Inflammation and cell injury Flashcards

1
Q

when cells encounter stress, what do they attempt to do?

A

adapt in order to maintain normal function and viability.

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2
Q

what does cell adaptation include?

A

Adaptations can include changes in size (atrophy or hypertrophy), number (hyperplasia), form (metaplasia), or function (increased or decreased activity).

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3
Q

If the stress is too severe or persists for too long, and the adaptive capacity is exceeded, what happens to the cell?

A

it’s injured

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4
Q

as it relates to cell injury, what’s the difference between reversible and irreversible injury?

A

In reversible injury, the changes the cell undergoes are not permanent, and the cell can recover if the stress is removed.

When the damage is too severe or persistent, it leads to irreversible injury, resulting in cell death.

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5
Q

what does reversible injury involve?

A

This might involve swelling, loss of microvilli, mitochondrial changes, and dilation of the endoplasmic reticulum, but the cell remains alive and can potentially return to its normal state.

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6
Q

what does irreversible injury involve?

A

This can occur through two primary pathways:

Apoptosis: Programmed cell death characterized by cell shrinkage, chromatin condensation, and DNA fragmentation. Apoptosis is often a controlled process that allows the body to remove cells that are no longer needed or are a threat to the organism without causing an inflammatory response.

Necrosis: Unregulated cell death due to overwhelming damage. It is characterized by swelling, rupture of the cell membrane, and subsequent inflammation. Necrosis often results from factors such as toxins, infections, or ischemia (lack of blood supply).

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7
Q

what is the difference between apoptosis and necrosis?

A

Apoptosis: Programmed cell death characterized by cell shrinkage, chromatin condensation, and DNA fragmentation.

Necrosis: Unregulated cell death due to overwhelming damage. It is characterized by swelling, rupture of the cell membrane, and subsequent inflammation.

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8
Q

what are the causes of cell injury?

A

Hypoxia (decreased oxygen): When cells don’t receive enough oxygen, they cannot produce sufficient ATP by aerobic respiration. This energy deficit compromises essential energy-dependent functions, leading to cellular damage.

Ischemia (decreased blood flow): Ischemia not only deprives cells of oxygen but also impedes the delivery of nutrients and the removal of metabolic wastes. It’s more harmful than hypoxia alone because it affects the supply of substrates for glycolysis.

Physical and Chemical Agents:

Trauma: Physical impact can cause direct damage to cell structures.
Burns: Thermal damage can denature proteins and disrupt cell membranes.
Radiation: Can cause ionization of molecules within cells, leading to molecular damage, particularly to DNA.
Toxins: Chemicals can interfere with biochemical pathways, leading to cell dysfunction and death.
Infectious Agents: Bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites can all cause cell injury. They can directly damage cells, produce toxins, or induce damaging immune responses.

Metabolic Abnormalities: Both genetic disorders (such as inborn errors of metabolism) and acquired conditions (like diabetes) can lead to accumulations of toxic substances or deficiencies in critical enzymes.

Immune Dysfunction:

Hypersensitivity Reactions: Exaggerated immune responses can cause collateral tissue damage.
Autoimmune Diseases: The immune system mistakenly attacks the body’s own cells.
Nutritional Imbalances: Deficiencies or excesses of nutrients can cause cellular damage. For example, vitamin deficiencies can impair cellular functions, while excess glucose can lead to hyperglycemia and associated cellular injuries.

Aging: Over time, cells accumulate damage and lose their ability to function properly. The repair mechanisms become less efficient, and cells may enter senescence (a non-dividing state) or die.

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9
Q

as it relates to mechanism of cell injury, what does ATP depletion leads to?

A

(1) reduced Na+/K+ ATPase activity causing cellular and endoplasmic reticulum swelling.; (2) Shift to anaerobic glycolysis (to produce energy) which leads to glycogen depletion and increased lactic acid (low intracellular pH which can denature protein); (3) Reduced calcium pump activity which alters calcium homeostasis and activates enzymes like proteases etc; (4) Reduced protein synthesis due to reduced energy.

