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infectious final Flashcards

1
Q

how is rabies diagnosed

A

RT-PCR and examination of tissue sample for virus and Negri bodies

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2
Q

how is hantavirus transmitted to humans

A

rodents; their waste or saliva

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3
Q

leading cause of gastrointestinal illness worldwide

A

norovirus

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4
Q

biosafety level appropriate for ebola

A

level 4

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5
Q

characterize hansens disease (leprosy)

A

folded, bulblike lesions on body, esp. face and extremities and transmitted by direct contact as well as airborne route

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6
Q

HAART protocol for treating west. HIV infections

A

protease inhibitor of viral maturation and reverse transcription inhibitor and fusion inhibitor

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7
Q

NOT true of strep pyrogenes

A

best diagnosed using RT-PCR

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8
Q

NOT true of ebola

A

there have never been active cases in US

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9
Q

NOT true of Human immunodeficiency virus

A

HIV-2 causes about 90% of AIDS

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10
Q

what do you see in hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

A

reduction in platelets, vague fever and fatigue, difficulty breathing

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11
Q

NOT true of yellow fever

A

about 1/2 of cases go toxic characterized by jaundice and hemorrhaging

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12
Q

Not true of smallpox

A

transmitted via mosquito

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13
Q

NOT true of polio

A

caused by DNA piconaviridae enterovirus (+ sense RNA)

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14
Q

system of classifying viruses

A

Baltimore classification system

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15
Q

case study: college student reports sensitivity to light and stiff neck

A

neisseria meningitidis

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16
Q

streptococcus pyogenes

A

gram + aerotolerant cocci that cause pharyngitis

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17
Q

gram + aerotolerant cocci that cause pharyngitis

A

streptococcus pyogenes

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18
Q

corynebacterium diptheriae

A

causes severe respiratory disease by gram + aerobic club shape. death by suffocation

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19
Q

causes severe respiratory disease by gram + aerobic club shape. death by suffocation

A

corynebacterium diptheriae

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20
Q

bordetella pertussis

A

gram negative aerobic bacteria that causes violent cough

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21
Q

mycobacterium

A

acid fast bacteria that causes TB and leprosy

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22
Q

neisseria

A

cause inflammation of meninges w manifestations ranging from transient fever to death

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23
Q

acid fast bacterium that causes TB and leprosy

A

mycobacterium

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24
Q

gram - aerobic bacteria that causes violent cough

A

bortedella pertussis

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25
Q

Epstein Barr Virus causes classic mononucleosis

A

TRUE

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26
Q

C. diphtheria can cause myocarditis and endocarditis

A

TRUE

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27
Q

antimicrobial treatment of TB includes isoniazid and rifampin

A

TRUE

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28
Q

treatment of leprosy involves multi drug approach of inhibitors

A

TRUE

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29
Q

strep pyogenes is also called Beta hemolytic or group A strep bc they can hemolyses red blood cells and belong to lance fields serogroup A

A

TRUE

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30
Q

yellow fever has a jungle cycle, intermediate, and urban cycle related to transmission

A

TRUE

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31
Q

dengue fever involved a ss RNA virus of + sense transmitted by aides aegypti mosquito and originated in monkeys

A

TRUE

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32
Q

dengue fever agent

A

ss + sense RNA virus

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33
Q

most viral vaccines involved attenuated virus until development of mRNA vaccines

A

TRUE

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34
Q

rickettsia prowazekii

A

epidemic typhus

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35
Q

epidemic typhus agent

A

rickettsia prowazekii

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36
Q

treponema pallidum

A

syphillis

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37
Q

syphillis agent

A

treponema pallidum

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38
Q

staphylococci aereus

A

acne, boils, meningitis, pneumonia, carditis, food poisoning

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39
Q

helicobacter pylori

A

ulcers

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40
Q

rickettsia rickettsia

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

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41
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

