Infectious Disease - Immunology - Regulation; Hypersensitivity; Vaccines; Tumors Flashcards

1
Q

CD___ is the main IL-2 receptor.

A

CD25 is the main IL-2 receptor.

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2
Q

Treg cells have a ________ affinity for MHC II receptors presenting _____ antigens.

Upon binding these proteins, they do what?

A

Treg cells have a high affinity for MHC II receptors presenting ‘self’ antigens (endogenously synthesized proteins that have been picked up by APCs after leaking from dead cells).

Suppress the T cell response to reduce likelihood of autoimmunity (peripheral tolerance)

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3
Q

True/False.

MHC II can sometimes present ‘self’ antigens.

A

True.

These are endogenously synthesized proteins that have been picked up by APCs after leaking from dead cells.

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4
Q

__________ tolerance involves inactivation of overactive T cells in the thymus.

__________ tolerance involves TReg cells supressing immune activity in the periphery.

A

Central tolerance involves inactivation of overactive T cells in the thymus.

Periperal tolerance involves TReg cells supressing immune activity in the periphery.

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5
Q

True/False.

Central tolerance in the thymus basically answers the question, ‘does the T cell bind MHC too tightly?’

A

True.

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6
Q

Peripheral tolerance — TReg cells sense _______ cells and inhibit T cell activity.

A

Peripheral tolerance — TReg ​cells sense self cells and inhibit T cell activity.

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7
Q

What is neonatal immune tolerance?

It is only relevant in what conditions?

A

The neonate becomes tolerant to anything it is exposed to at birth in non-inflammatory conditions

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8
Q

Why is neonatal tolerance important?

A

The neonate is exposed to maternal antigens en masse during delivery and breastfeeding — it would be detrimental if the child developed immune activity against normal body proteins

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9
Q

B7-CD28 interactions lead to IL-___ production.

A

B7-CD28 interactions lead to IL-2 production.

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10
Q

What receptor, when expressed, decreases immune activity by binding B7 (on APCs) with a higher affinity than CD28?

What interleukin is especially down-regulated via this process?

A

CTLA-4;

IL-2

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11
Q

Why do TReg often protect tumor cells from T cells and NK cells?

How do they accomplish this?

A

The tumor cells display ‘self’ antigens;

PD-1 receptor binding

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12
Q

True/False.

PD-1 receptor activity promotes the killing of tumor cells by T cells and NK cells.

A

False.

PD-1 receptors (when activated by PD-L1) inhibit the killing of tumor cells.

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13
Q

Anti-tumor immune activity can be increased by the administration of ___-__ inhibitors.

A

Anti-tumor immune activity can be increased by the administration of PD-1 inhibitors.

(PD-1 activity decreases the killing of tumor cells because they are self cells.)

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14
Q

What cell type displays the Foxp3 transcription factor?

Defects in this surface receptor cause what condition?

A

TReg cells;

IPEX

(immunodysregulation polyendocrinopathy enteropathy X-linked syndrome)

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15
Q

IPEX (immunodysregulation polyendocrinopathy enteropathy X-linked syndrome) is caused by a mutation in what TReg surface receptor?

How is this condition treated?

A

Foxp3;

immunosuppressive medications (lethal if not treatment not begun in early childhood)

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16
Q

What rare X-linked disorder is characterized by pervasive autoimmunity affecting multiple organs?

A

IPEX

(immunodysregulation polyendocrinopathy enteropathy X-linked syndrome)

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17
Q

B cells generally require ___ cells to enable them to mount autoimmune responses against self antigens.

A

B cells generally require TH cells to enable them to mount autoimmune responses against self antigens.

(I.e. virtually all autoimmunity is mediated by T cells.)

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18
Q

What general cell type mediates virtually all autoimmunity?

A

T cells

(B cells generally require TH cells to enable them to mount autoimmune responses against self antigens.)

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19
Q

Most autoimmune conditions are precipitated by some sort of _____________ event (e.g. stress, infection) that increases immune activity by increasing IL-_____ secretion.

A

Most autoimmune conditions are precipitated by some sort of inflammatory event (e.g. stress, infection) that increases immune activity by increasing IL-2 secretion.

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20
Q

Autoimmunity is mostly mediated by what specific cell type?

