Inpatient Peds Flashcards

1
Q

Barlow Test

A

First - adducting hip, applying posterior force, pressure on the knee
femoral head OUT of acetabulum
dislocating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ortolani Test

A

Abduct the hip, anterior force on femur

reducing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Worrisome Signs of Sacral Dimples

A

cutaneous signs (hypertrichosis, hemiangioma, etc)
greater than 5mm in diameter
greater than 2.5cm above anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ductal Steal

A

excessive blood flow through pulm circulation –> hypoperfusion of systemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Chlamydial conjunctivitis presents at age..

A

5-14d after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chlyamdia PNA presents at what age

A

4-12 weeks of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cow Milk and IDA

A

Low Fe content of cow mlik
occult GI blood loss w/ CM in 40% of population
inhibition of non-heme iron absorption by casein and calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

TEN-4

A

any bruising less than four months

trunks/ears/neck older than 4m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Types of HSV Infection in Neonates

A

Skin Eye Mucous Membranes
CNS/Meningitis
Disseminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Phototherapy works by

A

converting bilirubin to lumirubin (more water soluble)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bilirubin peaks on what day of life

A

three (5 if premature)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Phototherapy will decrease bilirubin by what rate…

A

0.5 /hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bilirubin in neonates accumulates in what part of brain

A

Basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Conjugated hyperbili definition

A

greater than 2 if less than 5

greater than 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HSP Diagnosis

A

EULAR Criteria
have to have purpura/petechiae w predom on lower extremities
+ 1/4: abd pain, arthritis, arthralgia, histo, or renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most common cause of hemoptysis in peds

A

cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Febrile seizures simple classification

A

less than 15 minutes
one in 24hr period
generalized, not focal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Monospot/Heterophile Antibody

A

Good test in older kids (younger kids don’t make Ab, less than 4)
Good when symptoms present at least 5 days, more likely to be positive as time goes on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CBC abnormality w/ EBV

A

atypical lymphoctes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mono- keep out of sports for

A

3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

EBV-NA (nuclear antigen)

A

positive 1-2 months after infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Rovsing sign

A

pain in the right lower quadrant with palpation of the left side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Obturator sign

A

pain on flexion and internal rotation of the right hip,

which is seen when the inflamed appendix lies in the pelvis and causes irritation of the obturator internus muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Iliopsoas Sign

A

pain on extension of the right hip, which is found in retrocecal appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Age range for typical intussception

A

6-36m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Intussception - most common location

A

ileocecal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Intussception - lead point

A

peyer patches > meckels, lyphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Intussception - imaging

A

US: target sign
XR: Crescent sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

intussception treatment

A

air enema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Ladd Bands

A

connect cecum to abdominal wall, cross duodenum

present in malrotation pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Malrotation imaging of choice

A

UGI with contrast

shows corkscrew sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cholinergic Poisoning

A

SLUDGE

Parasympathetic: Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, Gastric Upset, Emesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Status epilepticus duration

A

Historically 30 minutes

However, >5 minutes likely to be prolonged and lead to status, so treatment algorithms start here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Otitis Externa - Organisms to cover

A

Pseudomonas and Staphylcoccus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

PID- Short term complications

A

tubo-ovarian abscess
perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis)
periappendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

PID Organisms

A
  • STI- Gonorrhea, Chlamydia
  • Ureaplasma, Mycoplasma
  • Anaerobes/GI- E coli, Bacteroides, Gardenella, actinomyces, etc…
  • Can be due to UTIs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

PID Diagnosis

A

1) Cervical, Adenxal or Uterine Tenderness
and
2) Supportive findings including fever, discharge, +STD, elevated ESR/CRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

PID Oral Treatment

A

Ceftriaxone + Doxy +/- Flagyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Lyme Treatment

A

doxy
amox
cefuroxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Port Wine Stain

A
  • capillary vascular malformation
  • can be associated with Sturge Weber (seizures, glaucoma)
  • typically in V1 distribution w/ SWS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Tick paralysis-

A

mimics GBS

remove tick!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What common peds meds for chronic kids CAN”T be in solution

A
  • levothyroxine

- baclofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Colic definition

A

3 hours of crying for 3 days a week for at least 3 weeks

should resolve by 4-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Gianotti Crosti syndrome

A

papular rash on legs, buttocks, arms

hypersensitivity reaction to prior viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Papular Urticaria

A

rxn to to insect bites

red papules or vesicles on extremities, can be umbilicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Edwards Syndrome

