Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

202v3 > Instrument Check Platinum > Flashcards

Instrument Check Platinum Flashcards

1
Q

When must you file IFR?

A
  1. IFR should be filed to the max extent possible
  2. Weather requires IFR (VFR Cannot be maintained)
  3. Airspace rules require an IFR flight plan
  4. Night Ops
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When do you need to file an alternate?

A
  1. A compatiable instrument approach procedure is not available at the destination airfield
  2. Weather forecasts +/- 1 hour at the destination airfield ETA indicate, including TEMPO conditions, that the ceilings are less than 2000’ and a visibility of 3 SM
  3. Forecasted crosswinds are out of limits
  4. Denial of RVSM airspace would prevent a non-RVSM aircraft or flight from reaching the planned destination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What 8 items disqualifies an airport as an alternate?

A
  1. Worst alternate forecast weather conditions for +/-1 hour , to include TEMPO conditions, will meet or exceed a ceiling of 1,000 ft. and 2SM, or 500 ft.+Mins or 1SM+mins, whichever is higher
  2. Winds out of limits +/- 1 hour of ETA (25 knots max crosswind, 20 touch and gos, 10 for tailwind are main situations, but know ops limits)
  3. Weather reporting service is not available at the airfield
  4. Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace required for reaching planned alternate
  5. Radar is required for all compatible approaches
  6. “ ANA_symbol” (Alternate Not Authorized) on all compatible approaches, and Any note disqualifying the airfield or all compatible approaches in the IFR Alternate Minimums section
  7. GNSS (Global Navigation Satellite System) required at alternate & planned at destination
  8. Required navigational aids (NAVAIDS) will be Unmonitored
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the minimum climb gradient required when departing an airfield under IFR?

A

200 ft./NM or published climb gradient, whichever is higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What minimums are needed for circling/straight-in approaches?

A

Weather must be at or above both ceiling AND visibility in parentheses requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Can you begin your enroute descent or instrument approach if the weather at your destination is below mins?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do you do if the weather goes below mins after you’ve already begun the approach?

A

The approach may be continued to the appropriate MAP and a landing may be accomplished if all criteria for landing are met.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If a TEMPO condition at your alternate (+1 hour of your ETA) shows weather below mins due to thunderstorms, snow showers, or rain showers, can you still use that airfield as an alternate?

A

Yes. However, if the TEMPO exists because of any other condition that pushes the weather below approach minimums (fog, haze, winds, etc.), you cannot use that airfield as an alternate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If the forecast for your destination shows weather in limits, but includes a TEMPO line that is not, can you still file to that airfield?

A

Yes, but you need to file an alternate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does fuel planning change if you are filing to an alternate?

A

Filing with visibility only: Your plan must include fuel for an approach and missed approach at your destination

Filing with visibility and ceiling: Your plan does not need to include fuel for a missed approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the weather minimums for takeoff in IMC?

A

Pilots will not takeoff if the weather is below the lowest compatible approach minimums. Exception: MAJCOMs may publish alternative takeoff minimums and recovery procedures when takeoff weather is lower than published lowest compatible approach minimums. In all cases, takeoff visibility must be 600 RVR or greater.

[AETC] AFI 11-2 MDS must provide specific guidance on the alternate takeoff minimums and substitute recovery procedures. Minima below 1600 RVR are not authorized unless runways are equipped with centerline lights and visible markings, and two operative transmissometers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the MOCA on this chart and what does the MOCA represent?

A

The MOCA (Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude) is the lowest published altitude in effect between fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments that meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment.

This altitude also assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22 NM of a VOR.

The MOCA is *3000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the MEA on this chart and what does the MEA represent?

A

The MEA (Minimum En Route Altitude) is the lowest published altitude between radio fixes that ensures navigation signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes.

The MEA on this photo is 3800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the MRA on this chart and what does the MRA represent?

A

MRAs (Minimum Reception Altitude) are the minimum altitude the navigation signal can be received for the route and for off-course NAVAID facilities that determine a fix.