A

TH1 cells

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21
Q

What routes of antigen intake are typically tolergenic?

What routes are typically immunogenic?

A

Oral and IV routes;

subcutaneous, IM, intradermal

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22
Q

What amount of antigen load (low, intermediate, high) is most likely to promote an immune response?

A

Intermediate

(1. Small amount of antigen –> tolerance (probably mimics normal dying of cells releasing small amounts of antigen at a time
2. High amounts of antigen –> tolerance (clonal exhaustion)
3. Intermediate amount of antigen –> immunogenicity)

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23
Q

1. Small amount of antigen –> __________ (tolerance/immunogenicity).

2. Intermediate amount of antigen –> __________ (tolerance/immunogenicity).

3. High amounts of antigen –> __________ (tolerance/immunogenicity).

A

1. Small amount of antigen –> Tolerance (probably mimics normal dying of cells releasing small amounts of antigen at a time).

2. Intermediate amount of antigen –> Immunogenicity.

3. High amounts of antigen –> Tolerance (clonal exhaustion).

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24
Q

Why do very small amounts of antigen often not lead to immune responses?

Why do very large amounts of antigen often not lead to immune responses?

A

Mimics normal dying of cells releasing small amounts of antigen at a time;

clonal exhaustion

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25
Q

__________ exposure to an antigen leads to clonal exhaustion leads to __________.

A

Persistent exposure to an antigen leads to clonal exhaustion leads to tolerance.

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26
Q

True/False.

Persistent exposure to an antigen can lead to tolerance.

A

True.

Due to clonal exhaustion.

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27
Q

________ ________ — an antigen-recognizing T cell accidentally activates a B cell that produces antibodies against a similar ‘self’ antigen.

A

Molecular mimicry — an antigen-recognizing T cell accidentally activates a B cell that produces antibodies against a similar ‘self’ antigen.

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28
Q

Molecular mimicry — an antigen-recognizing ___ cell accidentally activates a ___ cell that produces antibodies against a similar ‘self’ antigen.

A

Molecular mimicry — an antigen-recognizing T cell accidentally activates a B cell that produces antibodies against a similar ‘self’ antigen.

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29
Q

All of the following are example causes of autoimmunity:

Molecular __________

Increased ______ antigens present on MHC II

_________proliferation / decreased _____________

A

All of the following are example causes of autoimmunity:

Molecular mimicry

Increased ‘self’ antigens present on MHC II

Lymphoproliferation / decreased supression

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30
Q

Autoreactive antibodies bind cells, and then NK CD___ are cross-linked as they bind the antibody ___ the cell is then killed.

A

Autoreactive antibodies bind cells, and then NK CD16 are cross-linked as they bind the antibody FC the cell is then killed.

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31
Q

Delayed hypersensitivity:

  1. Allergen is sensed in skin by a ________ cell.
  2. The above cell travels to a lymph node where it activates a ________ cell.
  3. This cell now enters the bloodstream and looks for signs of inflammation, at which point it enters the tissue.
  4. The cell is now activated by a ________ and begins releasing cytokines.
  5. Eosinophils follow the cytokines to the area.
A

Delayed hypersensitivity:

  1. Allergen is sensed in skin by a dendritic cell.
  2. The above cell travels to a lymph node where it activates a TH2 cell.
  3. This cell now enters the bloodstream and looks for signs of inflammation, at which point it enters the tissue.
  4. The cell is now activated by a macrophage and begins releasing cytokines.
  5. Eosinophils follow the cytokines to the area.
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32
Q

Delayed hypersensitivity:

  1. Allergen is sensed in skin by a dendritic cell.
  2. The above cell travels to a __________ where it activates a TH2 cell.
  3. This cell now enters the bloodstream and looks for signs of __________, at which point it enters the tissue.
  4. The cell is now activated by a macrophage and begins releasing cytokines.
  5. __________ follow the cytokines to the area.
A

Delayed hypersensitivity:

  1. Allergen is sensed in skin by a dendritic cell.
  2. The above cell travels to a lymph node where it activates a TH2 cell.
  3. This cell now enters the bloodstream and looks for signs of inflammation, at which point it enters the tissue.
  4. The cell is now activated by a macrophage and begins releasing cytokines.
  5. Eosinophils follow the cytokines to the area.
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33
Q

How long does a delayed hypersensitivity reaction (type IV HSR) typically take to manifest?