A

Trisomy 18

  • rocker bottom feet (vertical talus)
  • petite face (small mouth, micrognathia)
  • clenched hands, 5th over 4th, 2nd over 3rd
  • GI can be malrotation, meckels, omphalocele
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Patau Syndrome

A

Trisomy 13

- micro/anophthalmia, cleft lip and/or palate, and postaxial polydactyly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Apnea Definition

A

cessation of breathing for 20 seconds

or shorter with bradycardia (HR <100, cyanosis or pallor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Stridor

A

high pitch, upper airway obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Wheezing

A

narrowing of airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Rhonchi

A

rattling
larger airway
mucus obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Williams Syndrome

A
  • elfin face, friendly demeanor
  • aortic stenosis, arterial stenosis
  • hypercalcemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Hepatomegaly in Newborns

A

greater than 3.5cm in newborns below costal margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hepatomegaly in Children

A

greater than 2cm in children below right costal margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Noonan Syndrome

A

hypertelorism
short stature
webbed neck
pulmonary valve stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Impetigo- organisms

A
Staph Aurues (MSSA, MRSA)
GAS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Adenovirus

A

commonly pharyngitis and conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

TB treatment in children

A

Under 5 - receive prophylactic treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Pneumonia Organisms - Less than age 5

A

Viral: RSV most common, adeno, humanmeta

Strep Pneumo, H flu > Mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pneumonia Organisms - Age 5 through 18

A

Mycoplasma > Strep Pneumo, H flu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Blood Cultures in Peds Pneumonia

A

low clinical utility

  • fail to show clinical improvement
  • moderate to severe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Effusions size in pediatrics

A

small - less than 1/4 of thorax
medium - less than 1/2
large - more than 1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Peds Pneumonia with Empyema - antibiotics

A
consider ceftriaxone (resistant s pneumo) + 
 clindamycin or vancomycin (MRSA coverage)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Nitrites vs LE in UAs

A

nitrite –> specific

LE –> sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Recommendations for Renal Ultrasound in Peds

A

2-24 months following first febrile UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Can use see VUR on renal ultrasounds?

A

only Grade III-IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Recommendation for VCUG in Peds

A
2 or more febrile UTIs
1st febrile UTI w/ 
- abnormal u/s
- 39+ temp + organism other than E coli
- Poor growth or HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How does H flu get resistance to Amox

A

Beta lactamase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How does Strep give resistance to Amox

A

PCN binding proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

HUS triad

A

anemia, thrombocytopenia, acute renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

McCune Albright Triad

A

precocious puberty
café-au-late spots
fibrous dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Cover Test

A

First eye covered for 1-2 seconds, observe uncovered eye

Cover opposite ever for 1-2 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

congenital melanocytic nevi

A

transformation to melanoma in large CMN, >20cm

grow as children grow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Phytophotodermatitis

A

rash following citrus exposure and then UV light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Measles- symptoms

A

cough, coryza, conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Koplik spots

A

white spots on buccal mucosa, occur before measles rash begins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Measles Complications

A
  • ADEM
  • Encephalitis
  • Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Croup-

A

parainfluenza

6 months to 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Croup Treatment

A

Dexamethasone even if mild symptoms

Race epi if stridor at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Croup X ray

A

steeple sign on neck xray, subglottic tracheal narrowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Racemic Epinephrine

A

reduce stridor in 30 minutes
lasts no longer than 2 hours
observe for 4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Pleural TB

A

primary TB pleuritis in kids
reactivation TB pleuritis in adults
obtain pleural biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

ASA in Kawasaki Disease

A

preventing intracoronary thrombosis that could leading to MI in stenotic or aneurysmal coronary artery

84
Q

Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

A

AD
melanocytic macules of lips, buccal mucosa, digits
GI harmartomatous polyps (rectal bleeding, anemia)

85
Q

DiGeorge Syndrome

A
CATCH-22 (chromosome 22)
C- cardiac abnormalities
A- abnormal facies
T- Thymic absence or T cell dysfunction
C- cleft palate
H- hypocalcemia
86
Q

Raynold Phenomena- Triphasic

A

1) With vasospasm, the digit exhibits a distinctly demarcated distal pallor coolness (white)
2) cool dusky bluish phase and/or (blue)
3) a bright hyperemic flush (red)

87
Q

Dermatomyositis MOA

A

small vessel vasculopathy

88
Q

Dermatomyositis- muscle symptoms

A

proximal muscle weakness

89
Q

proximal muscle weakness=

A

difficulty getting up out of chair/toilet
climbing stairs
getting on and off the floor

