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FLIGHT SCHOOL > Instrument Oral > Flashcards

Instrument Oral Flashcards

1
Q

General requirements for instrument pilot

A 
Private pilot
Read speak write English
Received and logged ground training from instructor
Log book endorsement for knowledge test
Passed knowledge test
Received and logged flight training in airplane or simulator 
Endorsement for practical test
Pass practical test

61.65a

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2
Q

Instrument experience requirements

A

50 hrs xc time as PIC
40 hrs actual or sim instrument time
15 hrs dual received
1 instrument xc must be performed under IFR / FILED with a control tower
Xc must be 250 nm
Must have an IFR approach @ each airport
3 different approaches w/ use of nav systems
You need IFR flight training from authorized instructor within 2 mo b4 practical

61.65d

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3
Q

IFR flight privileges

A

Can act as PIC under IFR (61.3)
Can act as PIC in weather conditions less than VFR (61.3)
Can conduct special VFR operations at night (91.157)

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4
Q

What is instrument required equipment

A

ATOMATOFLAMES,FLAPS AND (GRABCARDD)

91.205

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5
Q

What are the components of GRABCARDD

A 
Generator
Radio (2 way plus navigation equip suitable for the route
Altimeter = pressure sensitive
Ball= skid slip indicator 
Clock. =Hr/min/sec
Attitude indicator
Rate of turn indicator. 
Directional gyro 
DME or RNAV
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6
Q

Risk management. PHAK 2-18

A

DECIDE

Detect
Estimate
Choose
Identify
Do
Evaluate
Or PPP
Perceive
Process 
Preform
 (RMH 2-15)
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7
Q

List of challenges. SRM

A 
5 Ps
Plan
Plane
Pilot
Passengers
Programming

(RMH 6-8)

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8
Q

WhAt are the components of the CRAFT clearance

A 
Clearance
Route
Altitude
Frequencies 
Transponder squawk
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9
Q

Mandatory reporting under IFR

A

MARVELOUS VFR C500

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10
Q

What is MARVELOUS VFR C500

A 
Missed approach
Airspeed +/- 10 kt or 5% change of filed TAS 
Reaching a holding fix
VFR on top and altitude change during
ETA change +/- 2 min 
Leaving a holding fix point
Outer marker *
Unforcasted weather *
Safety of flight
Vacating an altitude 
Final approach fix *
Radio NAV failure
Compulsory reporting points *
500 - unable to climb or descend 500 fpm
  • required only in non radar environment. Including ATC radar failure
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11
Q

Position reporting

A

ATP AT ETA

Aircraft ID
Time
Position

Altitude
Type of flight plan

ETA and name of next fix
The next “next” fix
Any pertinent remarks

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12
Q

When not to fly a procedural turn

A

NORTH

NO pt on approach plate

Radar vectored
Timed approach
Hold in lieu

91.175

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13
Q

What are the VFR MVFR IFR & LIFR visibility minimums

A

VFR - >5, >3000
MVFR - 3-5, 1000-3000
IFR - <3, <1000
LIFR - <1, <500

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14
Q

Recent Flight Experience: Pilot in Command (61.57c)

A

66HITS

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15
Q

What is 6.6. H.I.T.S

A

Within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight under simulated or actual instrument
conditions must have logged…
6 Instrument approaches
Holding procedures and tasks
Intercepting and
Tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic Systems

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16
Q

Does the recent flight experience have to be done in an aircraft

A

You may accomplish recency requirements using a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation
training device provided the device represents the category of aircraft for the instrument rating privileges to
be maintained and the pilot performs the tasks and iterations in simulated instrument conditions.

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17
Q

What are is the weather minimum rule for an alternate landing

A

The 123 rule.

