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T1 - Phase 2 - Systems Modules (I) > Inflammation - Immunology - Cells & Tissues; Innate Immunity > Flashcards

Inflammation - Immunology - Cells & Tissues; Innate Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

How many lines of defense does the immune system have?

Which are innate?

Which are adaptive?

A

3;

the first two are innate,

the third (and final) is adaptive

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2
Q

Indicate whether each of the following cell types is part of the innate or adaptive immune system:

B cells

Macrophages

PMNs

T cells

NK cells

A

B cells - Adaptive

Macrophages - Innate

PMNs - Innate

T cells - Adaptive

NK cells - Innate

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3
Q

Indicate whether each of the following substances is part of the innate or adaptive immune system:

Complement

Antibodies

A

Complement - Innate

Antibodies - Adaptive

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4
Q

What cell type is the main adaptive component of humoral immunity?

What cell type is the main adaptive component of cell-mediated immunity?

A

B cells;

T cells

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5
Q

Humoral immunity mainly fights infections in the _____________ space.

Cell-mediated immunity mainly fights infections in the _____________ space.

A

Humoral immunity mainly fights infections in the extracellular space.

Cell-mediated immunity mainly fights infections in the intracellular space.

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6
Q

________ immunity mainly fights infections in the intracellular space.

________ immunity mainly fights infections in the extracellular space.

A

Cell-mediated immunity mainly fights infections in the intracellular space.

Humoral immunity mainly fights infections in the extracellular space.

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7
Q

What is the first line of immune defense?

What are some examples?

A

External barriers (mechanical, chemical, microbiological);

skin, mucous membranes, lysozymes, low pH, respiratory cilia, microbiome

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8
Q

The first line of immune defense is __________ (structure type) and __________ (innate or adaptive).

A

External barriers;

innate

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9
Q

The second line of immune defense is __________ (structure type) and __________ (innate or adaptive).

A

Cellular;

innate

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10
Q

The third line of immune defense is __________ (structure type) and __________ (innate or adaptive).

A

Cellular;

adaptive

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11
Q

What is the main role of NK cells?

Are they cytotoxic?

A

Immune surveillance;

yes

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12
Q

What are the generic S/Sy of inflammation?

A

Pain,

redness,

loss of function,

swelling,

heat

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13
Q

What is the purpose of the inflammation response (ex.: reacting to a breach in the skin)?

A

To increase the ability of leukocytes to enter the infected/damaged extracellular area

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14
Q

What are the major cells of the innate immune system?

A

NK cells,

monocytes/macrophages,

neutrophils, basophils/mast cells, eosinophils

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15
Q

What are the major cells of the adaptive immune system?

A

B cells and T cells

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16
Q

How long does an initial adaptive immune response typically take?

How long does a secondary adaptive immune response typically take (i.e. after immunological memory is developed)?

A

~1 week;

~2 days

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17
Q

How long does an innate immune response typically take to begin responding to an infection?

A

0 - 4 hours

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18
Q

True/False.

B cells recognize processed antigens.

AND

T cells recognize ‘native,’ unprocessed antigens.

A

False.

B cells recognize ‘native,’ unprocessed antigens.

AND

T cells recognize processed antigens.

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19
Q

What structural complex type is used to present antigens to T cells?

A

MHC complexes

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20
Q

Upon encountering the pre-sensitized antigen, memory B cells undergo ________ selection/proliferation/expansion.

A

Clonal

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21
Q

What is the main function of germinal centers found in lymphatic tissue?

A

B cell activation

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22
Q

What diverse functions do antibodies play?

A

Opsonization, neutralization, complement activation

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23
Q

B cells recognize _________ antigens from infections in the extracellular space.

T cells recognize _________ antigens from infections in the intracellular space.

A

Unprocessed (native);

processed (chopped up)

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24
Q

B cells recognize unprocessed (native) antigens from infections in the _________ space.

T cells recognize processed (fragmented) antigens from infections in the _________ space.

A

Extracellular;

intracellular

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25
Q

True/False.

Both B cells and T cells respond to pre-sensitized antigenic stimuli via clonal selection/proliferation.

A

True.

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26
Q

The main role of TH (CD4+) cells is ___________ production.

A

Interleukin (cytokine)

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27
Q

The main role of TC cells is ___________.

A

Cytotoxicity

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28
Q

What is the major Type 1 cytokine of the immune response?

What is the major Type 2 cytokine of the immune response?

A

γ-interferon;

Interleukin-4

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29
Q

What is the major pro-inflammatory cytokine?