When the MRA at the fix is higher than the MEA, an MRA is established for the fix and is the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined.

4900

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the MCA on this chart and what does the MCA represent?

A

An MCA (Minimum Crossing Altitude) is the lowest altitude at certain fixes at which the aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude.

4800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the OROCA on this chart and what does the OROCA represent?

A

An off-route obstruction clearance altitude (OROCA) is an off-route altitude that provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000-foot buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas, and a 2,000-foot buffer in designated mountainous areas. This altitude doesn’t guarantee signal coverage from ground-based NAVAIDs, ATC radar, or communications coverage.

3700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the different types of IFR departures?

A
  1. Diverse Departure
  2. Obstacle Departure Procedure
  3. Diverse Vector Area
  4. Specific ATC Instructions
  5. SID
  6. MAJCOM certified
  7. Special Departure Procedure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do you do if your destination doesn’t have published instrument approaches?

A
  1. File to a point served by a published approach
  2. File to a nearby airfield with approaches with forecast VFR weather +/- 1 hr of arrival, get below IMC, and proceed VFR to your destination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Can you use an airfield without any published or compatible approaches as an alternate?

A
  1. Yes, but forecast weather at that airfield, ±1 hour of your ETA, must permit a VFR descent from the Minimum IFR Altitude to a VFR approach and landing
  2. Regular alternate requirements do not apply
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

An approach can bring you to the runway as much as _____ degrees off centerline and still be considered a straight-in approach

A

30 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the standard direction for holding?

A

Right hand turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the standard direction for holding?

A

Right hand turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What must you do if you go half scale below or full scale above glideslope during an ILS?

A

You must adhere to the Localizer minimums, but if you can recapture the glideslope within the Localizer minimums, you may resume the ILS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the different types of ODPs?

A
  1. Non-standard takeoff minimums
  2. Specific Routing
  3. Visual Climb Over Airport
  4. Reduced takeoff runway length
  5. Any combination above
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When can you legally descend below the MDA?

A

Sufficient visual references within the runway environment must be established and the aircraft is in a position to land safely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What must you do if you lose sight of the runway during a circling approach?

A
  1. Execute a climbing turn in the last known direction of the LANDING runway
  2. Intercept and fly the missed approach procedure for the APPROACH runway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a VDP, and how do you calculate one if it isn’t published?

A
  1. Visual Descent Point, it is the point during a non-precision approach when you can descend out of the MDA if the runway is in sight. The VDP normally allows for a 3 degree glideslope.
  2. Divide the Height Above Touchdown HAT by the (glideslope x 100)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the considerations for using a VOR for doing a groundspeed check?

A
  1. You must be proceeding directly to or directly from the station
  2. Your DME from the station must be greater than your altitude divided by 1,000 (ex. if you are at FL200, you must be more than 20 NM away)
  3. Groundspeed checks made below 5,000 AGL are accurate at any distance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What three pieces of info does a controller need to issue you in order to accomplish a circling approach?

A
  1. Direction from the airport (N, S, E, W, NE, NW, SE, SW)
  2. Left/Right base/downwind
  3. Runway #
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do the letters X, Y, Z, following an approach title, mean on an approach plate?

A

More than one approach exists for the same runway using the same guidance equipment (ex. ILS Z RWY 28L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What do the letters A, B, C, following an approach title, mean on an approach plate?

A

The approach is designed for circling minimums only, i.e. the approach will not bring you into the airfield in line with a runway (ex. VOR-B)

32
Q

Describe what constitutes the “runway environment.

A
  1. One or more of the following: Approach light system; REIL; runway lights; VASI; the threshold, markings, or lights; touchdown zone, markings, or lights; runway or runway markings
  2. NOTE: If using approach lighting to identify the landing environment, do not descend below TDZE+100 feet without seeing the red termination bars
33
Q

Definition of Field Elevation?

A

The highest point on any usable landing surface

34
Q

What is TDZE?

A

Touchdown Zone Elevation, the highest elevation in the first 3,000 feet of the landing surface

35
Q

What does VOR stand for?