91.169

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18
Q

What is the 123 rule

A

The 123 rule says that of an airport has a published instrument approach and the weather between the time of
1hr before until 1hr after You have
2000’ ceilings
3 sm visibility

You do not need to file an alternate

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19
Q

What are the common ways to file a flight plan

A 
Flight service.  1800 wxbrief
ATC or tower
ARTCC
FSS
FORE FLIGHT
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20
Q

Describe 2D gps

A

Required 3 satellites

Gives you latitude and longitude

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21
Q

Describe 3D gps

A

Requires 4 satellites

Gives you latitude, longitude and Altitude

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22
Q

Describe RAIM

A

Requires 5 satellites
Gives you latitude, longitude, Altitude and TRUST
Because it monitors the satellites

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23
Q

Explain fault detection and exclusion

A

Requires 6 satellites
Gives you latitude, longitude, Altitude and TRUST
Because it monitors the satellites same as RAIM but will fix it. Will kick a satellite out and replace it

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24
Q

Describe WAAS

A

Ground based stations to correct for errors in gps positioning making them more accurate.

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25
Q

What is LPV

A

Localizer performance and vertical guidance. Or glide slope

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26
Q

What is LP

A

Localizer performance

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27
Q

What are the components of the AHAR’s

A

Attitude indicator
Slip skid indicator
Rate of turn

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28
Q

Wheat are the 3 types of GPS sensitivity

A

Terminal
Enroute
Approach

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29
Q

What is the range and sensitivity of terminal GPS mode

A

30 nm range

With WAAS
1nm from center line

Without WAAS
1nm from centerline

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30
Q

What is the range and sensitivity of Enroute GPS mode

A

The middle distance range

With WAAS
2nm from center line

Without WAAS
5nm from centerline

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31
Q

What is the range and sensitivity of approach GPS mode

A

2nm range from the FAF

With WAAS
0.3NM from center line

Without WAAS
0.3 NM from centerline

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32
Q

Explain the VSI

A

Diaphragm and a casing with a calibrate leak. Reading a difference in pressure.

When the pressure inside the casing goes up it squeezes the diaphragm showing a climb. And when the pressure outside the diaphragm is less than the diaphragm it expands showing a decent

Works opposite of an altimeter.

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33
Q

What are some gyro errors

A

Can tumble in
60 deg climbs or descents
100 deg turns

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34
Q

What instruments operate off righty in space

A

Attitude indicator
Heading indicator

Run off a vacuum

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35
Q

What instrument operates off precession

A

Turn coordinator

Runs off electrical power.
Has stops. Won’t tumble.

36
Q

What are the 3 kinds of VOR

A

Terminal
Low altitude
High altitude

37
Q

What does VOR stand for

A

Very High Frequency Omni-Directional Range

38
Q

What are some errors associated with VORs

A
  1. Line of sight
  2. Cone of Confusion
  3. RPM Error
  4. Service Volumes
  5. Reverse Sensing
39
Q

What is the range of the terminal VOR

A

1000’-12000’

25 nm of coverage

40
Q

What is the range of the low altitude VOR

A

1000’-18000’

40 nm coverage

41
Q

What is the range of the high altitude VOR

A

1000’-14500’ 40 nm
14500’- 18000’ 100 nm
18000’ - 45000’. 130 nm
45000’ - 60000’. 100 nm

42
Q

Alternate weather minimums. If alternate has a precision approach

A

least 600’ ceilings and 2 SM VIS.

At ETA of alternate

43
Q

Alternate weather minimums. If alternate has a non precision approach

A

at least 800’ ceilings and 2 SM VIS.

At ETA of alternate

44
Q

Lost com procedure

A

AVEF for heading

MEA for altitude

45
Q

What are the components of AVEF

A

Assigned
Vectored
Expected
Filed. (As filed in flight plan)

91.185

46
Q

What are the components of the MEA procedure

A

Minimum IFR altitude
Expected
Assigned

91.185

47
Q

When do you configure on an ILS approach

A

1/2 dot deflection on the glide slope

48
Q

When intercepting a radial. What is the minimum intercept angle and maximum angle

A

20 deg min

90deg max

49
Q

How to log vor checks

A

DEPS

50
Q

What does DEPS stand for

A

Date
Error
Place
Signature

51
Q

How long are you current for?