What is the major anti-inflammatory cytokine?

A

TNF-α;

interleukin-10

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30
Q

What are the major hormones controlling the thymus gland?

A

Thymopoeitin,

thymosin,

thymulin

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31
Q

Where do T cells get their T cell receptors (TCRs)?

A

The thymus

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32
Q

What cluster of differentiation molecule do T cells express with their CD8+ or CD4+ T cell receptors (TCRs)?

A

CD3

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33
Q

The presence of what membrane receptors would allow you to identify a cell as a T cell?

A

TCR, CD3

(and either CD4+ or CD8+)

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34
Q

95% of T cells have ___ T cell receptors (TCRs).

5% of T cells have ___ T cell receptors (TCRs).

A

αβ;

γδ

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35
Q

What happens to each T cell in the thymic cortex during activation?

What happens to each T cell in the thymic medulla during activation?

A

Gaining of both CD4 and CD8

(CD4+, CD8+);

loss of either CD4 or CD8

(CD4+, CD8-, CD3 [OR] CD4-, CD8+, CD3)

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36
Q

Primary lymphatic tissues are the site of antigen-__________ (dependent/independent) T cell differentiation.

Secondary lymphatic tissues are the site of antigen-__________ (dependent/independent) T cell differentiation.

A

Dependent;

independent

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37
Q

True/False.

Of the three layers of immune defense (barrier innate immunity, cellular innate immunity, adaptive immunity), the second (cellular innate immunity) eliminates most threats.

A

False.

The first line (barrier innate immunity) is actually very effective.

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38
Q

What is the main threat a patient with severe burns faces?

A

Infection

(external barrier / first line of defense removed)

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39
Q

Lymphocytes mainly travel through which vessels of the body?

A

Arteries –> capillaries (HEVs) –> lymphatics

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40
Q

How quickly can a single T cell pass through (and monitor) every lymph node in the body?

A

24 hours

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41
Q

T cells are found in what part of a lymph node?

plasma cells are found in what part of a lymph node?

B cells are found in what part of a lymph node?

A

Paracortex;

medulla;

cortex

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42
Q

_______ cells of the lymph node are mainly found in the medulla.

_______ cells of the lymph node are mainly found in the cortex.

_______ cells of the lymph node are mainly found in the paracortex.

A

Plasma;

B;

T

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43
Q

What types of cell provide a lot of the supportive features of a lymph node?

A

Macrophages (hematogenous cells),

follicular dendritic cells (stromal cells)

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44
Q

True/False.

The follicular dendritic cells of the lymph node provide a supportive role and are derived hematogenously from macrophages.

A

False.

The follicular dendritic cells of the lymph node provide a supportive role and are derived from stroma (e.g. fibroblasts).

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45
Q

What are the three central portions of a lymphatic germinal center?

What is the one outer portion of a lymphatic germinal center?

A

Dark zone –> basal light zone –> apical light zone;

the mantle zone

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46
Q

What occurs in lymphatic germinal centers?

A

B cell activation;

initial antibody production

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47
Q

In what particular structure of the lymph node are B cells able to switch from IgM to IgG production?

A

Germinal centers

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48
Q

What relatively large organ is full of lymphatic germinal centers?

A

The spleen (splenic white pulp)

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49
Q

Describe the basic structure of a sample of splenic white pulp.

A
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50
Q

Most infections enter through what portion of the body?

A

Mucosal tissues

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51
Q

What are the two main types of gut-associated lymphatic tissue (note: one is a specific tissue type and the other is just a layer of the gut.)?

A

Gut lymphocytes (in the lamina propria)

Peyer’s patches (terminal ileum)

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52
Q

What type of cell is a specialized APC found in the gut?

A

M cells

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53
Q

You note a cell in the lab that has a CD3 protein on its surface. What type of cell is it?

You note a cell in the lab that has a CD20 protein on its surface. What type of cell is it?

A

T cell;

B cell

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54
Q

What lymphatic tissue is present in the pulmonary bronchi?

A

Bronchus-associated lymphatic tissue

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55
Q

True/False.

In most mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT, NALT, GALT, BALT, etc.), there are more B cells than T cells.

A

False.

In most mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT, NALT, GALT, BALT, etc.), there are approximately even numbers* of B cells *and T cells.

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56
Q

In what mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue type is there an uneven amount of B cells vs. T cells?

Of which is there more?

A

Peyer’s patches;

B cells > T cells

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57
Q

Why are Peyer’s patches predominated by B cells (B > T)?

