffs will be common in light general
aviation aircraft. Nevertheless, the FAA suggests (in the Instrument Flying Handbook and elsewhere) that instrument students be taught to
perform instrument takeoffs. Other than because this generally improves the pilots familiarity with and proficiency in instrument flight, why is
this a good idea?
It helps with situational awareness, scanning your instruments, and reduce disorientation.
What is meant by the term “RNP 1.0”?
“RNP 1.0” referes to a maximum 1.0 nautical mile deviation from an ideal course centerline
This is the RNP level supported in the USA for departure and terminal operations.
When an approach has been loaded into the GPS flight plan, when should a GPS receiver usually give an (approach) “arm” annunciation?
When an approach has been loaded in the flight plan, GPS receivers will give an “arm” annunciation 30 NM straight line distance from the airport/heliport reference point.