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10
Q

what results from hypoxia, reactive oxygen species (ROS), and ↑ intracellular calcium levels and leads to increased mitochondrial permeability which causes impaired oxidative phosphorylation resulting in production of ROS (damages lipids, proteins, and nucleic acid) and leakage of apoptotic proteins (e.g., cytochrome C and caspases) into the cellular cytoplasm?

A

Mitochondrial damage

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11
Q

DNA damage that is irreversible results in what?

A

apoptosis (apoptosis can also result in excess of misfolded proteins).

Apoptosis is characterized by cell shrinkage, chromatin condensation, and DNA fragmentation.

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12
Q

what is hyperplasia (physiologic hyperplasia)?

A

increase in number of cells able to undergo mitosis which often leads to increase in organ size

Terminally differentiated cells, such as cardiac muscle cells (myocytes) and neurons, do not divide in adults and therefore do not undergo hyperplasia. Instead, these cells may respond to stress through hypertrophy, where the individual cells increase in size rather than number.

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13
Q

what are 3 forms of physiologic hyperplasia and what do they involve?

A

Hormonal Hyperplasia: Such as the enlargement of the breasts during pregnancy due to hormonal changes which stimulate the mammary glands to prepare for lactation.

Compensatory Hyperplasia: Such as the regeneration of the liver following partial hepatectomy. The remaining liver tissue grows to compensate for the lost tissue, thanks to the liver’s unique ability to regenerate.

Endometrial Hyperplasia: Occurring in the menstrual cycle, where the endometrium (lining of the uterus) thickens in preparation for potential implantation of an embryo.

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14
Q

what is pathological hyperplasia?

A

hyperplasia from abnormal stimuli sometimes preceding cancerous growth

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15
Q

what are 2 forms of pathological hyperplasia and what do they involve?

A

Examples include:

Adrenal Hyperplasia: The adrenal glands may enlarge due to the excess production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which can be caused by a pituitary adenoma (a benign tumor of the pituitary gland).

Endometrial Hyperplasia: This can occur due to prolonged exposure to estrogen without adequate progesterone balance, leading to an overgrowth of the lining of the uterus.

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16
Q

which type of cells don’t undergo hyperplasia?

A

myocytes and neurons because they can’t undergo mitosis.

Terminally differentiated cells, such as cardiac muscle cells (myocytes) and neurons, do not divide in adults and therefore do not undergo hyperplasia. Instead, these cells may respond to stress through hypertrophy, where the individual cells increase in size rather than number.

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17
Q

what is hypertrophy?

A

Individual cells increasing in size instead of numbers and normally causing organs to enlarge.

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18
Q

what’s an example of physiological hypertrophy?

A

For example, when you exercise, your skeletal muscles undergo hypertrophy as the muscle fibers increase in size due to the enhanced demand for strength and endurance. This type of hypertrophy is generally considered healthy and reversible.

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19
Q

what is pathological hypertrophy?

A

hypertrophy as an adaptation to abnormal conditions

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20
Q

what’s an example of pathological hypertrophy?

A

Cardiac Hypertrophy: The heart muscle (myocardium) can increase in size in response to conditions like aortic stenosis (where the heart has to pump harder to push blood through a narrowed aortic valve) or chronic hypertension (high blood pressure that makes the heart work harder to circulate blood). This type of hypertrophy is often a maladaptive response and can lead to adverse cardiovascular events.

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21
Q

how can you distinguish between hyperplasia and hypertrophy when they both look the same with the naked eye?

A

to determine whether the size change is due to hypertrophy (increase in cell size) or hyperplasia (increase in cell number), microscopic examination is needed. This examination allows for the observation of individual cells and their components, providing insight into the underlying mechanisms of the increase in organ size.

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22
Q

how does the induction of hyperplasia begin and what does it entail?