rickettsia rickettsia

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42
Q

chlamydia trachomatis

A

nongonococcal urethritis

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43
Q

nongonococcal urethritis

A

chlamydia trachomatis

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44
Q

coxiella burnetti

A

Q fever

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45
Q

Q fever agent

A

coxiella burnetti

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46
Q

clostridium perfringens

A

gas gangrene

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47
Q

gas gangrene agent

A

clostridium perfringens

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48
Q

trypanosoma brucei

A

African sleeping sickness

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49
Q

african sleeping sickness

A

trypanosoma brucei

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50
Q

trypanosoma cruzi

A

chagas disease

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51
Q

chagas disease

A

trypanosoma cruzi

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52
Q

causative agent of typhus is transmitted by

A

body louse

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53
Q

role of toxins in anthrax

A

play a role in all 3 forms

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54
Q

tetanus booster

A

every 10 yrs

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55
Q

resistant to chlorination

A

legionella pneumophila

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56
Q

legionella pneumophila

A

resistant to chlorination

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57
Q

NOT top cause of food borne illness

A

clostridium botulinum

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58
Q

growth factor analog drugs

A

sulfa drugs

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59
Q

sulfa drugs

A

growth factor analog drug

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60
Q

drugs that interfere w cell wall synthesis

A

B-lactam antibiotics

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61
Q

B-lactam antibiotics

A

interfere w cell wall synthesis

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62
Q

antiviral drug to combat HIV

A

inhibitors of HIV multiplication, block active site of protease, fusion inhibitors

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63
Q

drugs impact transcription

A

rifampin

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64
Q

rifampin

A

impacts transcription

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65
Q

decimal reduction time

A

time required for 10 fold reduction in viability of microbial population at a given temperature

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66
Q

time for a 10 fold reduction in viable microbes

A

decimal reduction time

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67
Q

NOT true of fungi

A

chemoorganotrophs and mostly anaerobic

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68
Q

fungi

A

mostly aerobic

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69
Q

does NOT form cysts

A

trichomonad vaginalis

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70
Q

most effective antimicrobial agent for destroying ALL microorganisms and their endospores

A

sterilants

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71
Q

sterliants

A

kill all microorganisms and endospores

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72
Q

broad spectrum antibiotic

A

tetracycline and erythromycin

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73
Q

erythromycin

A

broad spectrum antibiotic

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74
Q

NOT CDC recommended

A

treat w the newest available antimicrobial drug

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75
Q

which level of immunity is MOST specific

A

adaptive

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76
Q

adaptive immunity

A

most specific level of immunity

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77
Q

innate immunity

A

includes macrophages

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78
Q

T and B cells origin

A

lymphoid stem cells

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79
Q

lymphoid stem cells

A

produce T and B cells

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80
Q

primary antibody response

A

IgM

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81
Q

IgM

A

in blood; primary antibody response

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82
Q

vaccination

A

artificial active

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83
Q

artificial active

A

vaccination

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84
Q

neisseria gonorrhoeae is responsible for more deaths/year than syphllis

A

FALSE

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85
Q

syphillis causes more deaths than neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

TRUE

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86
Q

murine typhus caused by rickettsia typhi is more serious than epidemic typhus

A

FALSE

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87
Q

vibrio cholera, agent of cholera, is non-motile, gram + organism contracted from contaminated food and water

A

FALSE

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88
Q

legionella pneumophila grows within macrophages and monocytes

A

TRUE

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89
Q

guardia intestinales cysts are chlorine resistant

A

TRUE

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90
Q

trichophytdon is superficial mycosis that causes athletes foot and can be treated w antifungal creams

A

TRUE

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91
Q

trichophyton

A

superficial mycosis causes athletes foot

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92
Q

Th helper cells stimulate B cells to differentiate into plasma cells that secrete antibodies

A

TRUE

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93
Q

memory cells persist after primary exposure to a pathogen and are T cells

A

FALSE

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94
Q

NOT caused by paramyxovirus

A

rubella

95
Q

hepatitis virus that is double stranded DNA virus transmitted by blood or body fluid and causes severe liver failure and death

A

Hepatitis B

96
Q

hepatitis B

A

ds DNA virus transmitted by blood or body fluid and causes severe liver failure or death

97
Q

hepatitis virus is ss RNA flavivirus transmitted parentally and is assoc w chronic liver disease