A

Massive IgA production

58
Q

True/False.

The adaptive immune system will give better and better subsequent immune responses if facing a repeated threat.

A

True.

59
Q

What are the two lines of defense made up by innate immunity?

A
  1. External barriers (e.g. skin, cilia, low pH, lysozymes, etc.)
  2. Initial cellular response (e.g. neutrophils, macrophages, NK cells etc.)
60
Q

What cell type(s) of the innate immune system perform(s) immune surveillance?

A

Natural killer cells

61
Q

What are some other colloquial names for a neutrophil?

A

Polymorphonuclear cells,

PMNs,

polys

62
Q

List the leukocytes found in the blood in descending order of quantity.

A

Neutrophils >

Lymphocytes >

Monocytes >

Eosinophils >

Basophils

63
Q

What type of cell can expel its DNA strands in a suicide attempt to bind to infectious agents?

What is this net formation termed?

A

Neutrophils;

netosis (the DNA strands are ‘sticky’ and can inhibit microbial movement)

64
Q

Describe some of the basic potential functions of a neutrophil in the cardiovascular system once an infectious threat is identified in tissue.

A
65
Q

What are the two basic forms of neutrophil netosis (chromatin net formation)?

A

Plasma membrane rupture (widespread net);

non-lytic (targeted attack)

66
Q

What are the basic steps of the inflammatory process after an individual steps on a rusty nail and bacteria enter/bypass the skin?

A

Tissue leukocytes (e.g. mast cells) sense the infection and release cytokines;

these cytokines cause (1) vasodilation and (2) neutrophil chemotaxis

67
Q

Fill in the blanks for the inflammatory response after the skin is breached and infected:

Tissue leukocytes (e.g. mast cells) sense the infection and release (1) __________;

these (1) __________ cause (2) __________ and (3) __________ chemotaxis.

A

Tissue leukocytes (e.g. mast cells) sense the infection and release cytokines;

these cytokines cause vasodilation and neutrophil chemotaxis.

68
Q

Leukocytes can only adhere to / crawl along / extravasate from which type of blood vessel(s)?

A

Veins only

69
Q

What type of protein binds leukocyte membrane carbohydrates and allows the leukocyte to adhere to venous walls?

A

Selectins

(a type of lectin)

70
Q

What type of cell in the cardiovascular system displays selectins on its membrane?

Why?

A

Venous endothelial cells;

to allow leukocyte binding

71
Q

Why don’t leukocytes extravasate from arteries?

A

Shear pressure is too high (rapid blood flow);

arterial thickness

72
Q

What percentage of leukocytes are neutrophils?

A

60 - 70%

73
Q

How long does it take for neutrophils to influx into an area of infection (e.g. via breached skin)?

A

< 1 hour

(very rapid)

74
Q

True/False.

Eosinophils will be a major component of the cellular response to infection by single-cellular parasites.

A

False.

Eosinophils will be a major component of the cellular response to infection by multi-cellular parasites.

Neutrophils still predominate for single-cell parasites.

75
Q

Cells of innate immunity operate via a system of pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) that recognize what?

A

Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

(e.g. toll-like receptors)

76
Q

A toll-like receptor is an example of receptors that sense what broader category of stimulant for the innate immune system?

A

Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

77
Q

Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) of the innate immune system allow for recognition of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) of a specific _____ of pathogen.

A

Class

(not by individual pathogens)

(e.g. distinguishing between gram-negative and gram positive or between DNA or RNA viruses)

78
Q

Where are toll-like receptors found (in regards to cellular structure)?

A

The membrane AND in endosomes

(for extracellular and intracellular pathogens)

79
Q

What are these and why are the intracellular different from the extracellular?

A

Toll-like receptors;

the intracellular sense viruses,

the extracellular sense other threats

80
Q

___ (a toll-like receptor) binds to LPS (lipopolysaccharide) to identify gram-negative bacteria.

A

TLR-4

81
Q

TLR-4 (a toll-like receptor) binds to LPS (lipopolysaccharide) to identify __________________.

A

Gram-negative bacteria

82
Q

What type of receptors bind to predetermined pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs such as ssDNA or ssRNA or lipopolysaccharide or flagellin) in order to identify specific categories of infectious agent and respond to them?

A

Toll-like receptors

83
Q

True/False.

Cellular innate immunity is fast and nonspecific.

A

False.

Cellular innate immunity is fast and generic.

(recognition of pathogen-associated molecular patterns generic to pathogen class)

84
Q

What type of cell in the skin is likely to recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns via toll-like receptors?