A

Pathogenesis of hyperplasia: The induction of hyperplasia often begins with the upregulation of receptors on the surface of cells. This upregulation can be due to increased levels of hormones or growth factors that bind to these receptors. Once activated, these receptors initiate signaling pathways that lead to the expression of genes involved in cell division.

Induced Proteins: These genes often code for transcription factors that activate other genes necessary for cell cycle progression. Additionally, proteins that promote cellular growth and division, such as enzymes involved in DNA replication, may be upregulated.

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23
Q

how does the induction of hypertrophy begin and what does it entail?

A

Pathogenesis of Hypertrophy: It involves the induction of protein synthesis within individual cells, leading to increased cellular components. This can result from mechanical stress, as seen in muscle cells during exercise, or hormonal stimulation.

Induced Proteins: In response to such stimulation, cells increase the production of structural proteins, such as contractile proteins in muscle (e.g., actin and myosin), and enzymes that generate energy for the cells. There may also be an induction of embryonic proteins, which are proteins expressed during the growth and development of the organism but are also re-expressed during regenerative processes or in response to injury.

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24
Q

what are examples of induced proteins?

A

transcription factors, contractile proteins, and embryonic proteins.

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25
Q

what’s the difference between atrophy and hypoplasia?

A

Atrophy occurs in a once normally developed organ.
If organ did not develop normally (was never of normal size), it’s called hypoplasia [aka underdevelopment].

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26
Q

what type of epithelium lines the esophagus and what epithelium does it change to during metaplasia due to barretts esophagus?

A

from stratified squamous to columnar

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27
Q

what is barret’s esophagus?

A

Normal Condition: The normal lining of the esophagus is composed of squamous epithelium.
Abnormal Condition: With chronic reflux of stomach acid (gastroesophageal reflux disease, GERD), the squamous epithelium can be damaged.
Metaplastic Change: To protect against the acid, the squamous epithelium may change into columnar epithelium, which is better able to handle the acidic environment. This condition is known as Barrett esophagus and can increase the risk of esophageal cancer.

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28
Q

what epithelium does the bronchial tubes have and what does it change to during metaplasia?

A

Normal Condition: The normal lining of the bronchial tubes of the lungs is composed of columnar ciliated epithelial cells.
Abnormal Condition: Chronic exposure to irritants like cigarette smoke can damage these cells.
Metaplastic Change: The body may replace the normal columnar cells with squamous epithelial cells, which are more resistant to the irritants but do not function the same as the original cells, as squamous cells do not have cilia to move mucus.

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29
Q

what type of tissue does metaplasia lead to which can also precede cancer?

A

dysplasia
severe form of cellular abnormality that can precede cancer.

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30
Q

what is metaplasia?

A

a reversible change where one type of cell changes to another to better withstand an adverse environment

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31
Q

what will dysplasia in esophagus develop into if left untreated?

A

esophageal adenocarcinoma, a type of cancer.

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32
Q

what is liquefactive necrosis?

A

occurs in soft organs that lack a protein-rich matrix with high enzymatic content (pancreas) or in lipid-rich organs (brain).(allowing lysis of cells and surrounding proteins). Enzymatic breakdown more prominent than protein denaturation.

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33
Q

what is coagulative necrosis?

A

occurs in solid organs (allows preservation of shape by coagulation of proteins). Protein denaturation is more prominent than enzymatic breakdown. May occur in any organ (heart, liver, kidney). In brain is rapidly followed by liquefactive necrosis.

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34
Q

what is the most common type of necrosis?

A

coagulative necrosis
This is the most common type of necrosis, typically seen after ischemic events (like a heart attack). The architecture of dead tissues is preserved for a couple of days.

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35
Q

what is fat necrosis?

A

change in adipose tissue due to release of enzymes (lipases) from adjacent organs (pancreatitis). Released fatty acids combine with calcium to form “chalky” deposits (saponification).

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36
Q

what is caseous necrosis?

A

is a “cheesy-looking” necrosis associated with tuberculosis and other granulomatous disease processes.

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37
Q

what is fibrinoid?

A

results from fibrin leaking form blood vessels (in blood vessels or pericardium).

