Infectious respiratory diseases Flashcards

1
Q

CIRD = ?

Describe it.

A

Canine infectious respiratory disease
complex

  • CIRD, kennel cough, infectious tracheobronchitis
  • Very common worldwide
  • Highly contagious
  • Most prevalent in dense dog populations
  • Affects larynx, trachea, bronchi, nasal mucosa
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2
Q

CIRD – etiology (5+3)

A

multifactorial

  • Viruses
     Canine parainfluenza virus
     Canine respiratory coronavirus
     Canine adenovirus-2
     Canine herpesvirus
     Canine influenza virus
  • Bacteria
     Bordetella bronchiseptica
     Mycoplasma spp.
     Streptococcus equi sp. zooepidemicus
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3
Q

Which of these CIRD pathogens can be vaccinated against?

  • Viruses
     Canine parainfluenza virus
     Canine respiratory coronavirus
     Canine adenovirus-2
     Canine herpesvirus
     Canine influenza virus
  • Bacteria
     Bordetella bronchiseptica
     Mycoplasma spp.
     Streptococcus equi sp. zooepidemicus
A

parainfluenza
adenovirus
bordetella

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4
Q

CIRD – clinical signs and findings (4)

A
  • Loud and persistent cough
  • Bright, alert, no fever
  • Normal respiratory rate and pattern
  • No crackles or wheezes on auscultation,
    lung sound may be increased
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5
Q

CIRD – diagnostic evaluation

A

Physical exam, no further testing
 Otherwise healthy dog
 Cough but in good condition
 History of Recent exposure to other dogs

Usually is mild and self-limiting disease (< 10 days).

Complications:
 Bacterial pneumonia (especially irish wolfhounds), Bordetella -tracheobronchitis (which can last weeks)

All coughing dogs do not need antibiotic treatment!

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6
Q

CIRD – diagnostic evaluation.
Do further diagnostic testing in which cases?

A

 Febrile, inappetent, lethargic dog
 Concurrent illnesses
 Immunosuppressive medication
 Breed
 History of Long-lasting cough

Do Thoracic radiography, blood work,
bronchoscopy, bacterial culture

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7
Q

Describe Bacterial tracheobronchitis.

A

Occurs in Dogs. Is a Bacterial infection of the airways, but not parenchyma (so not pneumonia). Can be a complication of CIRD.

Most commonly Bordetella bronchiseptica.

You can die of pneumonia but not of tracheobronchitis cause its on the surface of the airways not within the parenchyma.

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8
Q

Bacterial tracheobronchitis presents with (4)

A

Acute or chronic cough
+ bacterial growth in respiratory sample
+ lack of alveolar infiltrates in thoracic radiographs
+ usually no fever or hematological changes

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9
Q

Treatment of Bacterial tracheobronchitis.

A
  • Treatment
     Doxycycline 10-14 days

NB enamel discoloration can occur

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10
Q
A

Left: normal

Right: bacterial pneumonia with inflammatory cell infiltrate

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11
Q

Describe Bacterial pneumonia

A

Bacterial infection of airways and
pulmonary parenchyma.

Also called bronchopneumonia

Is more common in Dogs > cats

A potentially severe systemic infection!
 50-70 % of cases require hospital treatment

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12
Q

Canine bacterial pneumonia - predisposing factors. (9)

A
  • Viral respiratory infections
  • Aspiration
  • Ciliary dyskinesia
  • Neoplasia
  • Trauma, bleeding
  • Smoke inhalation
  • Pulmonary parasites
  • Structural changes
     Tracheal collapse, bronchiectasis,
    bronchoesophageal fistula
  • Immune dysfunction
     Medications, illnesses, primary dysfunction
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13
Q

Bronchiectasis is…

A

a long-term condition where the airways of the lungs become widened, leading to a build-up of excess mucus that can make the lungs more vulnerable to infection.

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14
Q

mirrored organ syndrome also called

A

Situs inversus

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15
Q

Canine bacterial pneumonia - causative bacteria (4)

A
  • Gram negative rods (40-60% of cases)
     E. coli, Pasteurella spp., Klebsiella spp.
  • Gram positive cocci (5-20% of cases)
     Streptococcus spp., Staphylococcus spp.
  • Bordetella bronchiseptica
     Significant in puppies and young dogs
  • Mycoplasma spp.
     Commonly a co-infection
  • Mixed infection in 10-40% of cases
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16
Q

Canine bacterial pneumonia - typical patient

A
  • Large breed dogs
  • Less than 5 years of age
  • Males overrepresented but we don’t know why
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17
Q

Canine bacterial pneumonia - clinical signs and findings

A

most typical: tachypnea, lethargy, abnormal auscultation

Next,
* Cough
* Fever
* Respiratory distress
* Anorexia
* Nasal discharge
* Weight loss

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18
Q

Irish Wolfhounds are prone to what respiratory disease?