A

Hepatitis C

98
Q

hepatitis C

A

RNA flavivirus transmitted parentally and causes chronic liver disease

99
Q

NOT true of herpes virus

A

all single stranded - sense RNA viruses

100
Q

sterilants

A

most effective antimicrobial for destroying all microorganisms and endospores

101
Q

infective stage of schistosomiasis for humans

A

Cercariae

102
Q

cercariae

A

infective state of schistosomiasis

103
Q

filariasis caused by what helminth

A

nematode

104
Q

NOT true of onchocerciasis

A

causative agent is (not) trematode

105
Q

causative agent trichinosis

A

nematode

106
Q

trichinosis transmission

A

consuming undercooked wild game

107
Q

consuming undercooked wild game

A

trichinosis

108
Q

adult worms of ascaris lumbricoides invade and parasitize:

A

intestine

109
Q

diagnose diverticulitis

A

CT scan

110
Q

intraabdominal infection (secondary peritonitis)

A

perforated viscus

111
Q

perforated viscus

A

secondary peritonitis = intraabdominal infection

112
Q

schistosoma eggs are shed from infected humans in

A

urine and feces

113
Q

the worm that is causative agent of filariasis transmitted to humans by:

A

mosquito

114
Q

filariasis transmission

A

worm to mosquito

115
Q

hosts for ascaris lumbicoides

A

humans and pigs

116
Q

ascaris lumbicoides

A

infects humans and pigs in intestine is most common helminth disease worldwide

117
Q

causative agent of gastrointestinal diseases is clostridium difficile -

A

gram + anaerobic spore producing bacillus

118
Q

gram + anaerobic spore producing bacillus

A

clostridium difficile

119
Q

intermediary of schistosoma transmission to humans

A

snail

120
Q

central line infections

A

transient bacteremia, exit sit, tunne, infection, septic phlebitis

121
Q

HAI pneumonias by ventilators

A

80%

122
Q

symptoms of schistosomiasis include

A

bloody urine, abdominal pain, distention of abdomen, diarrhea

123
Q

systematic review

A

answers defined set of questions by summarizing all empirical evidence that fits pre-specified eligibility criteria

124
Q

most common agents of nosocomial infections

A

MSSA staph > candida > pseudomonas

125
Q

MSSA > candida > pseudomonas

A

common agents of nosocomial infections

126
Q

lifecycle of ascaris lumbricoides has usual infective eggs that:

A

are swallowed, invade the intestine and are carried to lungs where they mature

127
Q

eggs are swallowed, invade intestine and carried to lungs to mature

A

ascaris lumbricoides

128
Q

dukes major criteria for diagnosing endocarditis

A

positive blood cultures from 2 separate cultures drawn 12+ hrs apart

129
Q

tremadotes

A

leaf shaped flatworms

130
Q

leaf shaped flatworms

A

trematodes

131
Q

tapeworms

A

elongated hemaphroditic flatworms

132
Q

elongated hemaphroditic flatworms

A

tapeworms

133
Q

common cause endocarditis

A

bacterial infection

134
Q

nematodes

A

bisexual cylindrical worms

135
Q

bisexual cylindrical worms

A

nematodes

136
Q

common cause pericarditis

A

viral infection

137
Q

peritonitis

A

infection of membrane lining cavity of abdomen

138
Q

cause HAI bacteremia

A

central lines

139
Q

eggs and adult worms of schistosome can live in body for years causing chronic symptoms

A

TRUE

140
Q

legionella pneumophila is cause of community acquired pneumonia

A

TRUE

141
Q

necrotizing pancreatitis involves death of pancreatic tissue by too much drinking, gallstones, or trauma to pancreas and infectious abscesses can form

A

TRUE

142
Q

H. pylori diagnosed by CLO and formalin breath test

A

FALSE

143
Q

ascaris lumbricoides is globally the most common helminth disease

A

TRUE

144
Q

trichinosis diagnosed by PCR and treated with anthelminthic drugs

A

FALSE

145
Q

pseudomonas aeruginosa is gram +, anaerobic spore forming rod bacteria involved in many HAI

A

FALSE

146
Q

septic arthritis

A

gram + staph aureus

147
Q

prosthetic septic arthritis

A

staph epidermis in knee or hip within 1 year post surgery or fall

148
Q

gonococcal septic arthritis

A

sexually active, migratory pain spreads to joints/polyarthritis, blood culture < 10%