A

24 - 48 hours

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34
Q

Are antihistamines effective at mediating type IV hypersensitivity?

A

No

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35
Q

True/False.

Delayed (type IV; cytotoxic) hypersensitivity is mediated by CD8 T cells and mast cells only.

A

False.

Delayed (type IV; cytotoxic) hypersensitivity responses are all mediated by T cells (the type varies with infectious agent).

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36
Q

TH1 cells mainly activate what cell type(s)?

TH2 cells mainly activate what cell type(s)?

TH17 cells mainly activate what cell type(s)?

A

Macrophages & TC cells (pain, inflammation)

Eosinophils & B cells (itch, allergic inflammation)

Neutrophils (pain, pyogenic inflammation)

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37
Q

TH1 cells mainly activate what cell type(s)?

A

Macrophages & TC cells (pain, inflammation)

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38
Q

TH2 cells mainly activate what cell type(s)?

A

Eosinophils and B cells (itch, allergic inflammation)

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39
Q

TH17 cells mainly activate what cell type(s)?

A

Neutrophils (pain, pyogenic inflammation)

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40
Q

Which cytokine is the main inducer for a TH0 cell to become a TH1 cell?

A

IL-12

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41
Q

Which cytokine is the main inducer for a TH0 cell to become a TH2 cell?

A

IL-4

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42
Q

Which cytokines are the main inducers for a TH0 cell to become a TH17 cell?

A

IL-6, TGF-β

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43
Q

Which cytokine is the main inducer for a TH0 cell to become a TReg cell?

A

TGF-β

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44
Q

TH1 cells mainly activate macrophages and TC cells in response to what infection type(s)?

TH2 cells mainly activate eosinophils and B cells in response to what infection type(s)?

TH17 cells mainly activate neutrophils in response to what infection type(s)?

A

Viruses (pain, inflammation)

Helminths, ticks, mites (itch, allergic inflammation)

Bacteria (pain, pyogenic inflammation)

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45
Q

PPD testing mainly involves T___ cells.

A

PPD testing mainly involves T<strong>H</strong>1 cells.

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46
Q

Allergic dermatitis mainly involves T___ cells.

A

Allergic dermatitis mainly involves TH2 cells.

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47
Q

Autoinflammation mainly involves T___ cells.

A

Autoinflammation mainly involves TH17 cells.

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48
Q

An individual who has no pre-sensitization / previous immune experience with mosquitoes is bitten by one.

Can this individual undergo a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

Why or why not?

A

No.

No IgE for mast cells has been produced yet as no B cell maturation has occurred as the the antigen has not been encountered before.

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49
Q

Mast cell degranulation releases histamine, serotonin, heparin, eosinophilic chemotactic factors, _______ase, leukotriene ___, prostaglandin ___, IL-___, and TNF-α.

A

Mast cell degranulation releases histamine, serotonin, heparin, eosinophilic chemotactic factors, tryptase, leukotriene C4, prostaglandin D2, IL-4, and TNF-α.

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50
Q

Why do degranulating mast cells release IL-4?

A

To promote TH2 cells and IgE production

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51
Q

Why do degranulating mast cells release PGD2?

A

Strong chemokine for eosinophils, basophils, and TH2 cells

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52
Q

Why do degranulating mast cells release leukotriene C4?

A

Increased vascular permeability and bronchoconstriction

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53
Q

True/False.

Eosinophils are one of the most toxic and destructive cell types in the body.

A

True.

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54
Q

Name the cell type that can synthesize and release all the following:

Pre-formed: Major basic protein, (name of cell) cationic protein, (name of cell)-derived neurotoxin, (name of cell) peroxidase

On-demand: IL-1, IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-8, IL-13, TNF-α

A

Eosinophils

Pre-formed: Major basic protein, eosinophil cationic protein, eosinophil-derived neurotoxin, eosinophil peroxidase

On-demand: IL-1, IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-8, IL-13, TNF-α

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55
Q

Where do mast cells get their IgE?