90
Q

Muscle Enzymes =

A

CK
LDH
aldolase
AST

91
Q

Classic KD Symptoms

A

5 days of fever
4/5 CRASH
Conjunctivitis, Rash, Adenopathy, Strawberry tongue/mucositis, Hands and feet

92
Q

Incomplete KD Features

A
sterile pyuria
anemia
low albumin
thrombocytosis
elevated ALT
leukocytosis
or ECHO findings
93
Q

JIA diagnosis

A

6 weeks of symptoms

before 16th birthday

94
Q

Torticollis on Exam

A

head tilted to one side

chin in opposite direction

95
Q

Klippel-Feil Syndrome

A

fusion of cervical vertebra (alantoaxial instability)
short neck
low posterior hair line

96
Q

Atlantoaxial Rotary Subluxation

A

children, 6-12 after URI or trauma to neck

head tilts AWAY from SCM muscle

97
Q

NF1 Skin Lesions

A

café au lait spots

freckling in axillary or inguinal areas

98
Q

NF Associated Abnormalities

A

Lisch Nodules (harmatomas)
Neurofibromas
Optic gliomas

99
Q

dyshidrotic eczema

A

acute, pruritic, vesicular lesions

often on hands and feet

100
Q

What does Bactrim NOT cover?

A

Streptococcus

101
Q

Differential Symptoms for Preseptal versus Orbital Cellulitis

A

symptoms of increased intraorbital pressure
blurred visionopthlamopegia
proptosis
chemosis

102
Q

Reasons for CT in Orbital Cellulitis

A

unable to perform exam due to edema
CNS involvement (seizures, AMS)
Clinical deterioration or no improvement in 24-48h

103
Q

Correction Factor in T1DM

A

1800 by TDD

how much 1 unit of insulin will drop glucose

104
Q

Insulin to carbohydrate ratio in T1DM

A

500 divided by TDD

105
Q

Hemophilia A

A

Factor VIII def

X linked

106
Q

Hemophilia B

A

Factor ix def

107
Q

Bilirubin production before the liver

A
  • degrade heme to biliveridin then to unconjugated bilirubin
  • binds albumin to arrive to the liver
108
Q

Bilirubin Metabolism in liver

A
  • conjugated w/ glucuronic acids by BUGT

- secreted into bile ducts

109
Q

Enterohepatic Circulation =

A

deconjugated by bacteria or tissue B gluconuridase

110
Q

Conjugation of Bilirubin in intestine

A

conjugated to urobilinogen

90% to feces

111
Q

Jaundice of Face

A

4-8

112
Q

Jaundice of Trunk

A

Upper 5-12

Lower 8-16

113
Q

Physiological Jaundice can due to

A

1) increased break down of RBCs
2) low BUGT enzyme activity
3) lack of intestinal flora to metabolize to urobilinogen

114
Q

Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia Differential - Categories

A

increased production
Reduced uptake
Conjugation Defect

115
Q

Conjugated Hyperbilirubinemia Differential - categories

A

biliary obstruction
impaired excretion
intrahepatic

116
Q

Unconjugated Hyperbili: Increased Production

A
Physiologic
Hemolysis
Polycythemia
Cephalotoma
Infection
117
Q

Unconjugated Hyperbili: Conjugation Defect

A

Gilbert
Crigler-Najjar
Physiologic
Hypothyroidism

118
Q

Unconjugated Hyperbili: Impaired Excretion/Uptake

A

Prematurity

G6PD Deficiency

119
Q

Breastfeeding jaundice

A

inadequate milk intake and dehydration

120
Q

Breastmilk jaundice

A

inhibition of BUGT enzyme

increase enterohepatic circulation

121
Q

Criger Najjar Type I

A
  • absent BUGT
  • liver transplant, prolonged phototherapy
  • AD
122
Q

Criger Najjar Type II

A
  • decreased BUGT

- may improve with phenobarbital

123
Q

Drugs that can cause unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in neonates

A

sulfonamides
cephalosporins
aspirin

124
Q

Biliary Atresia

A

inflammation on intra and extra hepatic ducts

can have absence of galbladder

125
Q

Alagille Syndrome

A
  • cholestatic jaundice
  • butterfly vertebrae
  • peripheral pulmonary stenosis
126
Q

Pediatric CAP - Blood Culture

A

obtained when hospitalized w/ moderate or severe illness
complicated illness
empyema

127
Q

Pediatric CAP - Length of Therapy

A

Not more than 7 days

128
Q

Steroids in Pediatric CAP

A

Only with asthma, otherwise not studied

129
Q

Recurrent Pneumonia

A

More than two in one year

More than three in lifetime

130
Q

Causes of CAP - Less than 3m

A

GBS, GN enteritis, listeria

HSV, vital

131
Q

Causes of CAP - Infants

A

Viruses!

