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Instrument Oral Flashcards

1
Q

General requirements for instrument pilot

A 
Private pilot
Read speak write English
Received and logged ground training from instructor
Log book endorsement for knowledge test
Passed knowledge test
Received and logged flight training in airplane or simulator 
Endorsement for practical test
Pass practical test

61.65a

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2
Q

Instrument experience requirements

A

50 hrs xc time as PIC
40 hrs actual or sim instrument time
15 hrs dual received
1 instrument xc must be performed under IFR / FILED with a control tower
Xc must be 250 nm
Must have an IFR approach @ each airport
3 different approaches w/ use of nav systems
You need IFR flight training from authorized instructor within 2 mo b4 practical

61.65d

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3
Q

IFR flight privileges

A

Can act as PIC under IFR (61.3)
Can act as PIC in weather conditions less than VFR (61.3)
Can conduct special VFR operations at night (91.157)

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4
Q

What is instrument required equipment

A

ATOMATOFLAMES,FLAPS AND (GRABCARDD)

91.205

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5
Q

What are the components of GRABCARDD

A 
Generator
Radio (2 way plus navigation equip suitable for the route
Altimeter = pressure sensitive
Ball= skid slip indicator 
Clock. =Hr/min/sec
Attitude indicator
Rate of turn indicator. 
Directional gyro 
DME or RNAV
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6
Q

Risk management. PHAK 2-18

A

DECIDE

Detect
Estimate
Choose
Identify
Do
Evaluate
Or PPP
Perceive
Process 
Preform
 (RMH 2-15)
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7
Q

List of challenges. SRM

A 
5 Ps
Plan
Plane
Pilot
Passengers
Programming

(RMH 6-8)

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8
Q

WhAt are the components of the CRAFT clearance

A 
Clearance
Route
Altitude
Frequencies 
Transponder squawk
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9
Q

Mandatory reporting under IFR

A

MARVELOUS VFR C500

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10
Q

What is MARVELOUS VFR C500

A 
Missed approach
Airspeed +/- 10 kt or 5% change of filed TAS 
Reaching a holding fix
VFR on top and altitude change during
ETA change +/- 2 min 
Leaving a holding fix point
Outer marker *
Unforcasted weather *
Safety of flight
Vacating an altitude 
Final approach fix *
Radio NAV failure
Compulsory reporting points *
500 - unable to climb or descend 500 fpm
  • required only in non radar environment. Including ATC radar failure
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11
Q

Position reporting

A

ATP AT ETA

Aircraft ID
Time
Position

Altitude
Type of flight plan

ETA and name of next fix
The next “next” fix
Any pertinent remarks

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12
Q

When not to fly a procedural turn

A

NORTH

NO pt on approach plate

Radar vectored
Timed approach
Hold in lieu

91.175

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13
Q

What are the VFR MVFR IFR & LIFR visibility minimums

A

VFR - >5, >3000
MVFR - 3-5, 1000-3000
IFR - <3, <1000
LIFR - <1, <500

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14
Q

Recent Flight Experience: Pilot in Command (61.57c)

A

66HITS

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15
Q

What is 6.6. H.I.T.S

A

Within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight under simulated or actual instrument
conditions must have logged…
6 Instrument approaches
Holding procedures and tasks
Intercepting and
Tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic Systems

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16
Q

Does the recent flight experience have to be done in an aircraft

A

You may accomplish recency requirements using a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation
training device provided the device represents the category of aircraft for the instrument rating privileges to
be maintained and the pilot performs the tasks and iterations in simulated instrument conditions.

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17
Q

What are is the weather minimum rule for an alternate landing

A

The 123 rule.

91.169

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18
Q

What is the 123 rule

A

The 123 rule says that of an airport has a published instrument approach and the weather between the time of
1hr before until 1hr after You have
2000’ ceilings
3 sm visibility

You do not need to file an alternate

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19
Q

What are the common ways to file a flight plan

A 
Flight service.  1800 wxbrief
ATC or tower
ARTCC
FSS
FORE FLIGHT
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20
Q

Describe 2D gps

A

Required 3 satellites

Gives you latitude and longitude

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21
Q

Describe 3D gps

A

Requires 4 satellites

Gives you latitude, longitude and Altitude

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22
Q

Describe RAIM

A

Requires 5 satellites
Gives you latitude, longitude, Altitude and TRUST
Because it monitors the satellites

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23
Q

Explain fault detection and exclusion

A

Requires 6 satellites
Gives you latitude, longitude, Altitude and TRUST
Because it monitors the satellites same as RAIM but will fix it. Will kick a satellite out and replace it

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24
Q

Describe WAAS

A

Ground based stations to correct for errors in gps positioning making them more accurate.