149
Q

nongonococcal septic arthritis

A

old and young, monoarthritis, shows up in blood cultures

150
Q

diagnose septic arthritis

A

Blood test, CSF or urine test
Rule out gout/pseudogout with uric crystal analysis

151
Q

diagnose prosthetic septic arthritis

A

Communication between sinus tract and prosthesis may be diagnostic.
Synovial fluid campled for cell count/culture
X-rays imaging show loosening of prosthesis or periosteal reaction but NOT diagnostic

152
Q

treatment prosthetic septic arthritis

A

arthrotomy - surgical exploration of joints to clean up with debridement of all cement, abscesses and devitalized tissues.
spacer treated with antibiotics
Debridement is followed by immediate prosthesis revision or placement of an antibiotic impregnated spacer and then delayed (2-4 months) implantation of a new prosthesis using antibiotic impregnated cement

153
Q

prosthetic septic arthritis differs from septic arthritis of native joints by:

A

coagulase - staphylococcus like S. epidermidis account for a greater percentage of prosthetic joint infections

154
Q

prosthetic septic arthritis differs from septic arthritis of native joints by:

A

coagulase - staphylococcus like S. epidermidis account for a greater percentage of prosthetic joint infections

155
Q

coagulase - staphylococcus like S. epidermidis account for a greater percentage of prosthetic joint infections

A

prosthetic joint infections than native joint infections

156
Q

Vertebral Osteomyelitis

A

spinal cord infection as result of injury to spine or after surgery
or spread thru bloodstream
more men affected

157
Q

spondylodiscitis

A

vertebral osteomyelitis

158
Q

risks of vertebral osteomyelitis

A

dialysis, sickle cell anemia, age, injecting drugs

159
Q

symptoms vertebral osteomyelitis

A

Back pain is NOT relieved by pain meds, heat or resting

160
Q

organisms of vertebral osteomyelitis

A

staph aureus

161
Q

diagnose vertebral osteomyelitis

A

imaging

162
Q

treat Vertebral Osteomyelitis

A

8 weeks of IV antibiotics
rifampin for MSSA and MRSA infections
braces or PT
Surgery to drain pus from infected area

163
Q

Septic Bursitis

A

Painful swelling of small fluid filled sac called bursa. Bursa cushions areas where the bone would rub on muscle, tendons or skin. Bursitis most often occurs around joints
- pre patellar and olecranon (knee and elbow)

164
Q

septic bursitis cause

A

direct inoculation by trauma/contact with Staph aureus and B strep usual pathogens

165
Q

diagnose septic bursitis

A

aspirating fluid. Cell count > 5,000 with high PMNS

166
Q

causative agent septic bursitis

A

B strep and staph aureus

167
Q

treatment septic bursitis

A

2-3 weeks of IV antibiotics; bursectomy

168
Q

Diabetic Foot Osteomyelitis

A

soft tissue infection that spreads to bone and marrow, involving cortex first, then marrow

169
Q

progression of Diabetic Foot Osteomyelitis

A

soft tissue to bone to marrow from cortex
forefoot (90%), mid foot, hindfoot
forefoot best prognosis
hind foot risk for amputation

170
Q

diabetic foot osteomyelitis risks

A

neuropathy, deformities, decreased sweat, poor healing, hyperglycemia

171
Q

bacteriology of diabetic foot osteomyelitis

A

multiple species bacteria involved
50% cases has Staph aureus; staph epidermidis 25%, then streptococci
4/1 ratio of Aerobes, anaerobes

172
Q

agents of diabetic foot osteomyelitis

A

50% staph aureus, then staph epidermidis
4/1 ration aerobes to anaerobes

173
Q

diagnose diabetic foot osteomyelitis

A

microbiolal and radiological eval. Width and depth of foot ulcer.
Deep ulcers > 3 mm assoc w underlying deep osteomyelitis.
Probe to bone test, if it reaches bone, PTB positive

174
Q

treatment diabetic foot osteomyelitis

A

surgical debridement to rid of bacteria
IV antibiotics directed at mixed flora (wide spectrum) for 6-8 wks
Avoid weight bearing until healed
Ankle amputation

175
Q

palmar space infections

A

deep closed spaces of hand are inoculated from penetrating skin trauma or animal bites
surgical emergency, drain