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38
Q

what type of infarct is hemorrhagic due to the re-entry of blood into the tissue following cell death.
Associated with
Loose tissues with collaterals such as liver (portal and systemic), lungs (pulmonary and bronchial), intestine (portal and systemic).
Lysis of an embolus that initially obstructed blood flow?

A

Red infarct

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39
Q

what type of infarct is due to continued inability of blood to re-enter the infarcted area.
Associated with
Solid tissues with single blood supply such as heart, kidney, spleen.
Atherosclerotic thrombi that cannot be lysed due to continued reformation at site of obstruction?

A

Pale infarct

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40
Q

which type of infarct involves Solid tissues with single blood supply such as heart, kidney, spleen? red or pale?

A

pale infarct

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41
Q

which type of infarct involves Loose tissues with collaterals such as liver (portal and systemic), lungs (pulmonary and bronchial), intestine (portal and systemic)? red or pale

A

red infarct

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42
Q

what is a product of lipid peroxidation, which accumulates in lysosomes as the cell ages. The cell cannot rid itself of these lipofuscin-laden lysosomes (aka, brown atrophy).
Affects heart and liver?

A

Lipofuscin

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43
Q

what is metastatic calcium?

A

hypercalcemia leads to deposition of calcium within normal or abnormal tissue.

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44
Q

what is dystrophic calcium?

A

Patients with normal calcium levels have deposition only within abnormal tissue (i.e., necrotic tissue).
Affects vasculature, kidneys, and lungs.

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45
Q

what is Accumulation of iron in organs with no clinical effects. The iron pigment is frequently within macrophages?

A

Hemosiderosis

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46
Q

what is Accumulation of iron in parenchymal cells resulting in side effects (congestive heart failure, diabetes mellitus, and cirrhosis).
Affects liver, skin, pancreas, and heart?

A

Hemochromatosis

more severe than hemosiderosis and cause tissue damage

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47
Q

what is fat accumulation that can indicate reversible damage or may be sign of an intrinsic abnormality in fat metabolism.
Affects liver, kidney, heart, and skeletal muscle?

A

Steatosis

48
Q

cholesterol accumulates in what type of cell and can lead to what?

A

phagocytic cells
atherosclerosis in blood vessels

The plaques consist of cholesterol, fatty substances, cellular waste products, calcium, and fibrin.

49
Q

what organs does glycogen accumulation disorder affect?

A

liver and skeletal muscles

50
Q

what is an example of protein accumulation?

A

In Alzheimer’s disease and other dementias, abnormal proteins such as beta-amyloid and tau can accumulate in the brain. These proteins form plaques and tangles, which interfere with nerve cell communication and function, leading to cognitive decline and other symptoms of dementia.

51
Q

what are examples of exogenous pigment?

A

Tattoos (ink) and anthracotic (black lung) pigment (carbonaceous debris from urban dwelling or cigarette smoking.

52
Q

what are examples of endogenous pigment?

A

Melanin with accumulation leading to freckles, moles, or age spots.;

bilirubin with accumulation leading to jaundice/yellowing of skin and eyes

53
Q

what process is an Innate and automatic response to cell injury (does not require previous exposure)?

A

Inflammation

54
Q

what are the 5 R’s of the inflammation process or goals?

A

The goals of inflammation are:
Recognition of offending agent
Recruitment of immune cells
Removal of the offending agent and damaged cells
Regulation of inflammatory response
Regeneration, resolution, or repair

55
Q

what is a pathologic process but necessary for survival.
If prolonged can lead to harmful local and systemic effects (eg. septic shock)?

A

Inflammation

56
Q

what is an Immediate response with limited specificity caused by several noxious stimuli, such as infection and tissue damage (necrosis)?

A

Acute inflammatory response

57
Q

What is Rubor?

A

(redness): from arteriolar smooth muscle vasodilation (mediated by prostaglandins, bradykinin, and histamine released from injured cells). this leads to increased blood flow to the area.

58
Q

what is Dolor?