What happens next?

A

Dendritic cells;

cell activation and travel to a lymph node

85
Q

How do vaccine adjuvants (e.g. aluminium) increase immune response?

A

By indicating to the body that this substance is non-self

(sort of like a pathogen-associated molecular pattern)

86
Q

Phagosome + lysosome = ?

A

Phagolysosome

87
Q

What do lysosomes contain?

A

Lysosomal enzymes;

H+;

reactive nitrogen and oxygen species

88
Q

What do macrophages do with endocytosed and digested infectious agents?

A

They exocytose the remaining pieces into lymph for the lymph nodes to filter

89
Q

Describe the basics of the complement cascade.

NOTE: do not memorize image on reverse side of card.

A
90
Q

The classical pathway of the complement cascade involves C__ - C__.

The alternative pathway of the complement cascade involves C__ - C__.

A

1, 9

3, 9

91
Q

The complement cascade consists of the classical, alternative, and _____ pathways.

A

Lectin

92
Q

The classical, alternative, and lectin pathways of the complement cascade all meet at what complement protein?

A

C3

93
Q

What triggers the classical pathway of the complement system?

What triggers the alternative pathway of the complement system?

A

Antibody-antigen complexes;

microbial surfaces

94
Q

What is the major result of complement activation on bacterial membranes?

A

Perforation and lysis

(membrane attack complex formation)

95
Q

The lectin complement pathway is homologous to which other pathway?

A

The classical pathway

96
Q

How are the classical and lectin pathways of the complement cascade different?

A

Classical — antibodies bind to microbe –> complement activated

Lectin — lectins bind to microbial sugars –> complement activated

97
Q

What is the order of activation of the various complement cascade pathways?

A

Alternative –>

Lectin –>

Classical (antibody production takes time)

98
Q

List the various complement cascade pathways (lectin, classical, alternative) from least to most effective.

A

Alternative –>

Lectin –>

Classical

99
Q

True/False.

The classical pathway of the complement cascade is constitutively active at basal, low levels.

A

False.

The alternative pathway of the complement cascade is constitutively active at basal, low levels.

100
Q

Which complement pathway (classical, alternative, lectin) does not require an immune complex to initiate?

A

The alternative

(no lectin- or antibody-binding necessary)

101
Q

Which is the fastest/weakest complement pathway?

Which is the slowest/strongest?

A

Alternative;

classical

102
Q

For what is C3a of the complement cascade responsible?

For what is C3b of the complement cascade responsible?

A

Leukocyte recruitment;

tags bacterium for destruction

103
Q

The complement cascade is most useful against what type of infectious agent?

A

Bacteria

104
Q

True/False.

The complement cascade is very effective against viruses.

A

False.

The complement cascade is very effective against bacteria.

105
Q

Which complement protein binds antigen-antibody immune complexes?

What does it do next?

A

C1;

cleaves C4 and C2 into C4b / C2a (C3 convertase)

106
Q

Can the complement C4a/C2b complex (C3 convertase) cleave more than one C3?

A

Yes;

it can cleave many

107
Q

Which of the following complement proteins can cleave C5?

C4a/C2b complex

C3b

A

Both!

108
Q

The formation of a membrane attack complex (MAC) is initiated by which complement protein?

What other complement proteins are involved?

A

C5b;

C6, C7, C8, and multiple C9

109
Q

Describe the general makeup of a membrane attack complex (MAC).

A
110
Q

Which complement proteins are involved in all the cascade pathways (lectin, alternative, classical)?

A

C3 - C9

111
Q

Which is the most important initiating complement protein for successful complement activation?

Where is it located when it initiates activity?

A

C3b;

attached to the bacteria membrane

112
Q

Describe the differences between the alternative, lectin, and classical pathways of the complement cascade.

NOTE: do not memorize the image on the reverse side of this card.

A
113
Q

What is an easy mnemonic to remember the functions of C3a and C3b?

A

C3anaphylatoxin

(attracts / activates leukocytes)

C3bacteria

(binds bacterial surfaces)

114
Q

What is the function of an anaphylatoxin?

A

A substance (often complement) that

(1) causes mast cell granule release
(2) attracts neutrophils / other leukocytes

115
Q

True/False.

C3b is a potent chemotactic substance for neutrophils.

A

False.

C3a is a potent chemotactic substance for neutrophils.

116
Q

What main issue will a C7 (complement) deficiency cause?

A

Susceptibility to certain bacterial infections

(decreased membrane attack complex formation)

117
Q

Which is worse, a C3 or a C7 complement deficiency?