A

6mo- as long as u follow the 66HITS in actual or flight sim

6-12 mo need to be with appropriately rated safety pilot or in a flight sim

After 12 mo needs to be a IPC.

52
Q

What does IPC stand for.

A

Instrument proficiency check

53
Q

Where can you find the IPC

A

The instrument proficiency check can be found in the back of the instrument ACS. A-12

54
Q

What r the 2 types of microburst?

A

DRY. And WET

55
Q

Describe a microburst

A

Area of strong Down drafts as strong as 6000 ft min.

Usually only last for about 15 min

56
Q

91.185

Lost coms procedure after AVEF. & MEA

A

If filed for to an IAF
fly to the IAF and hold until the EFC (expect further clearance) or ETA & fly approach in

If not filed to an IAF
Fly the whole route to clearance limit. And then fly to an IAF and fly approach in

57
Q

What do the blue airports mean on the low enroute chart

A

BLUE
Airports with an Instrument Approach Procedure and/or RADAR MINIMA published in the high altitude DoD Flight Information Publications (FLIPs)

58
Q

What do the green airports on a low enroute chart mean

A

GREEN

Airports with an Instrument Approach Procedure and/or RADAR MINIMA published in either the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publications (TPPs) or the DoD FLIPs

59
Q

What do the brown airports mean in the low enroute chart

A

Airports without a published Instrument Approach Procedure or RADAR MINIMA

60
Q

91.175. More than just landing minimums

A

91.175 states.
A pilot can’t descend below MDA/DA/DH unless

1) a descent from MEA can be made @ a normal rate w/ normal maneuvers
2) flight visibility must be no less than prescribed on the approach
3) unless one of the following is visible by the pilot
* approach lighting system (ALS)
- can’t descend below 100’ above TDZE unless red terminating or red side row bars are visible
* threshold.
* threshold lights
* threshold markings

  * touchdown zone
  * touchdown zone lights 
  * touchdown zone markings

  * Runway
  * Runway lights
  * Runway markings

  * Runway end identifier lights (REIL)
  * Visual glide slope indicator lights.   VASI. PAPI
61
Q

What r the ways to do a VOR check

A

BADVAG

62
Q

What r the components of BADVAG and the tolerances

A 
Bench +/- 4
Airborne +/- 6
Duel +/- 4
Vot VOR testing signal +/- 4
Airborne over a prominent landmark 20nm from station +/- 6
Ground vor check +/- 4
63
Q

What are the components of the ILS

A

Localizer and glide slope

2 ground based systems

64
Q

What r the 3 parts of the ILS system

A

Guidance - localizer and glide slope
Range - marker beacon or DME
Visual - approach lights, touchdown and centerline lights, runway lights.

65
Q

What does the localizer do

A
  • Provides lateral guidance during an approach to landing
  • Course width typically varies between 3 and 6 degrees,
  • tailored to provide a course width of (full scale fly-left to a full scale fly-right) of 700 feet at the runway threshold.
66
Q

What are the service volumes of the localizer

A
  • 18 NM from antenna and to an altitude of 1000 feet above
    the highest terrain along the course line and 4500 feet above the
    elevation of the antenna site.
  • First 10 nm = 35 degrees either side of course (70 degrees total width)
  • Remaining 8 nm = 10 degrees either side of course (20 degrees total width)
67
Q

What does glide slope do?

A

*Provides vertical guidance towards the runway touchdown point, usually at a 3 degree slope

  • transmitter is located 750 to 1,250 feet from the approach end of the
    runway and offset 250 to 650 feet from the runway centerline
68
Q

What is the service volume of the glide slope

A

10nm is typical usable range for a glide slope

Transmits a glide path beam 1.4 degrees wide (vertically).