A

(pain): from stimulation of pain receptors (free nerve endings; mediated by bradykinin and PGE2 which sensitize nerve endings).

59
Q

what is Calor?

A

(heat): from vasodilation (mediated by prostaglandins, bradykinin, and histamine). this leads to increased blood flow and metabolism at site causing warmth.

60
Q

what is Tumor?

A

(swelling): from increased permeability of post capillary venules leading to exudate formation in interstitial space.

61
Q

what is functio laesa?

A

(loss of function): May result from damage to nerves, pain, or edema that limits motion or compresses blood vessels or nerves.

62
Q

what are the cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

redness, pain, heat, swelling, loss of function

63
Q

what does the vascular phase of inflammation entail?

A

the endothelial injury triggers vasodilation to increase blood flow to the area and increased post capillary venule permeability, fluid exudates then enters the tissue which contains antibodies and other proteins.

64
Q

what does the cellular phase of inflammation entail?

A

endothelial cells contract and express adhesion molecules which recruit leukocyte to the site, leukocyte activate and move to the injured site through vessel walls in a process called diapedesis which is guided by chemotactic factors like bacterial products, complement proteins, and chemokines. Once at the site leukocyte like neutrophils perform phagocytosis to kill the microbe and clear debris.

65
Q

what is the purpose of exudation of fluid during inflammation?

A

It delivers plasma proteins like antibodies, clotting factors, and nutrients to the site of injury.

It dilutes toxins and other harmful substances.

It enhances lymphatic drainage, which helps to remove the debris and excess fluid from the inflamed area.

66
Q

what is the purpose of pain and loss of function in inflammation?

A

Pain and loss of function help to enforce rest and lower the risk of further tissue damage.

67
Q

what is diapedesis?

A

the passage of blood cells through the intact walls of the capillaries, typically accompanying inflammation.

68
Q

what are the properties of the endothelium in vessels and what do they mean?

A

Selective permeability: keep pathogens out of blood stream while allowing necessary proteins and cells in.

Vascular patency: The endothelium helps to maintain blood vessels open and unobstructed, ensuring the smooth flow of blood throughout the circulatory system.

Antithrombogenic property: The endothelial cells produce substances that prevent blood clotting within the vessels under normal conditions. For example, they release nitric oxide and prostacyclin, which prevent platelets from adhering to the vessel walls, thereby reducing the risk of thrombosis.

Inflammatory regulation: controls passage of leukocytes like neutrophils

69
Q

endothelial dysfunction is the hallmark of several diseases, what does it entail?

A

Endothelial cell injury, inflammatory mediators, and reactive oxygen species activate endothelial cells and produce changes that are key to the development of several diseases. [increased adhesion molecules-clotting prob]

70
Q

what is the role of Proinflammatory cytokines (TNF and IL-1)?

A

induce expression of adhesion molecules (integrins and selectins [increase stickiness]) on endothelial cells that permit adhesion of neutrophils and monocytes that will migrate into underlying tissues.

71
Q

what is the first step in migration of immune cells out of bloodstream into tissue during inflammation?

A

adhesion

72
Q

what are the first immune cells to arrive at a site of infection and are a key component of pus. They are short-lived after activation but are very effective at engulfing pathogens and are involved in the acute inflammatory response?

A

Neutrophils

73
Q

what cells are especially important in fighting parasitic infections and are also involved in allergic reactions. They can release toxic substances to combat larger parasites that cannot be phagocytosed?

A

eosinophils

74
Q

what are tissue-resident cells of the immune system that release histamine and other mediators during allergic responses and play a role in anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction?

A

mast cells

75
Q

Similar to mast cells but these cells circulate in the blood and can amplify allergic responses. They release histamine and other mediators and are involved in hypersensitivity reactions. what are they?

A

basophils

76
Q

what type of granules does granulocyte white blood cells contain and what are their roles?

A

Histamine: A vasodilator that also contributes to the sensations of itching and increased vessel permeability.

Heparin: An anticoagulant that helps to prevent blood clotting.