A

immune mediated ciliary deficiency / ciliary dyskinesia / Rhinitis/Bronchopneumonia Syndrome

a rare congenital defect where the ciliary throughout the body do not function properly.

This can cause respiratory issues such as coughing, nasal congestion and exercise intolerance.

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19
Q

Canine bacterial pneumonia
- typical blood work (4+2)

A

Hematology
 Left shift (too many immature in circulation)
 Neutrophilia
 Leukocytosis
 Leukopenia

Hypoxemia common

Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP)

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20
Q

Canine bacterial pneumonia - thoracic radiography findings.

A
  • Most important single diagnostic measure.
  • Typical findings
     Alveolar pattern
     Usually several lung lobes affected
     Cranial and ventral lobes, both sides
  • Take 2-3 views! (VD + 2 x lat)
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21
Q
A

patchy alveolar pattern

only 10% of dogs have this type of change in bacterial pneumonia

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22
Q

Canine bacterial pneumonia - respiratory sample

A
  • Sampling, yes or no?
     Antibiotic selection according to susceptibility
     Bacterial culture takes time
     Samples do not always grow
     Bronchoalveolar lavage vs. transtracheal wash
     Consider sampling at least in recurrent infections
  • Neutrophilic inflammation
     Possibly intracellular bacteria
23
Q

Canine bacterial pneumonia - antibiotic treatment.

A

Antibiotics
 Mild pneumonia
 Doxycycline (not when liver disease! cause elevation of liver values) / TMS / amoxicillin-clavulanate po

Pneumonia in a dog less than 1 year of age
 Doxycycline

Severe pneumonia
 Ampicillin + enrofloxacin iv

Treatment length? Is debatable.
 Conventional treatment Continue 1-2 weeks after resolution of radiographic findings so up to ~4-6 weeks.

Or CRP-guided therapy
 Continue 5-7 days after CRP normalization
 ~3 weeks

24
Q

Canine bacterial pneumonia
- treatment other than AB.

A

 Supplemental oxygen
 Fluid therapy iv!

 Gastric acid blockers if severely hypoxemic
 Couppage q 4-6 h

 No NSAIDs! (not if they have endotoxemic shock, too much for the kidneys)

25
Q

Canine bacterial pneumonia
- what NOT to give as treatment

A

 No cough suppressants
 No NSAIDs
 No conventional-dose furosemide

26
Q

Describe Feline bacterial pneumonia

A
  • Less common than in dogs
  • Less well documented
  • No breed predisposition
  • Likely underdiagnosed? Can be tricky to diagnose!
27
Q

Feline bacterial pneumonia - signs and findings.

A
  • Clinical signs
     Depression, anorexia, cough, respiratory distress, tachypnea, weight loss, nasal discharge, fever
  • Clinical findings
     Abnormal auscultation
     Wheezes, crackles, increased or decreased lung sounds
     Dyspnea, tachypnea, abnormal respiratory pattern

Feline bacterial pneumonia can be chronic and mimic inflammatory airway disease!

28
Q

Feline bacterial pneumonia - diagnosis

A
  • Hematology can be normal
     Leukocytosis
     Leukopenia and left shift uncommon

SAA can be elevated in acute cases but also can be normal. But you should do SAA anyway.

  • Thoracic radiography (min. 2 views!)
     Any pattern is possible!
     Often alveolar changes
     Interstitial, bronchial pattern
     Can be normal
  • Respiratory sample? Can be challenging in cats.
29
Q

Feline bacterial pneumonia - etiology

A
  • Predisposing cause?
     Viral upper respiratory tract infection
     Retrovirus infection (FIV,FeLV)
     Immunosuppressive medication
     Foreign body
     Aspiration
     Environmental conditions
30
Q

Feline bacterial pneumonia - possible bacteria (5)

A
  • Mycoplasma spp.
  • Pasteurella spp.
  • Bordetella bronchiseptica
  • Streptococcus spp., Staphylococcus spp.
  • E. coli
31
Q

Feline bacterial pneumonia - treatment

A
  • Antibiotics
     Ideally selected on basis of bacterial culture and antibiotic sensitivity testing
     Choice Depending on the severity of the disease