S pneumo > H flu > Mycoplasma

132
Q

Causes of CAP - Kids Less than 5

A

Viruses! (viral pneumonitis)

S pneumo > H flu > Moraxella, S aureus, GAS

133
Q

Causes of CAP - Kids more than 5

A

S pneumo, Mycoplasma, Chlymadia

134
Q

CAP Complications

A

parapneumonic effusion, empyema, lung abscess

135
Q

Urinary Antigens for CAP in Peds

A

Not recommended, usually false positive

136
Q

When to use Ceftriaxone in Peds CAP

A
  • unimmunized

- consideration with empyema

137
Q

Failure to Thrive Definition

A

dropping two percentiles
OR
weight less than 3rd percentile
below 5th percentile for weight-for-length

138
Q

FTT Broad Categories

A

Inadequate nutritional intake
Malabsorption
Increased metabolic demand

139
Q

FTT Inadequate nutritional intake

A
  • Neglect
  • Emesis/Reflux
  • Oromotor dysfunction
140
Q

FTT Malabsorption

A

CF
Celiac Disease
Hepatobiliary disease
Food Protein Intolerance

141
Q

FTT Increased Metabolic Demand

A

Cardiac, Renal, Endocrine
Congenital Infections
Syndrome

142
Q

Types of HSV in Neonates

A

Disseminated Disease
CNS Disease
Skin, Eye, and Mouth Disease

143
Q

Neonatal Disseminated HSV

A
  • acquired perinatally
  • 20% do not have vesicles
  • hepatitis, pneumonitis, sepsis, DIC
144
Q

BRUE Definition

A

younger than 1 year w/ brief episode associated w/

(1) cyanosis or pallor;
(2) absent, decreased, or irregular breathing;
(3) marked change in tone (hyper- or hypotonia); and
(4) altered level of responsiveness

145
Q

Low Risk Brue Features

A

> 60 days
32 GA w/ >45 weeks PCA
less than 1 minute
no other concerning features

146
Q

BRUE Interventions

A

Should: educate, often CPR
May: EKG, brief monitoring, pertussis

147
Q

pRBCs raise the count by

A

1 for hemoglobin, 3% for hct

148
Q

platelets raise the count by

A

20-25k

149
Q

cryoprecipitate is mainly..

A

factor VIII and fibrinogen

use for DIC

150
Q

Kocher Criteria Septic Arthritis

A
non weight bearing 
temp >101.3
ESR >40
WBC >12
2 criteria = 40%
151
Q

Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions

A

ABO Incompatibility

fever, flank pain, hypotension

152
Q

Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions

A

.minor antigens/non-ABO antigens

fever, hemolysis 7-14 days after

153
Q

TACO

A

transfusion associated circulatory overload

respiratory distress within 6 hours of transfusion

154
Q

TRALI

A

transfusion related acute lung injury
pulm edema w/in 6 hours of transfusion
more serious- usually fever, hypotension

155
Q

Febrile Nonhemolytic Transfusion Reaction

A

temperature increase of 1 degree within 4 hours

due to donor leukocyte cytokines

156
Q

Bacteremia from transufions

A

yesrsinia

babeosis

157
Q

When do we see glucosuria (serum value)

A

serum 180-200

158
Q

Ely’s test (peds rheum)

A

lay flat on table and lift legs

if hips come off table sign of muscle tightness

159
Q

Thomas Test (peds rheum)

A

Knees to chest, release one leg and determine whether it relaxes straight or not

160
Q

Early onset sepsis (neonatal)

A

before 7 days of life

usually within first 24-72 hours

161
Q

Late onset sepsis (neonatal)

A

7 days- 3 months

162
Q

Late, Late onset sepsis (neonatal)

A

> 3 months

163
Q

Antibiotic Coverage for Septic Arthritis in Peds

A

Cover Staph + Strept

Kingella coverage in preschool children

164
Q

Rationale for 4 hours Tylenol Level

A
  • absorption has already taken place and now distribution and clearance is occuring
165
Q

ER Tylenol

A

Immediate release of 325, release of addition 325 in 4 hours (will need two nomograms)

166
Q

Osteomyelitis Organisms - Pediatrics

A

Staph Aureus!!