A

From pre-sensitized plasma cells

56
Q

Describe how immediate allergic reactions may change in response to the following levels of interaction with an antigen:

No previous contact

Few previous encounters

Multiple previous encounters

Very many previous encounters

A
57
Q

Describe how delayed allergic reactions may change in response to the following levels of interaction with an antigen:

No previous contact

Few previous encounters

Multiple previous encounters

Very many previous encounters

A
58
Q

___________ released from mast cells causes itching by its action on ____________.

___________ released from mast cells causes edema by its action on ____________.

A

Histamine released from mast cells causes itching by its action on C fibers.

Histamine released from mast cells causes edema by its action on venules.

59
Q

Why do we have an itch-scratch reflex mediated by the histamine released during an immediate reaction?

Does this reflex involve the brain at all?

A

To attempt to remove any noxious stimuli (e.g. ticks or substances) from the skin;

no

(dogs with severed spinal cords will still scratch at noxious stimuli)

60
Q

How long does a Ixodes tick take to infect someone with Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

~24 hours

(about 24 hours until sufficient engorgement for backwash to occur)

61
Q

Why do we have an itch-scratch reflex mediated by the histamine released during a delayed reaction?

A

To attempt to remove infected skin so the damaging substance doesn’t enter the bloodstream

(literally removing damaged/diseased flesh)

62
Q

Most clinical cases of hypersensitivity are either classified as _____________ hypersensitivity or _____________ hypersensitivity.

A

Most clinical ​cases of hypersensitivity are either classified as immediate hypersensitivity or delayed hypersensitivity.

63
Q

What antibody class mediates tissue glutaminase destruction in Celiac disease?

A

IgA

64
Q

Why can antigens be immunogenic if taken up through the skin and tolergenic if taken up orally?

A
65
Q

What is eradication in terms of infectious disease?

What is elimination in terms of infectious disease?

A

Complete and permanent reduction to zero of new cases from the disease worldwide.

Complete and permanent reduction to zero of new cases from the disease in a defined geographic area​.

66
Q

What are homologous antibodies?

And heterologous?

A

Human-derived;

synthetic or animal-derived

67
Q

Against which of the following types of infectious agent do we develop vaccines?

Bacteria

Fungi

Parasites

Viruses

A

Bacteria

Viruses

(simpler, less complex infectious agents)

68
Q

What are the two main subtypes of killed/inactivated vaccines?

A
  1. Whole
  2. Fractional
69
Q

Fractional killed vaccines can be broken down into two subcategories based on what type of material they bind, _______-based or _______-based.

A

Fractional killed vaccines can be broken down into two subcategories based on what type of material they bind, protein-based or polysaccharide-based.

70
Q

What are the subtypes of protein-based killed vaccine?

And polysaccharide-based?

A

Toxoid, subunit;

pure, conjugated

71
Q

What type of vaccine typically only requires one dose to create strong, lasting immunity?

A

Live attenuated

72
Q

True/False.

The infectious agent in a live attenuated vaccine must replicate a bit in order to induce immunity (basically a mini-infection).

A

True.

73
Q

Fill in the blanks regarding vaccine types:

I. Whole

A. Viral or ________

II. Fractional

A. Protein-based

  1. _______
  2. _______

B. _______-based

  1. Pure
  2. _______
A

I. Whole

A. Viral or bacterial

II. Fractional

A. Protein-based

  1. Subunit
  2. Toxoid

B. Polysaccharide-based

  1. Pure
  2. Conjugated
74
Q

Why doesn’t the U.S. provide the BCG vaccine to its citizens?

A

So PPD tests remain accurate methods of determining who’s been infected and who hasn’t

(also, cost)

75
Q

Why do children receive multiple rounds of vaccines?

A

Affinity maturation / class switching

(better immune responses with more exposures)

76
Q

Is it better to have a shorter (few weeks) or longer (few months) break between repeat dosages of a vaccine?

A

Longer

(time for immune response maturation — affinity maturation, class switching, etc.)

(better late than too early)

77
Q

Who are the most at-risk groups for adverse reactions to vaccines?

A

Neonates;

the immunocompromised;

the elderly

78
Q

What are a few contraindications to live vaccines?

A

Pregnancy;

prior severe allergic response;

certain immunocompromising conditions

79
Q

Where can a physician get better information as to when to give vaccines, which to give, and what the contraindications are?