A

C3

(earlier in complement cascade — less leukocyte chemotaxis, etc.)

118
Q

What are some of the functions of complement?

A

Lysis;

opsonization;

inflammatory activation;

clearance of immune complexes

119
Q

What is the major function shared by complement C3a, C4a, and C5a?

A

Neutrophil (and other leukocyte) chemotaxis

(anaphylotoxins)

120
Q

If found on a bacterium’s E-face, which of the following scenarios will have the highest rate of phagocytosis by leukocytes?

Complement - ; - antibodies

Complement - ; + antibodies

Complement + ; - antibodies

Complement + ; + antibodies

A

Complement + ; + antibodies

(synergystic response)

121
Q

True/False.

A vaccinated / preexposed individual can activate complement faster and more strongly than an individual who has not been exposed to a particular antigen.

A

True.

(Faster classical pathway because antibody production can begin immediately upon encountering the antigen)

122
Q

Interferons, complement, and natural killer cells are all part of what broad type of immunity?

A

Innate

123
Q

Interferons mainly convey reistance against ________ to adjacent, uninfected cells.

A

viruses

124
Q

__________ mainly convey viral reistance to adjacent, uninfected cells.

A

Interferons

125
Q

True/False.

Natural killer cells cannot directly lyse self cells. They can only activate TC cells to lyse self cells.

A

False.

NK cells directly target/kill malignant cells and virally infected cells.

126
Q

What types of cell do natural killer cells target?

A

Malignant cells;

virally infected cells

127
Q

What type of receptor do NK cells use to recognize antibodies on virally infected self cells?

A

FC receptors

128
Q

How do natural killer cells identify cells which are infected or malignant?

A
  1. Antibody presence on infected cell or malignant cell surface
  2. Lack of MHC 1 on infected cell or malignant cell surface
129
Q

Viruses and tumors down-regulate the cell’s MHC 1 receptors to escape from what?

Which cell senses this change and targets the infected or malignant cells?

A

TC cells;

natural killer cells

130
Q

What cell senses the presence of MHC 1?

What cell senses the absence of MHC 1?

A

TC cells;

natural killer cells

131
Q

A virally infected cell will present what on its MHC1 receptors?

So, what does the virus do?

A

Viral segments;

down-regulates MHC1

132
Q

What two types of cell are especially likely to down-regulate cellular MHC1 in order to hide from cytotoxic T cells?

A

Virally infected cells;

malignant cells

133
Q

What are the two antibody-independent stimuli for natural killer cell lysing of a self cell?

A

Large increase in stimulatory ligand;

loss of MHC1 (inhibitory ligand)

134
Q

Interferon-α and interferon-β tell cells to do what?

A

Not allow viral growth

135
Q

Describe the general speed at which anti-viral components of the immune system come into play.

A
136
Q

What are the type 1 interferons?

What releases them and what do they do?

A

IFN-α, IFN-β;

virally infected cells –> strongly anti-viral –> increase expression of MHC1

137
Q

What is the type 2 interferon?

What releases them and what do they do?

A

IFN-γ;

leukocytes –> strongly boosts adaptive immunity –> increases expression of MHC1 and MHC2

138
Q

Interferon-α is a type __ interferon and is _________ (strongly/weakly) anti-viral.

Interferon-γ is a type __ interferon and is _________ (strongly/weakly) anti-viral.

Interferon-β is a type __ interferon and is _________ (strongly/weakly) anti-viral.

A

1, strongly;

2, weakly;

1, strongly

139
Q

Interferon-β increases expression of what on self cell surfaces?

Interferon-γ increases expression of what on self cell surfaces?

Interferon-α increases expression of what on self cell surfaces?

A

MHC1;

MHC1, MHC2;

MHC1

140
Q

Which interferon(s) strongly enhance(s) adaptive immunity?

Which interferon(s) strongly enhance(s) anti-viral immunity?

A

Interferon-γ;

Interferon-α, interferon-β

141
Q

True/False.

Virally infected cells release interferons which cause an increase in inhibitory signals to decrease natural killer cell activity.

A

False.

Virally infected cells release interferons which cause an increase in stimulatory signals to increase natural killer cell activity.

142
Q

What type(s) of interferon cause(s) increased cellular MHC1 expression?

What type(s) of interferon cause(s) increased cellular MHC2 expression?

A

Interferon-α, interferon-β, interferon-γ;

interferon-γ

T1 - Phase 2 - Systems Modules (I) (27 decks)

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