Toxins: Substances that can directly kill pathogens.

Enzymes: These synthesize important mediators like prostaglandins and leukotrienes, which are involved in increasing inflammation and attracting other immune cells to the site of infection or injury.

Signal molecules (cytokines and chemokines): These are involved in cell signaling and guide cells towards sites of inflammation or injury; they are key in orchestrating the complex interactions during an immune response.

77
Q

what type of cells produces antibodies?

A

plasma cells which are mature B lymphocytes

78
Q

where are monocytes located before turning into macrophages?

A

they circulate in the blood in an inactive form until they receive a signal to go into tissue and differentiate into macrophages

79
Q

what are pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMP)?

A

exogenous microbial triggers or molecules associated with groups of pathogens and are recognized by cells of the innate immune system.

80
Q

what is meant by virulence factors of PAMP?

A

Virulence factors refer to the molecules produced by pathogens (bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa) that add to their effectiveness and enable them to achieve colonization, enter host cells, and escape defense mechanisms. Common examples include enzymes that break down host tissues and endotoxins like lipopolysaccharides in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria.

81
Q

what are exogenous non-microbial triggers of inflammation and what do they include?

A

These are triggers not associated with infectious agents.

They include allergens (substances that cause allergic reactions), toxic compounds (such as industrial chemicals or venoms), irritants (like smoke or pollutants that cause inflammation), and foreign bodies (objects or substances that are not naturally found in the body and can cause an immune reaction).

82
Q

what are damage associated molecular pattern (DAMP)?

A

Damage-Associated Molecular Patterns (DAMPs) are molecules that can initiate and perpetuate an immune response in the absence of infectious pathogens. They are released from damaged or dying cells and signal to the body that repair is needed. Examples of DAMPs include ATP, DNA, or other intracellular components that are not typically found outside of the cell. When these molecules are outside the cell, they can bind to pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) on immune cells and trigger inflammation or cell death processes.

83
Q

What are examples of DAMP and when DAMP is outside the cell what do they bind to?

A

ATP, DNA
pattern recognition receptors (PRR)

84
Q

what type of sensor cells are Toll-Like receptors located on and what do they recognize?

A

on macrophages and dendritic cells
they recognize PAMP and DAMP

85
Q

what are proteins produced by the cells in response to the presence of viruses. They act as signaling molecules and help in preventing viral replication and activation of immune cells?

A

Interferons

86
Q

what are arachidonic acid derivatives?

A

These include prostaglandins, thromboxane, and leukotrienes. They are involved in a wide range of activities, including inflammation, fever, regulation of blood pressure, and muscle contraction.

87
Q

what, When activated, it initiates the formation of bradykinin, which increases capillary permeability and leads to pain and swelling?

A

Hageman factor (Factor XII)

88
Q

for complete resolution of inflammation to occur what must be present?

A

organ or tissue affected must be capable of regeneration. Epithelial basement membrane must be intact (guide for laying down new cells). For organs to regenerate, the connective tissue (scaffold) must be intact.

89
Q

When the immune system is unable to clear the infection or injury quickly, it may wall off the area, leading to a collection of pus, what is this called?

A

abscess

An abscess is usually surrounded by a fibrous capsule and may require medical intervention to drain and eliminate the infection.

90
Q

what is pus made up of?

A

pus is a mixture of dead neutrophils (a type of white blood cell), dead tissue, and bacteria or other pathogens.

91
Q

what is an abnormal connection between two internal organs or between an internal organ and the exterior of the body?

A

fistula

Fistulas can occur as a result of chronic inflammation, infection, surgery, or other injuries. They may cause the continuous discharge of fluid and can be difficult to treat, sometimes requiring surgical intervention.

92
Q

what is scar formation or fibrosis and why is it formed?

A

If the damaged tissue is incapable of complete regeneration, the body may fill the area with connective tissue, leading to scar formation. This fibrotic tissue is composed mainly of collagen and is more fibrous and less functional than the original tissue. While fibrosis restores the structural integrity of the tissue, it can lead to impaired function, especially if the scarring is extensive.