A

The CDC website

(updated very frequently)

80
Q

What is the most common adjuvant used in vaccination?

What is the purpose of adjuvants?

A

Aluminium;

to induce inflammation

(thus boosting the immune response)

81
Q

What can we measure in an individual to make sure a vaccine worked as intended?

A

Serum IgG

82
Q

What type of vaccine is the MMR?

A

Live attenuated

83
Q

What type of vaccine is the BCG?

A

Live attenuated

(bacterial)

84
Q

What type of vaccine is the oral typhoid vaccine?

A

Live attenuated

(bacterial)

85
Q

What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine?

A

Subunit

(subtype of inactivated/killed)

86
Q

What type of vaccine is the diphtheria vaccine?

A

Toxoid

(subtype of killed/inactivated)

87
Q

What type of vaccine is the H. influenzae vaccine?

A

Conjugate-polysaccharide

(subtype of killed/inactivated)

88
Q

What type of vaccine is the Salk polio vaccine?

A

Killed/inactivated

(whole virus)

89
Q

What type of vaccine is the Sabin polio vaccine?

A

Live attenuated

90
Q

What type of vaccine is the hepatitis A vaccine?

A

Killed/inactivated

(whole virus)

91
Q

What type of vaccine is the nasal influenza vaccine?

A

Live attenuated

92
Q

What type of vaccine is the meningococcal vaccine?

A

EITHER

pure- or conjugate-polysaccharide

(subtype of killed/inactivated)

93
Q

What type of vaccine is the injected influenza vaccine?

A

Killed/inactivated

(whole virus)

94
Q

What type of vaccine is the rabies vaccine?

A

Killed/inactivated

(whole virus)

95
Q

What type of vaccine is the acellular pertussis vaccine?

A

Subunit

(subtype of killed/inactivated)

96
Q

What type of vaccine is the pneumococcal vaccine?

A

EITHER

pure- or conjugate-polysaccharide

(subtype of killed/inactivated)

97
Q

What type of vaccine is the rotavirus vaccine?

A

Live attenuated

98
Q

What type of vaccine is the anthrax vaccine?

A

Subunit

(subtype of killed/inactivated)

99
Q

What type of vaccine is the HPV vaccine?

A

Subunit

(subtype of killed/inactivated)

100
Q

What type of vaccine is the yellow fever vaccine?

A

Live attenuated

101
Q

What type of vaccine is the tetanus vaccine?

A

Toxoid

(subtype of killed/inactivated)

102
Q

What type of vaccine is the Herpes zoster vaccine?

A

Live attenuated

103
Q

What type of vaccine is the varicella vaccine?

A

Live attenuated

104
Q

What four killed/inactivated vaccines for bacterial agents are not available in the U.S.?

And what one live attenuated vaccine for a bacterial agent?

A

Cholera, pertussis, typhoid, plague;

BCG

105
Q

The ____________ event is the initial event leading to dysregulated cell growth and potential proliferation / tumor growth.

A

The transformation event is the initial event leading to dysregulated cell growth and potential proliferation / tumor growth.

106
Q

True/False.

Cancer cells grow independently of density.

A

True.

May lead to a necrotic center as the center is starved of nutrients.

107
Q

Name a few selective forms of cancer treatment.

A

Gene therapy,

targeted therapy,

immunotherapy

108
Q

True/False.

Most tumors are not immunogenic as they are self cells.

A

False.

Often, tumors have immunogenicity, they just grow faster than the immune system can keep up.

109
Q

Are tumor vaccines useful before or after tumor growth or both?

A

Before only

(only helpful prophylactically, but nobody knows about the tumor until after it already exists)

110
Q

What cell type is the main mediator of the cellular anti-tumor immune response?

A

TC cells

(TH cells assist)

111
Q

What cell type is the main innate immune response to tumor cells?

What role do macrophages play?

A

NK cells;

TNF-α (cachexin) secretion

112
Q

Why are natural killer cells such a big part of the body’s response to tumor cells?

A

Tumor cells often downregulate MHC I

113
Q

___________ immunity — a type of immunity in which the body prevents secondary tumors from growing while being unable to contain the primary tumor (anti-metastases).