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25
What is LPV
Localizer performance and vertical guidance. Or glide slope
26
What is LP
Localizer performance
27
What are the components of the AHAR’s
Attitude indicator Slip skid indicator Rate of turn
28
Wheat are the 3 types of GPS sensitivity
Terminal Enroute Approach
29
What is the range and sensitivity of terminal GPS mode
30 nm range With WAAS 1nm from center line Without WAAS 1nm from centerline
30
What is the range and sensitivity of Enroute GPS mode
The middle distance range With WAAS 2nm from center line Without WAAS 5nm from centerline
31
What is the range and sensitivity of approach GPS mode
2nm range from the FAF With WAAS 0.3NM from center line Without WAAS 0.3 NM from centerline
32
Explain the VSI
Diaphragm and a casing with a calibrate leak. Reading a difference in pressure. When the pressure inside the casing goes up it squeezes the diaphragm showing a climb. And when the pressure outside the diaphragm is less than the diaphragm it expands showing a decent Works opposite of an altimeter.
33
What are some gyro errors
Can tumble in 60 deg climbs or descents 100 deg turns
34
What instruments operate off righty in space
Attitude indicator Heading indicator Run off a vacuum
35
What instrument operates off precession
Turn coordinator Runs off electrical power. Has stops. Won’t tumble.
36
What are the 3 kinds of VOR
Terminal Low altitude High altitude
37
What does VOR stand for
Very High Frequency Omni-Directional Range
38
What are some errors associated with VORs
1. Line of sight 2. Cone of Confusion 3. RPM Error 4. Service Volumes 5. Reverse Sensing
39
What is the range of the terminal VOR
1000’-12000’ | 25 nm of coverage
40
What is the range of the low altitude VOR
1000’-18000’ 40 nm coverage
41
What is the range of the high altitude VOR
1000’-14500’ 40 nm 14500’- 18000’ 100 nm 18000’ - 45000’. 130 nm 45000’ - 60000’. 100 nm
42
Alternate weather minimums. If alternate has a precision approach
least 600’ ceilings and 2 SM VIS. | At ETA of alternate
43
Alternate weather minimums. If alternate has a non precision approach
at least 800’ ceilings and 2 SM VIS. | At ETA of alternate
44
Lost com procedure
AVEF for heading MEA for altitude
45
What are the components of AVEF
Assigned Vectored Expected Filed. (As filed in flight plan) 91.185
46
What are the components of the MEA procedure
Minimum IFR altitude Expected Assigned 91.185
47
When do you configure on an ILS approach
1/2 dot deflection on the glide slope
48
When intercepting a radial. What is the minimum intercept angle and maximum angle
20 deg min | 90deg max
49
How to log vor checks
DEPS
50
What does DEPS stand for
Date Error Place Signature
51
How long are you current for?
6mo- as long as u follow the 66HITS in actual or flight sim 6-12 mo need to be with appropriately rated safety pilot or in a flight sim After 12 mo needs to be a IPC.
52
What does IPC stand for.
Instrument proficiency check
53
Where can you find the IPC
The instrument proficiency check can be found in the back of the instrument ACS. A-12
54
What r the 2 types of microburst?
DRY. And WET
55
Describe a microburst
Area of strong Down drafts as strong as 6000 ft min. | Usually only last for about 15 min
56
91.185 Lost coms procedure after AVEF. & MEA
If filed for to an IAF fly to the IAF and hold until the EFC (expect further clearance) or ETA & fly approach in If not filed to an IAF Fly the whole route to clearance limit. And then fly to an IAF and fly approach in
57
What do the blue airports mean on the low enroute chart
BLUE Airports with an Instrument Approach Procedure and/or RADAR MINIMA published in the high altitude DoD Flight Information Publications (FLIPs)
58
What do the green airports on a low enroute chart mean
GREEN Airports with an Instrument Approach Procedure and/or RADAR MINIMA published in either the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publications (TPPs) or the DoD FLIPs
59
What do the brown airports mean in the low enroute chart
Airports without a published Instrument Approach Procedure or RADAR MINIMA
60
91.175. More than just landing minimums
91.175 states. A pilot can’t descend below MDA/DA/DH unless 1) a descent from MEA can be made @ a normal rate w/ normal maneuvers 2) flight visibility must be no less than prescribed on the approach 3) unless one of the following is visible by the pilot * approach lighting system (ALS) - can’t descend below 100’ above TDZE unless red terminating or red side row bars are visible * threshold. * threshold lights * threshold markings * touchdown zone * touchdown zone lights * touchdown zone markings * Runway * Runway lights * Runway markings * Runway end identifier lights (REIL) * Visual glide slope indicator lights. VASI. PAPI
61
What r the ways to do a VOR check
BADVAG
62
What r the components of BADVAG and the tolerances