Glide path projection angle is normally adjusted to 3 degrees

69
Q

What r the marker beacon types

A 
Outer = blue
Middle = amber
Inner = white
70
Q

What does being at the outer marker signify.

A

4-7 nm out and if at the appropriate altitude will intercept the glide slope

71
Q

What does being at the middle marker signify

A

Approx 3500’ from landing threshold

And if the aircraft is on the glide path this is the approx DA location

72
Q

What does the inner marker signify.

A 
Airliner stuff. 
But 
A. Cat 2 approach (airliner stuff)
b. Between MM and threshold, indicates a point at which an aircraft is at a designated decision height (DH) on the glide path.
c. Ex. Typical CAT II DA (100’ AGL)
73
Q

Oxygen 91.211

Above 15000’ in a pressurized cabin

A

Above FL250. = 10 min of sup oxy to every occupant

Above FL350= 1 pilot at the controls must wear and use oxy mask
* unless 2 pilots @ controls w/ access to quick donning type masks. that can be put on with 1 hand in 5sec

Above 12,500. Req Crew if more than 30 min
Above 14,000 req crew at all times
Above 15,000 req crew all times and offered to passengers.

Above FL410= 1 or both pilots must wear oxy masks

74
Q

What are some ILS errors

A

Reflection and false course

Reflection. ILS hold short lines. And other aircraft under 5000’ may disturb the signal

False course. 9 to 12 deg is the lowest false course. But if approach is flown to the minimums published the false course is not a factor

75
Q

What happens if localizer or glide slope fail

A

If localizer fails the ILS is NOT authorized

If the glide slope fails the ILS reverts back to a non precision localizer approach.

76
Q

What are the components run by the essential buss

A

Systems available:

1) PFD
2) AHRS
3) ADC
4) COM1
5) NAV1
6) STBY inst lights
7) STBY voltmeter

77
Q

How does the AHAR’s function or operate

A

Using solid-state lasers

78
Q

What are the spatial disorientations a pilot needs to worry about

A

ICEFLAGS

79
Q

What are the components of ICEFLAGS

A

Inversion= sudden level off
Coriolis = sudden head turn
Elevator = (updrafts down drafts) pitching up or down
False horizon = slopping clouds and terrain
Leans = banking illusion
Auto-kinesis = stationary lights appear to move
Graveyard spiral = recover from a spin but sense entering a new spin. So re-enter spin
Somoatogravic = rapid acceleration or decelerations. Causing pitch up or down.

80
Q

How do you do a magnetic compass only turn

A

UNOS.
undershoot north
Over shoot south

But by how much

15° plus 1/2 latitude. In AZ were at about 35° lat line. 
270° heading turning north. 
15+17 = 32° lead angle. 
Stop turn at approx 
330°
81
Q

How do you calculate a STANDARD RATE TURN

A

15% of true airspeed = bank angle
Quick math says

10% of TAS + 5 under 100knots
10% of TAS + 7 over 100 knots

82
Q

What is standard rate climb

A

200’NM

83
Q

Gps requirements for the different gps approaches

A

LNAV = most basic and all gps needs RAIM
LNAV/VNAV, LPV, LP= RAIM w/ WAAS
LNAV/VNAV = can be shot w/o WAAS w/ BARO AID

84
Q

What is the MSA

A

Minimum safe altitude
For an emergency situation

Standard is 25 sm from point indicated.
Provides 1000’ feet obstruction clearance in that area

85
Q

What is an ODP

A

Obstacle departure procedure

Takes you to named nav aid
Made bc an obstruction is noted that breaks the 40-1 rule for providing clearance inside 25nm for non mountainous and 46nm mountainous

Need textual or graphical plate

86
Q

How is a SID different than a ODP

A

A Sid will take you to the appropriate enroute structure and the appropriate enroute altitude.

FLIGHT SCHOOL (8 decks)

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