Mild disease – PO treatment
 Doxycycline, amoxicillin-clavulanate +/-
enro/pradofloxacin

Severe pneumonia, sepsis – iv treatment
 Ampicillin iv + enrofloxacin iv

+ Supportive treatment

32
Q

Aspiration pneumonia

A
  • Inhalation of materials to the lower respiratory tract.
  • Chemical damage leading to Inflammation and edema leading to
    Secondary bacterial infection
  • More common in dogs than in cats
33
Q

Diagnosis of Aspiration pneumonia

A

 Anamnesis, physical exam, radiography

Xray: Cranioventral parts of cranial and middle lung lobes. Right middle lung lobe typical.

34
Q

Treatment of Aspiration pneumonia

A

 Supportive treatment such as in bacterial pneumonia

 Amoxicillin-clavulanate

35
Q

FURTD = ?

Agents? (5)

A

Feline upper respiratory tract disease

  • Worldwide distribution despite vaccinations
  • Problem in multi-cat households
  • Young, old, otherwise sick cats
  • Causative agents
     Feline calicivirus
     Feline herpesvirus
     Bordetella bronchiseptica
     Chlamydia felis
     (Mycoplasma felis?)
36
Q

FURTD – epidemiology

A

Transmission
 Direct contact
 Through fomites
 Aerosol

herpes & calici viruses (can also include chlamydia bact.)

Clinically recovered carrier cats:
 Fe herpes virus leads to a lifelong latent infection which can be reactivated

 Feline calici virus carriers shed virus continuously

37
Q

FURTD – clinical signs

A

Nasal and ocular discharge, conjunctivitis should self-resolve in 1-2 weeks unless complications.

Calicivirus
 Oral ulceration
 Hypervirulent strains

Herpesvirus
 Ulcerative keratitis, sometimes coughing and systemic disease

Image: left is calici, right is herpes

38
Q

FURTD – clinical signs of Chlamydia felis (bacteria)

A

 More an ocular than a respiratory pathogen!

 Acute and chronic conjunctivitis,
ocular ulceration uncommon.

39
Q

How to differentiate herpes and calici?

A

Calicivirus causes ulcers in the mouth.

Herpesvirus causes ulcers in the eyes.

40
Q

FURTD - diagnosis

A

In practice, Based on Typical clinical signs and course of disease.
 Usually self-limiting in a week

  • What is the causative agent?
     Important in cat shelter/cattery
    outbreaks. Use RT-PCR.

Sample by Nasal swab or swab from conjunctival sack or oropharynx. False negative and false positive results can occur.

41
Q

FURTD - treatment

A
  • Supportive therapy
  • Antibiotics only in more severe cases
     Consider if you could have Bordetella? Mycoplasma?
     Choose Doxycycline, amoxicillin clavulanate, pradofloxacin but not all of these have efficacy against mycoplasma.
  • Antiviral treatment in severe or chronic herpes infections (famciclovir/famvir)
  • Oral L-lysine for herpes infection can be tried (flumax).
  • Prevention by vaccination and management measures.
42
Q

Name Respiratory parasites

A
  • Non-lungworms
     Pulmonary migration of intestinal worms
    e.g. Toxocara, Ancylostoma
     Usually few symptoms
  • Lungworms
     Final destination the airways, pulmonary
    parenchyma or both
    e.g. crenosoma vulpis, filaroides osleri/oslerus osleri, capillaria aerophila, aelurostrongylus abstrusus (cat lungworm) etc.

Resp parasite Infection can easily be confused with other respiratory disease!

43
Q

Diagnosis of Respiratory parasites

A

Baermann sedimentation and
flotation from feces. Due to Intermittent shedding, 3-day sample! (even when its respiratory parasites - you need both baerman and flotation)

Blood test also possible for specifically Angiostrongylus vasorum (french heartworm) (Immunochromatography, ELISA, PCR) and dirofilaria with 4Dx.

44
Q

Describe Crenosoma vulpis (only dogs)

A

 Indirect transmission after ingesting a snail or slug.

 Matures in the bronchi and bronchioles

 Subclinical infection, cough, nasal discharge

 Larvae in fecal or BAL Baermann test so order both flotation and baermann.

 Treat with Fenbendazole 50mg/kg daily 3 days, moxidectin, ivermectin, milbemycin oxime

45
Q

In chronically coughing dogs, what parasite should you rule out first?