93
Q

what is extravasation of hypocellular fluid that is poor in proteins and has with low specific gravity (< 1.012).
Occur due to alterations in Starling forces (increased hydrostatic pressure or decreased oncotic pressure)?

A

transudate

This is a fluid that passes through a membrane or squeezes out of tissue, usually due to an imbalance in the forces that regulate fluid movement (Starling forces).
Transudates are characteristically low in protein content, which is why they have a low specific gravity (less than 1.012).
The formation of transudate is typically related to systemic factors rather than local injury to tissues or inflammation. It is often due to increased hydrostatic pressure (as in heart failure) or decreased oncotic pressure (as in hypoalbuminemia from liver disease or nephrotic syndrome).

94
Q

what is rich in cells, proteins, and have a specific gravity > 1.020.
Occur due to increased blood vessel permeability (inflammation) and lymphatic obstruction?

A

exudate

In contrast, exudates contain higher levels of protein and cells, reflecting their origin from the plasma but with the influence of inflammatory processes.
The specific gravity of an exudate is higher (more than 1.020) because of the increased content of cellular elements and proteins.
Exudates generally accumulate due to increased permeability of the blood vessel wall, which can be caused by inflammation, or due to obstruction of lymphatic drainage.

95
Q

what kind of factors contribute to the development of chronic inflammation?

A

Failure to Eliminate Agent Causing Acute Inflammation: This can happen if the body’s immune response is unable to completely remove the pathogen or irritant that caused the initial inflammation.

Long-Term Exposure to Low Levels of Irritants: Continuous exposure to substances like silica, dust, or tobacco smoke can perpetually trigger the immune system, leading to chronic inflammation.

Autoimmune Disorders: Conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, and inflammatory bowel disease, where the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy tissues, can cause chronic inflammation.

Defects in Regulation of the Immune Response: This can occur due to genetic factors or other diseases that disrupt the normal checks and balances of the immune system.

Recurrent Episodes of Acute Inflammation: Frequent bouts of acute inflammation can lead to a state of continuous low-level inflammation.

Persistent Oxidative Stress: This is characterized by the accumulation of harmful substances such as free radicals, advanced glycation end products (AGEs), uric acid, oxidized low-density lipoprotein (LDL), and homocysteine. These substances can damage cells and tissues, leading to inflammation.

96
Q

what are the primary white blood cells present in chronic inflammation vs acute inflammation?

A

chronic: macrophages, lymphocytes, and plasma cells.

acute: neutrophils

Primary inflammatory cells are macrophages, lymphocytes,and plasmacells (replacing neutrophils) in the tissue site, producing inflammatory cytokines, growth factors, enzymes and contributing to the progression of tissue damage and secondary repair (fibrosis and granuloma formation).

97
Q

what phagocytic cell does the following?
Produce enzymes known as proteases that can digest foreign substances and damaged tissue.
Secrete interleukin-1 (IL-1) and tumor necrosis factor (TNF), which are cytokines that promote inflammation and also activate lymphocytes.
Generate arachidonic acid metabolites and nitric oxide (NO), which further contribute to the inflammatory response.
Stimulate angiogenesis (formation of new blood vessels) and produce growth factors such as platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) and fibroblast growth factor (FGF), which are critical for tissue repair and regeneration.

A

activated macrophage

98
Q

which leukocyte does the following?
Produce fibroblast growth factor (FGF), which encourages fibroblasts to produce collagen, leading to the scarring that is characteristic of chronic inflammation.
Release PDGF and transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β), which are also involved in stimulating tissue repair processes.
Secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-γ), which further activates macrophages, enhancing their ability to phagocytose pathogens and present antigens, a crucial step in sustaining the immune response.

A

activated lymphocyte

99
Q

what does interferon-gamma (IFN-γ) do when released from activated lymphocyte?

A

further activates macrophages, enhancing their ability to phagocytose pathogens and present antigens, a crucial step in sustaining the immune response.