  • Kingella in school age
  • GBS, E coli in neonates
  • Salmonella in SCD
167
Q

Serotonin Syndrome - Triad

A
  • altered mental status
  • autonomic hyperactivity
  • neuromuscular abnormalities (tremor, clonus, hyperreactivity)
168
Q

AOM less than 6 months

A

always treat

169
Q

AOM 6m-2y

A

treat if bilateral, or severe unilateral

observe if mild and unilateral

170
Q

AOM >2 y

A

treat if toxic, otalgia, temp >102.2F

171
Q

Ocular Clonus

A

seen with serotonin syndrome!

172
Q

Treating Pertussis Timeline Pediatrics

A

within 6 weeks if <1

within 3 weeks if >1

173
Q

Klippel-Trénaunay syndrome

A

port wine stain
lymphatic anomalies
variable overgrowth of bones and soft tissue

174
Q

Theory of D5 in Pediatric Patients with Nausea/Emesis

A

prevents ketone formation which can worsen nausea/emesis

175
Q

Post Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) - Time Course

A

Within 72 Hours

176
Q

Nikolsky Sign

A

Skin sloughs off when touched (cleavage of the epidermis, not dermis)
Happens w/ SSSS

177
Q

Varicella Lesions

A

pruritic vesicles on erythematous base

become pustules, crusted papules

178
Q

Treatment of Staph Scalded Skin Syndrome

A

Clindamycin (for toxin)
Oxacillin or Cefazolin or Vancomycin
(eh, maybe topical mupirocin)

179
Q

Staph Scalded Skin Syndrome - Where to look for source

A

nasopharynx!!

opposite of bullous impetigo where you can culture fluid

180
Q

Aspirin Overdose Treatment

A
  • activated charcoal

- bicarbonate to alkalinize urine

181
Q

Aspirin Acid Base Problems

A

Metabolic Acidosis

Respiratory Alkalosis

182
Q

Galactosemia

A
  • first days after birth w/ milk or breast milk

- liver dysfxn, anemia, acidosis, reducing substances in urine (galactosuria)

183
Q

Random Things associated with Galactosemia

A
  • cataracts

- E coli sepsis

184
Q

Zinc Deficiency

A

alopecia, skin lesions, diarrhea

185
Q

TAR syndrome

A

thrombocytopenia and absent radius

186
Q

Esophageal damage from ingestion caused by..

A

alkaline products –> drain cleaner

187
Q

Infections associated with swimming pools

A

shigella

188
Q

Preauricular Pits and further testing

A

only if other abnormalities are present

189
Q

Mom’s Blood Type for risk of hemolytic anemia

A

O blood types

Rh negative

190
Q

Hemolytic Anemia of Newborn and prior exposures

A

ABO - new prior pregnancy

RH neg - required prior pregnancy

191
Q

Varicella and Skin Infections

A

invasvie GAS

192
Q

Turner Syndrome

A

45X
short stature, webbed neck, normal intelligence
streak ovaries/ovarian failure

193
Q

Congenital vertebral anomalies associated with

A

renal anomalies!

194
Q

Caput succedaneum

A
  • localized superficial edema of the scalp most likely due to venous congestion from cervical pressure
  • above the periosteum
  • cross suture lines
195
Q

Cephalohematoma

A
  • sub periosteal hemorrhage localized to the surface of 1 cranial bone.
  • sharply demarcated boundaries
  • underlying linear skull fracture in small percent
196
Q

Subgaleal hemorrhage

A
  • collection of blood beneath the epicranial aponeurosis and above the periosteum of the skull,
  • fluctuant mass that increases in size soon after birth
  • vaccum deliveries
197
Q

When do c diff colonization in infants become equivalent to adults

A

around 3 years of age

198
Q

VWF function

A

actor that allows functional platelets to bind to connective tissue proteins to form a clot

199
Q

Elevated PT associated with what pathway

A

extrinsic and common pathways

200
Q

Elevated PTT associated with what pathway

A

intrinsic pathways (included VIII)

201
Q

corneal abrasion treatment

A

topical antibiotics

202
Q

double bubble

A

duodenal atresia
dilated stomach and dudodenum
often w/ scaphoid stomach

203
Q

duodenal atresia associated with

A

trisomy 21

vacterl

204
Q

Potter Sequence

A

oligohydramnios, renal abnormalities

  • pulmonary hypoplasia
  • facial abnormalities
  • club feet/hip dislocation
205
Q

Jejunal and Ileal Atresia associated with

A

caused by impaired vascular flow/vasoconstriction

i.e. cocaine, smoking

206
Q

heat exhaustion versus heat stroke

A

mental status changes

207
Q

Bell’s Palsy Treatment

A

steroids