A

crenosoma vulpis / french heartworm

46
Q

Describe Oslerus osleri (Filaroides osleri)

A

 Direct transmission

 Causes Granulomatous nodules to distal trachea and proximal bronchi

 Subclinical infection, cough, respiratory distress, pneumothorax

 Nodules at carina

 Fenbendazole, moxidectin?, ivermectin?

47
Q

Describe Eucoleus aerophilus (Capillaria aerophila) (in both dogs and cats)

A

 Transmission from Ingesting eggs or earthworms

 Infects airway mucosa and becomes embedded

 Subclinical infection, chronic cough, respiratory distress. Can cause Eosinophilic bronchitis.

 Fecal flotation better than Baermann in this case. But false negatives can occur so deworm anyway.

 Fenbedazole 50mg/kg daily 10-14 days, ivermectin, maybe moxidectin too. NB long AB course

48
Q

Describe Aelurostrongylus abstrusus (affects cats)

A

 Common feline lungworm

 Transmission by Ingestion of an intermediate host (snail, slug) or a bird or rodent which has ingested it.

 Adult worms reside in terminal bronchioles and alveolar ducts.

 Cough, wheezing, respiratory distress,
even death

 Mimics asthma!

 Larvae in feces (Baermann) or BAL

 Fenbendazole 50mg/kg daily 10-14 days,
ivermectin, selamectin NB long AB course

49
Q

Describe Filaroides hirthi and milksi (dogs)
 Feco-oral transmission
 Reside in the alveolar space and terminal
bronchioles
 Subclinical infection, cough, respiratory distress,
even death
 Larvae in feces (Baermann) or BAL
 Fenbendazole 50mg/kg 10-14 days, ivermectin

A
50
Q

Describe Paragonimus kellicotti (dogs and cats)
 Lung fluke
 Indirect infection after eating crayfish
 Migration from intestines into pleural space
and pulmonary parenchyma
 Subclinical infection, cough,
respiratory distress, pneumothorax
 Eggs in feces or BAL (sedimentation)
 Praziquantel 25 mg/kg q 8h for 3 days,
fenbendazole

A
51
Q

Describe Angiostrongylus vasorum (dogs)

A

 French heart worm

 Indirect infection after eating snails, slugs, frogs etc.

 Mature parasites reside in pulmonary artery, right heart and pulmonary arterioles

 Causes cardiopulmonary symptoms, systemic bleeding

 Anemia, eosinophilia, thrombocytopenia, hypercalcemia

 Fecal Baermann sedimentation, BAL, ELISA from blood

 Fenbendazole 25-50 mg/kg daily for 10-20 days, ivermectin, milbemycin oxime, imidacloprid/moxidectin spot-on, levamisole

52
Q

Angiostrongylus vasorum vs. Dirofilaria immitis

predilection site?
size?
transmission?
migration?

A

Both parasites reside in the right heart and pulmonary arteries. Dirofilaria can grow up to 30 cm and Angiostrongylus only up to 1 inch.

Differences in Transmission:
 Av: Eating slug, snail, frog containing infective larvae

 Di: Transmitted by a bite of a mosquito containing infective larvae

Migration:
 Av travels through the gut wall – liver – liver vasculature to right heart and pulmonary arteries, L1 penetrate bronchial and alveolar walls, are coughed up and ingested and passed out in feces.

 Di travels in SC tissue and ends up pulmonary arteries and right
heart.

52
Q

Differences in Diagnosis of dirofilaria vs angiostrongylus.

A

 Av: Fecal Baermann, BAL, ELISA from blood

 Di: IDEXX Snapp 4Dx ELISA for adult heart worm and modified Knott’s test or PCR for microfilaria

53
Q

Differences in treatment of dirofilaria vs angiostrongylus.

A

 Av: Fenbendazole 25-50 mg/kg daily for 10-20 days, ivermectin, milbemycin oxime, imidacloprid/moxidectin spot-on, levamisole

 Di: From the American heart worm association:

Monthly administration of macrocyclic lactones (e.g., ivermectin, milbemycin) to kill microfilariae and inhibit the maturation of new larvae.

Administering doxycycline (10 mg/kg twice daily for 4 weeks) to target Wolbachia bacteria, an endosymbiont crucial to the survival of heartworms. Reducing Wolbachia weakens heartworms and reduces inflammatory responses.

Adulticide Therapy: a three-dose protocol using melarsomine dihydrochloride. First injection is followed one month later by two more injections given 24 hours apart. This regimen is preferred over the two-dose protocol due to its greater safety and efficacy.