100
Q

which phagocyte stimulate angiogenesis during chronic inflammation?

A

activated macrophages

101
Q

what type of chronic inflammation is the following?
This is a type of chronic inflammation characterized by the formation of granulation tissue.
It involves the infiltration of mononuclear cells (like lymphocytes, macrophages, and plasma cells) and the proliferation of fibroblasts, connective tissue, vessels, and sometimes epithelial cells.
Examples include inflammatory polyps that may be found in nasal passages, the stomach, or the cervix.

A

nonspecific proliferative chronic inflammation

102
Q

what type of chronic inflammation is the following?
This is a distinct type of chronic inflammation characterized by the formation of granulomas.

A

granulomatous chronic inflammation

The process is mediated by a cascade of immune reactions, starting with interferon-gamma (IFN-γ) released from T-helper 1 (Th1) cells, which activate macrophages. In turn, activated macrophages release interleukin-12 (IL-12) to further stimulate Th1 cells. The maintenance of granulomas involves cytokines like IL-12 and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha).

103
Q

what are granulomas?

A

Granulomas are nodular inflammatory lesions that contain activated macrophages or epithelioid cells surrounded by a border of lymphocytes.
The body forms these granulomas in an attempt to contain substances it perceives as foreign but is unable to eliminate.

104
Q

what maintains granulomas?

A

cytokines like IL-12 and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha).

105
Q

what is a defining feature of granulomatous inflammation?

A

The presence of epithelioid histiocytes is a defining feature, and while multinucleated giant cells can be present, they are not required for the definition of a granuloma.

106
Q

what is epithelioid histocyte?

A

It’s activated macrophage derivative

107
Q

what has a central area of necrosis that may appear “cheesy” when viewed under a microscope and are typically associated with infections like tuberculosis (TB) and certain fungal infections?

A

caseating granuloma

108
Q

what lacks the central area of necrosis and are found in conditions like sarcoidosis, beryllium exposure, Crohn’s disease, cat scratch disease (caused by Bartonella bacteria), and Wegener’s granulomatosis (now known as granulomatosis with polyangiitis)?

A

noncaseating granulomas

109
Q

what is the process by which damaged cells are replaced with identical ones, resulting in complete restoration of tissue architecture without scarring and occurs only if the tissue damage is mild and there is an intact connective tissue scaffold (stroma) that can support the regrowth of cells?

A

regeneration

110
Q

what happens When tissue damage is more extensive and regeneration is not possible. This process involves both the replacement of cells (regeneration) and the formation of scar tissue (fibrosis)?

A

Healing

Scar formation is a result of the deposition of collagen and other extracellular matrix components that replace the damaged tissue when the original structures cannot be completely restored.

111
Q

what Stimulates granulation tissue formation?

A

Epidermal growth factor (EGF)

112
Q

what is granulation tissue?

A

the new connective tissue and microscopic blood vessels that form on the surfaces of a wound during the healing process.

113
Q

what signal protein primarily induces the formation of new blood vessels (angiogenesis), which is crucial for providing nutrients and oxygen to the healing tissue?

A

Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF):

compared to FGF this is more potent, less broad, and happens in response to hypoxic conditions

114
Q

what signaling protein is important for the migration and proliferation of key cells involved in the healing process, such as fibroblasts (which produce collagen and other extracellular matrix components), smooth muscle cells, and monocytes (which can differentiate into macrophages and contribute to wound cleaning and repair)?

A

Platelet-Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)

115
Q

what signaling protein promotes the formation of new blood vessels and helps repair the wound through the action of macrophages, fibroblasts (which synthesize the extracellular matrix), and endothelial cells (which line the interior surface of blood vessels)?

A

Fibroblast Growth Factor (FGF)

116
Q

what signaling protein has multiple roles in wound healing, including the inhibition of epithelial cell growth, which helps regulate the proliferation of these cells as the wound heals?

A

Transforming Growth Factor-Beta (TGF-β)