``` Bench +/- 4 Airborne +/- 6 Duel +/- 4 Vot VOR testing signal +/- 4 Airborne over a prominent landmark 20nm from station +/- 6 Ground vor check +/- 4 ```
63
What are the components of the ILS
Localizer and glide slope 2 ground based systems
64
What r the 3 parts of the ILS system
Guidance - localizer and glide slope Range - marker beacon or DME Visual - approach lights, touchdown and centerline lights, runway lights.
65
What does the localizer do
* Provides lateral guidance during an approach to landing * Course width typically varies between 3 and 6 degrees, * tailored to provide a course width of (full scale fly-left to a full scale fly-right) of 700 feet at the runway threshold.
66
What are the service volumes of the localizer
* 18 NM from antenna and to an altitude of 1000 feet above the highest terrain along the course line and 4500 feet above the elevation of the antenna site. * First 10 nm = 35 degrees either side of course (70 degrees total width) * Remaining 8 nm = 10 degrees either side of course (20 degrees total width)
67
What does glide slope do?
*Provides vertical guidance towards the runway touchdown point, usually at a 3 degree slope * transmitter is located 750 to 1,250 feet from the approach end of the runway and offset 250 to 650 feet from the runway centerline
68
What is the service volume of the glide slope
10nm is typical usable range for a glide slope Transmits a glide path beam 1.4 degrees wide (vertically). Glide path projection angle is normally adjusted to 3 degrees
69
What r the marker beacon types
``` Outer = blue Middle = amber Inner = white ```
70
What does being at the outer marker signify.
4-7 nm out and if at the appropriate altitude will intercept the glide slope
71
What does being at the middle marker signify
Approx 3500’ from landing threshold And if the aircraft is on the glide path this is the approx DA location
72
What does the inner marker signify.
``` Airliner stuff. But A. Cat 2 approach (airliner stuff) b. Between MM and threshold, indicates a point at which an aircraft is at a designated decision height (DH) on the glide path. c. Ex. Typical CAT II DA (100’ AGL) ```
73
Oxygen 91.211 Above 15000’ in a pressurized cabin
Above FL250. = 10 min of sup oxy to every occupant Above FL350= 1 pilot at the controls must wear and use oxy mask * unless 2 pilots @ controls w/ access to quick donning type masks. that can be put on with 1 hand in 5sec Above 12,500. Req Crew if more than 30 min Above 14,000 req crew at all times Above 15,000 req crew all times and offered to passengers. Above FL410= 1 or both pilots must wear oxy masks
74
What are some ILS errors
Reflection and false course Reflection. ILS hold short lines. And other aircraft under 5000’ may disturb the signal False course. 9 to 12 deg is the lowest false course. But if approach is flown to the minimums published the false course is not a factor
75
What happens if localizer or glide slope fail
If localizer fails the ILS is NOT authorized If the glide slope fails the ILS reverts back to a non precision localizer approach.
76
What are the components run by the essential buss
Systems available: 1) PFD 2) AHRS 3) ADC 4) COM1 5) NAV1 6) STBY inst lights 7) STBY voltmeter
77
How does the AHAR’s function or operate
Using solid-state lasers
78
What are the spatial disorientations a pilot needs to worry about
ICEFLAGS
79
What are the components of ICEFLAGS
Inversion= sudden level off Coriolis = sudden head turn Elevator = (updrafts down drafts) pitching up or down False horizon = slopping clouds and terrain Leans = banking illusion Auto-kinesis = stationary lights appear to move Graveyard spiral = recover from a spin but sense entering a new spin. So re-enter spin Somoatogravic = rapid acceleration or decelerations. Causing pitch up or down.
80
How do you do a magnetic compass only turn
UNOS. undershoot north Over shoot south But by how much ``` 15° plus 1/2 latitude. In AZ were at about 35° lat line. 270° heading turning north. 15+17 = 32° lead angle. Stop turn at approx 330° ```
81
How do you calculate a STANDARD RATE TURN
15% of true airspeed = bank angle Quick math says 10% of TAS + 5 under 100knots 10% of TAS + 7 over 100 knots
82
What is standard rate climb
200’NM
83
Gps requirements for the different gps approaches
LNAV = most basic and all gps needs RAIM LNAV/VNAV, LPV, LP= RAIM w/ WAAS LNAV/VNAV = can be shot w/o WAAS w/ BARO AID
84
What is the MSA
Minimum safe altitude For an emergency situation Standard is 25 sm from point indicated. Provides 1000’ feet obstruction clearance in that area
85
What is an ODP
Obstacle departure procedure Takes you to named nav aid Made bc an obstruction is noted that breaks the 40-1 rule for providing clearance inside 25nm for non mountainous and 46nm mountainous Need textual or graphical plate
86
How is a SID different than a ODP
A Sid will take you to the appropriate enroute structure and the appropriate enroute altitude.

FLIGHT SCHOOL (8 decks)

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