A

Concomitant immunity — a type of immunity in which the body prevents secondary tumors from growing while being unable to contain the primary tumor (anti-metastases).

114
Q

Concomitant immunity — a type of immunity in which the body prevents __________ tumors from growing while being unable to contain the __________ tumor (anti-metastases).

A

Concomitant immunity — a type of immunity in which the body prevents secondary tumors from growing while being unable to contain the primary tumor (anti-metastases).

115
Q

Tumors often recruit _______ to downplay the immune response.

A

Tumors often recruit TRegs to downplay the immune response.

116
Q

The following two mutations can result in tumor-_specific_ antigens:

(1) mutation in _______ to hold new protein

(2) mutation in original MHC-bound _______ to form new epitope

A

The following two mutations can result in tumor-_specific_ antigens:

(1) mutation in MHC I to hold new protein

(2) mutation in original MHC-bound protein to form new epitope

117
Q

The following two mutations can result in tumor-_associated_ antigens:

(1) Reactivation of ________ genes

(2) Overexpression of ________ proteins

A

The following two mutations can result in tumor-_associated_ antigens:

(1) Reactivation of embryonic genes

(2) Overexpression of self proteins

118
Q

_________ (mutated protooncogenes) are like an overactive gas pedal.

How many are needed to cause excessive growth and tumor formation?

A

Oncogenes (mutated protooncogenes) are like an overactive gas pedal.

One (one gas pedal)

119
Q

Inactivated _________ _________ genes are like a broken car brake.

How many are needed to cause excessive growth and tumor formation?

A

Inactivated tumor suppressor genes are like a broken car brake.

Two (the handbrake and the brake pedal)

120
Q

Cancer defenses against immunity are often mediated by de-differentiation to _______, more _____-cell-like forms.

A

Cancer defenses against immunity are often mediated by de-differentiation to immature, more stem-cell-like forms.

121
Q

Cancer defenses against immunity are often mediated by de-differentiation to immature, more stem-cell-like forms:

1. Low immunogenicity (downregulated ____/peptide; absence of co-stimulation for self-antigens –> _______ of T cells; no _______ molecules; absence of inflammation)

2. Recruiting Tregs

3. Antigenic modulation — antibody binding surface antigen leads to endocytosis and destruction of antigen by tumor cell

4. Immunoediting — selective changes in expressed antigens

5. Creation of a physical barrier to immune activity (encapsulation)

A

Cancer defenses against immunity are often mediated by de-differentiation to immature, more stem-cell-like forms:

1. Low immunogenicity (downregulated MHC/peptide; absence of co-stimulation for self-antigens –> anergy of T cells; no adhesion molecules; absence of inflammation)

2. Recruiting Tregs

3. Antigenic modulation — antibody binding surface antigen leads to endocytosis and destruction of antigen by tumor cell

4. Immunoediting — selective changes in expressed antigens

5. Creation of a physical barrier to immune activity (encapsulation)

122
Q

Cancer defenses against immunity are often mediated by de-differentiation to immature, more stem-cell-like forms:

1. Low immunogenicity (downregulated MHC/peptide; absence of co-stimulation for self-antigens –> anergy of T cells; no adhesion molecules; absence of inflammation)

2. Recruiting _____

3. Antigenic modulation — antibody binding surface antigen leads to _______ and destruction of antigen by tumor cell

4. Immunoediting — selective changes in expressed antigens

5. Creation of a physical barrier to immune activity (encapsulation)

A

Cancer defenses against immunity are often mediated by de-differentiation to immature, more stem-cell-like forms:

1. Low immunogenicity (downregulated MHC/peptide; absence of co-stimulation for self-antigens –> anergy of T cells; no adhesion molecules; absence of inflammation)

2. Recruiting Tregs

3. Antigenic modulation — antibody binding surface antigen leads to endocytosis and destruction of antigen by tumor cell

4. Immunoediting — selective changes in expressed antigens

5. Creation of a physical barrier to immune activity (encapsulation)

123
Q

Cancer defenses against immunity are often mediated by de-differentiation to immature, more stem-cell-like forms:

1. Low immunogenicity (downregulated MHC/peptide; absence of co-stimulation for self-antigens –> anergy of T cells; no adhesion molecules; absence of inflammation)