176
Q

palmar space infection agent

A

Staph aureus (MMSA/MRSA), beta strep

177
Q

bacterial meningitis

A

acute bacterial meningitis most common 80%,
brain swelling interrupts blood flow and causes paralysis or stroke
young children most susceptible
fast onset of symptoms in 24 hrs

178
Q

risks of bacterial meningitis

A

infant, dorm, alcohol abuse, chronic ear and nose infection, head injury

179
Q

bacterial meningitis agent

A

neisseria meningitides enters thru oral pharynx

180
Q

bacterial meningitis symptoms

A

neck stiffness, confusion, irritable, drowsy, refusal to eat, fever, mental status change

181
Q

diagnose bacterial meningitis

A

spinal tap
RBC/WBC ratio in clear CSF 300-500:1 WBC. CSF has high protein and low glucose.

182
Q

treatment bacterial meningitis

A

antibiotics with corticosteroid bc of kidney failure or spleen removal

183
Q

aseptic meningitis

A

clinical and lab evidence for meningeal inflammation with negative routine bacterial causes
Virus common cause
less severe symptoms
more common

184
Q

aseptic meningitis symptoms

A

photophobia, nuchal rigidity (neck stiffness), seldom delirium

185
Q

symptoms aseptic vs bacterial meningitis

A

aseptic is less severe with no delirium and more common

186
Q

diagnose aseptic meningitis

A

CSF count shows 20-1000 cells, predominantly lymphocytes (immunity and antibodies), some PMNs
EEG and MRI are normal
differential diagnosis

187
Q

brain abscesses

A

pus filled swelling in brain

188
Q

pus filled swelling in brain

A

brain abscesses

189
Q

causes brain abscesses

A

Contiguous focus spreads thru sinus tract
dental disease
Hematogenous bacteremic spread from distant site such as pneumonia
Endocarditis (spread to brain)
Trauma to brain

190
Q

agent of brain abscesses

A

polymicrobial or fungal like asperigillus

191
Q

symptoms brain abscesses

A

headache, mental status change, neurological changes including seizures, fever

192
Q

treat brain abscesses

A

empirical antibiotics (bacterial) with flagyl and rocephin
Decadron IV to prevent edema
Anti-seizure meds
Neurosurgical opinion if abscess is > 2.5 cm surgery may be necessary

193
Q

brain abscesses cases

A

2,500 cases per year in US

194
Q

epidural abscesses

A

Infection forms in epidural space between skull bones and brain lining = bones of spine and lining membrane of spinal cord

195
Q

epidural abscesses risk

A

Persistent sinus or ear infection or injury to head
Bone infection
Blood infection
Recent surgical procedure on back

196
Q

epidural abscesses symptoms

A

headache, fever, changes in consciousness, vomiting

197
Q

treatment epidural abscesses

A

Needs to be treated immediately- a true surgical emergency-either drain or remove the abscess
Spine stabilization needed

198
Q

epidural abscesses agent

A

Staph aureus

199
Q

complications epidural abscesses

A

Meningitis
Abscess of spinal cord
Long term back pain
Irreversible damage to your brain or nervous system, including paralysis

200
Q

encephalitis cause

A

viral infection
(airborne or mosquito borne)

201
Q

encephalitis symptoms

A

temporal lobe changes, stiff neck and fever to severe confusion, hallucinations, seizures, muscle weakness, speech problems
250,000+ cases

202
Q

diagnose encephalitis

A

Lumbar puncture shows cell count of 200 RBCs and 600 WBCs with predominant lymphocytosis 75%

203
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

A

vacuolation on MRI, mad cow, elevated Tau proteins on CSF (or 14.3.3 protein marker on western blot), familial

204
Q

rabies

A

virus (nonsegmented negative strand RNA-Rhabdoviridae family) attacks the CNS and salivary glands

205
Q

GI tract

A

99% are obligate anaerobes that are capable of fermenting indigestible carbs to short chain fatty acids
H. pylori survives (stomach acid) and is the most common cause of stomach and duodenal ulcers

206
Q

toxemia

A

rapid onset of symptoms following ingestion of cotaminated food or drink. There is lack of fever and absence of fecal leukocytes, infections take longer to show symptoms, often S. aereus ( gram +, aerobic) enterotoxins, most common cause of food poisoning in US