A

Very High Frequency Omni-directional Range

36
Q

What are the three modes on the GPS and what are their sensitivities?

A

Enroute: +5 NM
Terminal (App Arm) (within 30 NM of the airfield): +1 NM
Approach (Arm mode) (2 NM prior to the FAF): +0.3 NM

37
Q

What are MSA and ESA?

A

MSA: Minimum Sector Altitude – Provides 1,000’ of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a specified distance from the facility
If more than one Minimum Safe Altitude is required, it becomes a Minimum Sector Altitude. These MSAs will be depicted on each approach plate and provide 1000’ of obstacle clearance within 25 NM of the facility.

ESA: Emergency Safe Altitude – Normally exists at military facilities only, provides 1,000’ of obstacle clearance (2,000’ in mountainous terrain) within 100 NM of the facility

38
Q

What is the range of the ILS glideslope signal?

A

10 NM

39
Q

What is the range of a Localizer signal?

A

18 nautical miles within the 10-

degree sector and 10 nautical miles for the remainder of the coverage

40
Q

What is a Trouble T? Does a Trouble T automatically mean there is an ODP for that airfield?

A

It is a warning that obstacles around the airfield may require non-standard departure minimums, but it does not necessarily mean there is an ODP for the airfield

41
Q

When is a localizer signal considered an instrument guidance system?

A

A localizer offset more than 5 degrees from runway centerline is considered an
instrument guidance system.

42
Q

When is a Procedure Turn not executed?

A

(SNERT)
Cleared a Straight-In
Flying approach via No Procedure Turn (NoPT) routing
Established in holding, subsequently cleared the approach, and holding & procedure turn course are the same
Radar vectors to final
Timing approach (from holding)

43
Q

What is the length of holding at or below 14,000’? Above 14,000’?

A

One minute at or below 14,000’, One minute and 30 seconds above 14,000’

44
Q

What is an LDA?

A

Localizer-type Directional Aid, similar to a localizer but not part of a complete ILS system, doesn’t necessarily bring you in on centerline (greater than 3 degrees off runway heading)

45
Q

Define ‘Mountainous Terrain.’

A

Mountainous areas are in accordance with 14 CFR Part 95.11, IFR Altitude, Current Edition (Just a map).

46
Q

What are the Category B circling parameters?

A

Cat B - 91-120 KIAS / 1.5 NM radius

47
Q

What does an underlined NAVAID frequency on an approach plate mean?

A

That NAVAID does not have voice transmission capability on that frequency

48
Q

What does a white “C” on a black square mean on the circling approach minimums line?

A

A modification to your circling approach exists to address an increase in True Airspeed due to an increase in altitude

49
Q

Identify the control tower on an airfield sketch.

A

Black square with TWR written above it

If the tower and airport beacon are collocated, only the beacon star symbol will be displayed

50
Q

A black star with a white circle on an airfield sketch denotes what?

A

Airport beacon location

51
Q

At the top of an airfield sketch in an approach plate, what does a white “D” on a black square mean?

A

The runway has a declared distance which may be different than the length listed next to the runway in the sketch (may be due to an obstacle, a displaced threshold, etc.)

52
Q

What are the types of declared distances? What distance do we not use in the T-6

A

TORA – T/O runway Available
TODA – T/O Distance Available (do not use this one in the T-6)
LDA – Landing Distance Available
ASDA – Accelerated Stop Distance
All these are found in the IFR sup under the Airport remarks

53
Q

On an approach plate, what does a white “L” on a black circle next to a CTAF mean?

A

A pilot can activate airport lighting on that frequency

54
Q

What does a dot on the top of a lighting symbol mean? What if the lighting symbol is black?

A

A dot means sequenced flashing lights. A black lighting symbol means pilot-controlled lighting

55
Q

In a NORDO situation, what altitude do you fly? What route do you fly?

A

Fly the highest of your Assigned, Minimum IFR, or Expected altitudes (in that order of preference).
Fly the Assigned, Vectored, Expected, or Filed route (in that order of preference)

56
Q

What variation in altitude is allowed when flying at MDA?