2. Recruiting Tregs

3. Antigenic modulation — antibody binding surface antigen leads to endocytosis and destruction of antigen by tumor cell

4. Immunoediting — selective changes in expressed __________

5. Creation of a _________ barrier to immune activity (en_____lation)

A

Cancer defenses against immunity are often mediated by de-differentiation to immature, more stem-cell-like forms:

1. Low immunogenicity (downregulated MHC/peptide; absence of co-stimulation for self-antigens –> anergy of T cells; no adhesion molecules; absence of inflammation)

2. Recruiting Tregs

3. Antigenic modulation — antibody binding surface antigen leads to endocytosis and destruction of antigen by tumor cell

4. Immunoediting — selective changes in expressed antigens

5. Creation of a physical barrier to immune activity (encapsulation)

124
Q

Immune reaction to a tumor cell often __________ over time.

A

Immune reaction to a tumor cell often decreases over time (tumor cells adapt).

125
Q

How can specific tumor immunogenicity be tested?

A

It can’t

126
Q

Tumor vaccines can be used to immunize an individual with tumor-_______-pulsed (or ____-transfected) dendritic cells.

However, they are not useful ______ the tumor has already formed.

A

Tumor vaccines can be used to immunize an individual with tumor-antigen-pulsed (or DNA-transfected) dendritic cells.

However, they are not useful after the tumor has already formed.

127
Q

Anticancer cytokine therapy is typically designed to increase immune response to what?

A

Cytokines

(e.g. IL-2, GM-CSF, IL-12, etc.)

128
Q

How does passive anticancer immunotherapy work?

A

Removal / expansion / readministration of a patient’s own T cells

129
Q

Monoclonal antibodies against breast cancer often target what tumor-specific antigen?

A

HER-2/NEU

130
Q

Monoclonal antibodies against B cell lymphomas often target what tumor-specific antigen(s)?

A

CD20,

CD10

131
Q

Monoclonal antibodies against GI and lung cancers often target what tumor-specific antigen(s)?

A

CEA

132
Q

Monoclonal antibodies against ovarian cancers often target what tumor-specific antigen(s)?

A

CA-125

133
Q

Monoclonal antibodies against melanoma often target what tumor-specific antigen(s)?

A

CD3 ganglioside

134
Q

Name two anticancer immunotherapies that target T cell inhibition receptors in order to increase T cell activity.

Anti-_______ therapy;

anti-_______ therapy

A

Anti-PD-1 ​therapy;

anti-CTLA-4 therapy

(both to inhibit T-cell-inhibiting activity)

135
Q

Treg cells that express FoxP3 are generally thought to have T-cell receptors that recognize self-peptides bound to MHC class II molecules. In the skin, keratin and filaggrin are among the self-antigens expressed. FoxP3+ Treg cells found in skin and skin-draining lymph nodes might be specific for the self-antigen, filaggrin.

These FoxP3+, filaggrin-specific Treg cells:

A. Would inhibit the activation of both naive filaggrin-specific and keratin-specific CD4 T cells

B. Would only inhibit the activation of naive filaggrin-specific CD4 T cells

C. Would inhibit the activation of all naive T cells in skin-draining lymph nodes following an infection

D. Would not inhibit naive T cells specific for antigens expressed by commensal microbes but not by host cells

E. Are the only subset of autoreactive cells expressing TGF-b receptors

A

A. Would inhibit the activation of both naive filaggrin-specific and keratin-specific CD4 T cells

Treg cells have the potential to suppress self-reactive lymphocytes that recognize antigens different from those recognized by the Treg cell. The key feature is that regulatory cells can suppress autoreactive lymphocytes that recognize a variety of different self-antigens, as long as the antigens are from the same tissue or are presented by the same antigen-presenting cell.

136
Q

Bacteria of the genus Neisseria are encapsulated in a thick carbohydrate capsule. Clinical evidence shows that the membrane-attack complex (MAC) is vital in host defense against these bacteria. It is obvious that the hydrophobic components of the MAC cannot penetrate the polysaccharides of the bacterial capsule. How, then, is complement involved in bacterial killing in this case?

A

The bacteria are temporarily vulnerable to killing by complement when they divide.

This is when the bacterial membrane is exposed.