207
Q

E. coli

A

gram - anaerobe, facultative
Enterotoxigenic e coli produce cholera like toxin,
MacConkey’s agar, ELISA test
Shiga like e coli have acquired genes to express shiga toxins which cause cell death, edema and hemorrhage leading to hemorrhagic colitis and can extend to kidneys
Facultative, gram -, motile rod shaped bacteria
Avoid antibiotics bc it kills the bacteria releasing more toxin and increasing chance of hemolytic uremic syndrome HUS

208
Q

Transverse Myelitis

A

Inflammation of spinal cord.
rare but serious
sensory probs, weakness in legs/arms, bladder and bowel probs

209
Q

most common food poisoning

A

staph aureus

210
Q

giardia lamblia

A

most common intestinal protozoan parasite with trophic and cystic stages. Resistant to chlorination.
Flagellate with both trophic and cystic stage (cysts are resistant o chlorination)
Ingested organisms colonize the duodenum and jejunum where they adhere to epithelium of microvillus
Small intestine

211
Q

most common intestinal parasite/protozoan

A

giardia lamblia

212
Q

Antimicrobial associated pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clostridium difficile (anaerobic gram + spore forming rod) is present in the intestines of 5% humans. Resistant to most broad spectrum antibiotics
hospitals

213
Q

Inflammatory gastroenteritis

A

caused by salmonella
(over 1 million cases/yr but less vigorous response than shigella) and shigella (more toxic - prods toxin that enters host cell cytoplasm and stops protein synthesis) and campylobacter
E. coli

214
Q

inflammatory gastroenteritis agent

A

salmonella

215
Q

Aspiration pneumonia

A

gram - bacilli
triple threat
Aspiration of oral secretions caused by mouth flora - regurgitation. Foreign body post obstructive pneumonia, assoc w tumors

216
Q

agent of aspiration pneumonia

A

gram - bacilli

217
Q

Cavitary pneumonia

A

gas filled cavities in lung (Rare complication of severe pneumonia in which lung tissue breaks up and replaced by cavity which fills with gas)

218
Q

causes cavitary pneumonia

A

Mycobacterium like m. tuberculosis (aerobic, bacillus with high cell wall content of lipids - acid fast stain)

219
Q

acid fast

A

mycobacterium

220
Q

diagnose and treatment cavitary pneumonia

A

PPD or gold serum assay. Treat with INH and rifampin

221
Q

contagious pneumonia

A

community acquired pneumonia - most common cause of death from infection in US - often viral (RSV, covid)
CURB 65 score to admit ppl to hospital
NOT pneumococcus or legionella

222
Q

most common cause of death from infection in US

A

contagious pneumonia

223
Q

contagious pneumonia agents

A

virus, NOT legionella or pneumococcus

224
Q

outbreak

A

compared case number for time period year to year

225
Q

common source

A

DNA fingerprints from gel electrophoresis with identical banding patterns

226
Q

establish case definition

A

outlined an incubation period and common symptoms, for certain demographic of people who tested positive

227
Q

hypothesis generation

A

used control group (2 controls for every case matched by age and gender) as standard for comparison who may have ingested the contained product. found alfalfa sprouts as common food ingested week before onset symptoms

228
Q

transmission leprosy

A

direct contact and airborne

229
Q

lobar pneumonia

A

air sacs fill with pus and other liquid to impact lobes of the lungs and decrease efficiency
Streptococcus pneumoniae is most common

230
Q

lobar pneumonia agent

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

231
Q

VAP

A

86% nosocomial assoc w ventilators in ICU
250k - 300k cases / year
Higher mortality by pseudomonas aeruginosa, acinetobacter

232
Q

lung abscesses

A

necrosis of lung tissue > 2 cm w most primary relating to existing parenchymal disease (kidney disorders w numerous cysts enlarge in both kidneys reducing function ability)
High % anaerobes

233
Q

chronic bronchiectasis

A

dilation of bronchial tubes with destruction of smooth muscle and elastic tissue. the abnormal widening of the airways leads to build up of excess mucus, leaving the lungs vulnerable to infection. form of COPD.
Treatment includes inhaled steroids, chronic antibiotics and pulmonary hygiene

neuro 2 (5 decks)

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