A

+100 feet, -0 feet

57
Q

According to the DASH-1, when does the gear need to be down during an instrument approach?

A

Prior to the FAF

58
Q

What is the equivalent of a FAF on an ILS approach?

A

Glideslope Intercept

59
Q

What do the different airport colors on an IFR Enroute Low Altitude chart mean?

A

Blue: Airport has published instrument approaches, and/or radar minima published in High Altitude DoD FLIPs
Green: Airport has published instrument approaches, and/or radar minima published in FAA publications
Brown: Airport have no published instrument approaches or radar minima

60
Q

Maximum Holding Airspeeds

A 
<= 6000’  -   200 KIAS
6000-14000  -  230 KIAS
\+14000  -  265 KIAS
USAF bases  -  310 KIAS
USN bases  -  230 KIAS
61
Q

Comm Requirements for Radar Approaches

A

1 minute prior to final
15 sec for ASR, 5 sec for PAR on final
ASR – Airport/Air Route Surveillance Radar
PAR – Precision Approach Radar

62
Q

What is RAIM (Receiver Autonomus Integrity Monitoring)?

A

Verifies integrity of signal of the constellation to check for faults
Requires minimum of 5 satellites, 4 with Baro-aiding

63
Q

What is FDE (Fault Detection Equipment) ?

A

Identifies which satellite is at fault

Requires 1 additional satellite (6 total, 5 with baro-aiding)

64
Q

Minimum VFR point-to-point altitude

A

3,000’ AGL

65
Q

RVSM (Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums)

A

FL290-FL410
With proper RVSM equipment, can keep 1000’ separation
Without RVSM equipment, must report to ATC and will be kept at 2000’ separation

66
Q

Fuel Filing with alternates

A

Ensure enough fuel to increase flight time by 10% or 20 minutes, whichever is greater, up to 45 minutes
Calculated with max fuel endurance @ 10,000 ft (321 PPH in T-6, generally rounded to 300 PPH)

67
Q

Minimum Altitudes

A

Non-congested Areas: 500’ AGL
Congested Areas: 1000’ AGL, within a 2,000’ Radius
Wildlife Preserves/National Parks: 2000’ AGL

68
Q

LAHSO (Land and Hold Short Operations)

A

Air Force members cannot participate in actively (Don’t want to restrict RWY available)
Can participate passively (takeoff/land on full RWY when someone else is LAHSOing on intersecting RWY)

69
Q

Runway End Crossing Height

A

USAF/USN Non-joint Bases: 0’ AGL

Other: 35’ AGL

70
Q

Turn Rate in Holding

A

3 deg/s, 30 deg bank, bank angle required by flight director (Auto-pilot), whichever is LEAST

71
Q

Can you deviate from the 11-202V3

A

In an inflight emergency requiring immediate action, the PIC may deviate from any rule to the extent required to meet that emergency. The PIC will prepare a detailed report to a supervisor or commander within 24 hours or as mission permits.

72
Q

Airspeed restrictions flying through Class C & D airspace?

A

200 KIAS when less than 2500’ AGL within 4 miles of an airport unless authorized by ATC

73
Q

What is the minimum descent rate? What do you do if you cannot attain it?

A

500fpm / Advise ATC

74
Q

What is the T-6 Penetration Airspeed?

A

200-250 KIAS

75
Q

What is the definition of windshear?

A

Severe windshear is that which produces airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 feet per minute

76
Q

What is the definition of microbursts?

A

Type of windshear that is usually short in duration (2-5 minutes), highly localized (typically 2 miles in diameter) and downdrafts have been measured in excess of 6000 feet per minute

77
Q

What are some signs that windshear could be present?

A

Thunderstorm activity and associated gust fronts, recent passage of a front, large temperature inversions, Virga (rain which evaporates before reaching the ground), pilot reports (PIREPS), and low level windshear alerting system (LLWAS) warnings

202v3 (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions