Infectious Diseases (5-10%) Complete Flashcards

1
Q

CNS Infections: Meningitis vs Encephalitis

Meningitis
Predominantly starts with ______, ______, and ______ and can get ______ later into the course.

Encephalitis
Predominantly starts with _____ and _____ and can get _____, _____

A

CNS Infections: Meningitis vs Encephalitis

Meningitis
It predominantly starts with headache, neck stiffness, and fever and can get altered LOC later into the course.

Encephalitis
Predominantly starts with altered LOC/mental status and fever and can get seizures, focal neurological
changes associated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Meningitis:
Most sensitive sign?

A

Jolt accentuation – high sensitivity (97% in one study)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Meningitis:
Most specific sign?

A

Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s signs – high specificity, poor sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Basal skull meningitis:

– _________, _______ signs

– Organisms: Think _____, _____, _____, _____, _____

A

Basal skull meningitis:

– + CN palsies, long-tract signs

– Think TB (LEPTOMENINGEAL ENHANCEMENT), Listeria, Cryptococcus, Syphilis, Lyme in correct host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Suspicion for Bacterial Meningitis:

When to do CT head?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Individual CSF predictors for bacterial meningitis each with > 99% certainty:

  1. Glucose _____________
  2. CSF: blood glucose _____________
  3. Protein _____________
  4. WBC _____________
  5. PMNs _____________
A

Individual CSF predictors for bacterial meningitis each with > 99% certainty:

  1. Glucose < 1.9 mmol/L
  2. CSF: blood glucose < 0.23
  3. Protein > 2.2 g/L
  4. WBC > 2000 cells/mL
  5. PMNs > 1180 cells/mL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Meningitis:

Age 18-50:
Common bacterial pathogens?
Antimicrobial Rx - Empiric?

Age > 50 or immunocompromised:
Common bacterial pathogens?
Antimicrobial Rx - Empiric?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Meningitis: Antibiotic, and treatment duration

  1. S. pneumoniae?
  2. N.meningitidis
    H. Flu
  3. L.monocytogenes
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Steroids in Meningitis

Only helpful in __________

Dose?

Do not start if _____________

A

Only helpful in S. pneumoniae (50% reduction in mortality/morbidity)

Dose? Dexamethasone 10 mg IV q6h for 4 days PRIOR TO or WITH the first dose of antibiotics

Do not start if antibiotics have already been given to the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Neisseria meningitis – CHEMOprophylaxis

Who?
____________
____________
____________
____________
____________
____________

When?
____________

What to give?
____________
OR ____________
OR ____________

A

Who?
Household contacts
– Persons sharing sleeping arrangements
– Persons who have direct nose/mouth contamination w oral/nasal secretions (Kissing)
– Children and staff in childcare or nursery
HCWs who have had intensive unprotected contact (without wearing a mask) (eg. intubating, resuscitating, closely examining the oropharynx)
– Airline passengers sitting immediately on either side of the case (but not across the aisle) when total time on aircraft > 8 hours

When?
– Within 10 days usually

What to give?
– Ciprofloxacin 500mg PO X 1 dose (increasing resistance concern)
– OR ceftriaxone 250mg IM X 1 dose
– OR rifampin 600mg PO BID X 2d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

N. meningitis – IMMUNOprophylaxis

Who?
____________
____________
____________
____________

What to give?
____________

A

Who?
– Household contacts of a case of invasive
meningococcal disease (IMD)
– Persons sharing sleeping arrangements with a case of IMD
– Persons who have direct nose/mouth contamination
with oral/nasal secretions of a case with IMD
– Children and staff in contact with a case of IMD in
childcare or nursery school facilities

What to give?
– Meningococcal vaccine (Men-C-ACYW or 4CMenB can be considered)
- If more than one year since the last meningococcal vaccine, then vaccinate again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

IE Workup:
Diagnostic workup
– at least ___ sets of blood cultures prior to _______
– Initial ____ for everyone

A

Diagnostic workup
– at least 2 sets of blood cultures prior to antibiotics (3 in 2015 IE statement)
– Initial TTE for everyone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

TEE
Class I indications?

A
  • TTE nondiagnostic or
  • IE complications suspected or
  • intracardiac leads

(TEE widely used these are just the Class I – eg consider if staphylococcal, enterococcal, fungal infections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

IE – Diagnosis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

IE – Antibiotic Treatment:

  • MSSA native valve
  • MSSA Prosthetic valve
  • MRSA native valve
  • MRSA prosthetic valve
  • CNST native
  • CNST prosthetic
  • Streptococcus viridans

Duration of treatment?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In patients with _____-sided IE caused by Streptococcus, E. faecalis, S. aureus, or CNST deemed stable by the multi-D team on IV antibiotics
– ____ before the switch to oral therapy
– Follow-up ____ can be performed 1-3 days before the completion of the abx course

A

In patients with left-sided IE caused by Streptococcus, E. faecalis, S. aureus, or CNST deemed stable by the multi-D team on IV antibiotics
– TEE before the switch to oral therapy
– Follow-up TEE can be performed 1-3 days before the completion of the abx course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Infective Endocarditis:
CLASS I Surgical Indications

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

IE – Class II Surgical Indications

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

IE - Prophylaxis;

Patient population
______________________ (Not indicated for ______)
______________________
______________________
______________________

Procedures
______________________
______________________
______________________
NOT FOR __/___/___ procedures

Regimen?
______________________

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CAP - Pathogens:

Most common?

Severe disease?

Post-influenza pneumonia?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CAP – Outpatient Treatment

  1. Healthy outpatients without comorbidities or risk factors
    ________________________
    ________________________
    ________________________
  2. Outpatients with comorbidities
    ________________________
    ________________________
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CAP – Inpatient Treatment

  1. Inpatients, non-severe, without risk factors for MRSA or PsA: _________________
  2. Inpatients, severe CAP, without risk factors for MRSA or PsA: _________________
  3. Aspiration Pneumonia
  4. What about Legionella?
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CAP:

  1. Duration of treatment? _______________
  2. Steroids? _______________
  3. Influenza?
    – __________ if hospitalized regardless of the duration of symptoms
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

HAP/VAP:
Empirical Treatment? ___________________
Duration of treatment? ___________________

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Diarrhea: Diagnosis
• Stool cultures:
for __________, __________, __________, __________, __________ in patient with diarrhea AND:
– __________
– __________
– __________
– __________
– __________ or __________
– (__________ in large volume rice water stools)

A

• Stool cultures:
for Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, Yersinia, STEC in patient with diarrhea AND:
– Fever
– Bloody or mucoid stools
– Severe abdominal pain
– Sepsis
– Immunocompromise or outbreak exposure
– (V. Cholerae in large volume rice water stools)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Diarrhea: Diagnosis
C. difficile testing in patients with:
– __________
– Work in __________/__________ or __________
– __________ syndrome
– __________ flare

A

C. difficile testing in patients with:
– Recent antibiotics
– Work in healthcare/LTC or prison
– Compatible syndrome
– IBD flare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Diarrhea: Diagnosis
Blood cultures in patients with:
– __________
– __________
– Suspicion of __________

A

Blood cultures in patients with:
– Immunocompromise
– Sepsis
– Suspicion of enteric fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Diarrhea: Diagnosis
Stool for Ova and Parasites in patients with:
– Diarrhea __________ days
– __________
– __________
– *Increased yield if ordered __________
– Repeat up to __________ to increase yield if high suspicion

A

Stool for Ova and Parasites in patients with:
– Diarrhea ≥ 14 days
– Immunocompromise e.g. HIV
– Travel
Increased yield if ordered daily x 3 days
– Repeat up to 3x to increase yield if high suspicion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Diarrhea - Treatment
• Empiric therapy in adults with bloody diarrhea not recommended UNLESS:
1. _________________
2. _________________
3. _________________

A

Empiric therapy in adults with bloody diarrhea not recommended UNLESS:
1. Sick immunocompetent patients with bacillary dysentery (frequent scant bloody stools, abdominal pain, tenesmus, fevers), suggestive of Shigella
2. Recent travel with high fever (≥ 38.5) and/or sepsis
3. Sick immunocompromised patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Diarrhea - Treatment:
Empiric antibiotic choice: __________ or __________

A

Empiric antibiotic choice: ciprofloxacin or azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Diarrhea - Treatment:

First choice:

  1. Campylobacter: _____________________
  2. S. enterica typhi or paratyphi: _____________________
  3. Shigella: _____________________
  4. Vibrio cholerae: _____________________
  5. Yersina enterocolitica: _____________________
  6. Non-typhoidal S. enterica, STEC (inc. O157): _________
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

C. difficile Infection (CDI) Diagnosis
Testing:
– Stool ____________ test - combinations
• ____________
• ____________
– ____________ on colonoscopy

A

Testing:
– Stool toxin test - combinations
• EIA for GDH, toxin
• NAAT PCR for toxin
– Pseudomembranes on colonoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

C. difficile Infection (CDI) Diagnosis
Criteria for severe C. difficile:
– WBC _______ OR serum Cr ____ x premorbid level

A

Criteria for severe C. difficile:
– WBC > 15 OR serum Cr 1.5 x premorbid level

– Other risk factors: Age > 65, immunosuppression, T > 38, Albumin < 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

C. difficile Infection (CDI) Diagnosis:
Fulminant C. difficile:
– ________, ________, ________, ________, toxic megacolon (colon dilation >__________)

A

Fulminant C. difficile:
– Sepsis, Shock, Ileus, perforation, toxic megacolon (colon dilation >6cm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

C. difficile Infection
First Episode Treatment:

1.1st episode (non-fulminant)
_______________________
_______________________

  1. 1st episode (Fulminant)
    _______________________
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

C. difficile Infection Recurrence Treatment:

  1. First relapse (Within _______ months of previous infection)
    _______________________
    _______________________
    _______________________
  2. ≥2nd relapse
    _______________________
    _______________________
    _______________________
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Typhoid is common in __________ Asia.

Presentation includes __________, “__________ spots”, __________ pain and can develop __________.

__________ is the most common presentation but can present with __________.

The preferred treatment, particularly in inpatients, is __________.

A

Typhoid is common in southeast Asia.

Presentation: includes fever, “rose spots”, abdominal pain, and can develop hepatosplenomegaly.

Constipation is the most common presentation but can present with diarrhea.

The preferred treatment, particularly in inpatients, is ceftriaxone.

38
Q

Intraabdominal Infections (IAIs)

• __________ is #1 principle of management
– _________ if possible, _______ otherwise.
– Collections _____ cm or smaller can be attempted to be managed with antibiotics alone

• Initial antimicrobial coverage
Community-acquired, no previous hospitalization (Organisms: _____, _____) ->
1. __________ or __________ PLUS __________
(OR)
2. Amox-Clav

– Healthcare-associated or critically ill (Organisms: __________) ->
1. __________ OR
2. __________ OR
3. __________ OR
4. __________ PLUS __________

• __________ coverage for healthcare-associated or severe biliary infection

A
  1. Intraabdominal Infections (IAIs)

• Adequate source control is #1 principle of management
– Percutaneous if possible, laparotomy otherwise.
– Collections 3cm or smaller can be attempted to be managed with antibiotics alone

• Initial antimicrobial coverage
Community-acquired, no previous hospitalization (E. coli, B. fragilis) ->
1. Ceftriaxone or Ciprofloxacin PLUS metronidazole
(OR)
2. Amox-Clav

– Healthcare-associated or critically ill (Pseudomonas coverage) ->
Piptazo, meropenem, ceftazidime OR cipro PLUS metronidazole

• Enterococcal coverage for healthcare-associated or severe biliary infection

39
Q

Genitourinary Infections:
UTI:
Do NOT treat asymptomatic bacteriuria UNLESS:
– _________________________
– _________________________

A

Do NOT treat asymptomatic bacteriuria UNLESS:
– Pregnant
– Urologic procedure with mucosal transection

40
Q

UTI – Empiric Treatment

First-line treatments and duration:
1. Acute Simple Cystitis
________________________
________________________
________________________

  1. Complicated UTI OR Pyelonephritis (Oral)
    ________________________
    ________________________
  2. Complicated UTI OR Pyelonephritis (IV)
    ________________________
    ________________________
A
41
Q

Prostatitis:

• Do not treat if asymptomatic unless _____________, _______ or _______

A

• Do not treat if asymptomatic unless elevated PSA, planning for biopsy or infertility

42
Q

Prostatitis:

Acute Prostatitis:
Presentation? _____________
Diagnosis? _____________
Antibiotics? _____________
Duration of antibiotics? _____________

Chronic Prostatitis:
Presentation? _____________
Diagnosis? _____________
Antibiotics? _____________
Duration of antibiotics? _____________

A

Acute Prostatitis:
Presentation: Fever, dysuria, pelvic pain, tender, and
edematous prostate
Diagnosis: – Obtain urinalysis + culture prior to abx
– Abx – empiric piptazo, 3rd gen ceph, FQ
– Duration 2-4 weeks

• Chronic:
Presentation? Subtle. Recurrent UTIs, obstructive symptoms.
Diagnosis: – Ucx with prostatic massage
– Abx – FQ or TMP-SMX based on susceptibility
– Duration
4-6 weeks if FQ
8-12 weeks if other abx

43
Q

Gonorrhea/Chlamydia Treatment:

Gonorrhea Treatment:
Anogenital or Pharyngeal: _____________
For DGI: _______________________________
Test of cure ______ weeks after treatment for all infections (PHAC)

Chlamydia Treatment
Anogenital or Pharyngeal: _____________
For LGV: ___________________________ for ___ days
Test of cure:

A

Gonorrhea Treatment:
Anogenital or Pharyngeal:
Ceftriaxone 250mg IM x 1 (Alt: Cefixime 800mg PO x 1)
PLUS
Azithromycin 1g PO x 1 (Alt: Doxycycline 100mg PO BID x 7d)
For DGI: Ceftriaxone 1-2g IM/IV q24h x 7 days
Test of cure 2 weeks after treatment for all infections (PHAC)

Chlamydia Treatment
Anogenital or Pharyngeal:
Azithromycin 1g PO x 1 OR Doxycycline 100mg PO x 7 days
For LGV: Doxycycline 100mg PO BID x 21 days
Test of cure:
Not routinely done

Indications for TOC (3-4w after
treatment) :
- LGV
- Unclear compliance
- Alternative regimen
- Pregnancy

44
Q

Syphilis treatment:

  1. PRIMARY, SECONDARY, EARLY LATENT: __________
  2. LATE LATENT or UNKNOWN DURATION, TERTIARY
    SYPHILIS: __________
  3. NEUROSYPHILIS: __________
A

PRIMARY, SECONDARY, EARLY LATENT:
Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 mU IM x 1

LATE LATENT or UNKNOWN DURATION, TERTIARY
SYPHILIS: Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 mU IM weekly x3

NEUROSYPHILIS: Aqueous penicillin 4mU q4 hours IV x 14 days

45
Q

Syphilis Test Interpretation

A
46
Q

Skin and Soft Tissue Infections (SSTIs)

PURULENT: Organism?

NON-PURULENT
• Impetigo: Most often caused by ____________________

• Erysipelas: Most often caused by _________________, infecting _______________

• Cellulitis: Most often caused by _______________, infecting epidermis + dermis + SC tissue

• Necrotizing fasciitis

A

PURULENT: Staphylococcus aureus majority of the times

NON-PURULENT
• Impetigo: Most often caused by S. aureus

• Erysipelas: Most often caused by GAS, infecting epidermis + dermis

• Cellulitis: Most often caused by GAS, infecting epidermis + dermis + SC tissue

• Necrotizing fasciitis

47
Q

Purulent (Furuncle/Carbuncle/Abscess)
– __________ and __________ should be performed

Empiric treatment:
1. Moderate infection?

  1. Severe infection?
A

Purulent (Furuncle/Carbuncle/Abscess)
– I&D and C&S should be performed

48
Q

Managing SSTIs: Non-Purulent

Non-Purulent (Impetigo/Erysipelas/Cellulitis) – Think _____________

Antibiotic treatment:
1. Mild severity

  1. Moderate severity

Duration of antibiotics:
Generally, ____ days, extend up to ___ days if no improvement at completion (not if simply persistent _________)

A

Non-Purulent (Impetigo/Erysipelas/Cellulitis) – Think Strep!

49
Q

Necrotizing Fasciitis (NF):

Presentation? ___________________________________________
First step? ___________________________________________
Empiric antibiotics treatment? __________________________
– Consider ________ if shock or pre-operative

Types? _________________________________________________
_________________________________________________

A
50
Q

Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS):
Organism: _________, sometimes __________ – tampons, nasal packing

Diagnostic Criteria?

Management?
• __________ and __________ precautions*
• Antibiotics: __________ PLUS __________
• Chemoprophylaxis – __________ x __________days (__________ if PCN allergy)*

A

Organism: Group A Strep, sometimes S. aureus – tampons, nasal packing

51
Q

Osteomyelitis

Patient Population and Organisms
All patients: ____________________________________________

Foreign body, prosthetic infection: _____, _____

Diabetes: _____, _____, _____

Immunocompromised: _____, _____, _____

A

Patient Population Organism

All patients = S. aureus

Foreign body, prosthetic infection = CNST, Cutibacterium acnes

Nosocomial = Pseudomonas, Enterobacterales, Candida

Diabetes = Streptococcus, Gram-negative bacilli, anaerobes

Immunocompromised = Candida, Aspergillus, Mycobacterium

52
Q

Non-Vertebral Osteomyelitis (w/o hardware)

  • Empiric Therapy?
  • Duration of treatment?
    __________ weeks from the last debridement if a residual infection
    __________ post complete source control
A

Empiric Therapy?
Ceftriaxone +/- Vancomycin (if MRSA risk factors) +/- Metronidazole (if sacral). Tailor based on organism if possible

Duration?
6 weeks from the last debridement if residual infection
48 hours post complete source control

53
Q

Native Vertebral Osteomyelitis

• Etiology? ___________

• Microbiology: – Most common?

Diagnosis?
– ______________________________
– ______________________________
– ______________________________
- *If S. aureus bacteremia in prior 3 months, __________

Treatment:
1. if no sepsis/neuro compromise?
2. Empiric treatment?
3. Duration?
4. if neuro deficits, spinal cord compression,
progression/recurrence despite appropriate
antibiotics. Next step?

A

Native Vertebral Osteomyelitis

• Etiology: hematogenous seeding disc à bone

• Microbiology: – Most common: S. aureus*

Diagnosis:
– Blood cultures (50% Pos if S. aureus), biopsy
– ESR, CRP (sensitivity 94-100%)
– MRI (SN 97%, Sp 93%)
- *If S. aureus bacteremia in prior 3 months, biopsy likely not needed

Treatment:
Hold ABx until biopsy result if no sepsis/neuro compromise (dx 50-60% of time with 1st bx)
– Empiric: ceftriaxone + vancomycin
– Duration: 6 weeks
Surgery if neuro deficits, spinal cord compression, progression/recurrence despite appropriate antibiotics

54
Q

Prosthetic joint infection?

Empiric treatment? ______________, add _______ for staphylococcal

When to remove the prosthesis?

Duration of treatment?

A
55
Q

What type of foot ulcer is it?
– Neuropathic: __________, ________ appearance, ___________ ulcer, ________ pain, ____________ foot

– Arterial: _______ malleolus, ________, _______ pulses, ____________ foot

– Venous: _______ malleolus, ______ margins, ______________ depth, _____ pain, __________ dermatitis/________________

A

What type of foot ulcer is it?
– Neuropathic: Pressure points, punched-out appearance, deep ulcer, minimal pain, warm and dry foot

– Arterial: Lateral malleolus, dry and punctate, decreased pulses, cold and dry foot

– Venous: Medial malleolus, irregular margins, shallow depth, mildly painful, venous stasis dermatitis/lipodermatosclerosis

56
Q

Diabetic Foot Wounds

Antibiotic Management:

• Mild-Mod, no recent Abx: target organism: __________ (ABX: _________)

• Severe Infection: _________ coverage (ABX: ____________)

• Duration: Dependent on ________: ________ weeks

• If source control (e.g. amputation) can ________

A

Diabetic Foot Wounds

Antibiotic Management
• Mild-Mod, no recent Abx: target aerobic GPC (E.g Cefazolin)

• Severe Infection: Broad spectrum coverage (E.g. CFtx + Metronidazole)

• Duration: Dependent on severity/bone involvement: 3-6 weeks

• If source control (e.g. amputation) can stop Abx

57
Q

HIV – Initiation of ARV
ARV recommended for ________ with HIV, regardless of _______ to __________________ associated with HIV infection

ARV regimen should include ________ PLUS
______ OR
______ OR
______

First-line therapy?

A

ARV recommended for all individuals with HIV, regardless of CD4 count to reduce morbidity and mortality associated with HIV infection

ARV regimen should include TWO NRTIs PLUS
INSTI (Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitor) OR
NNRTI OR
PI

58
Q

HIV – OI Primary Prophylaxis:

PJP:

When to start?
Preferred agent?

Dapsone (check ______)
Dapsone OK for _____ allergy, NOT OK for ______________ to TMP-SMX

SJS/TEN is clear contraindication to re-challenge/continuation – give ____________

Bactrim and Pregnancy?

Continue prophylaxis until CD4 count stabilizes _____ for at least __________

A

When to start? CD4 < 200
Preferred agent? TMP/SMX 1 DS PO daily

Dapsone (check G6PD)
Dapsone OK for sulfa allergy, NOT OK for SJS/TEN to TMP-SMX

SJS/TEN is clear contraindication to rechallenge/continuation – give atovaquone

Prophylaxis with TMP-SMX is recommended during pregnancy – supplement with folic acid during the first trimester (NT defects)

Continue prophylaxis until CD4 count stabilizes >200 for at least 3 months

59
Q

HIV – OI Primary Prophylaxis:

Toxoplasma (if Toxo IgG positive):
When to start?
Preferred agent?

MAC:
When to start?
Preferred agent?

A

Toxoplasma (if Toxo IgG positive):
When to start? CD4 < 100
Preferred agent? TMP/SMX 1 DS PO daily

MAC: NO LONGER RECOMMENDED

60
Q

HIV – OI Treatment

PJP:
Moderate – Severe PJP: PaO2 _____ or A-a gradient _____

Preferred Rx? ______ 15-20mg/kg ____ x _____ days (any severity)

PLUS (FOR SEVERE ONLY): ___________

ALTERNATIVE RX: Moderate to Severe:
_____________
_____________

ALTERNATIVE RX: Mild to Moderate:
______________
______________
______________

Check G6PD prior to using ______ or ______

A

Moderate – Severe PJP:
PaO2 < 70 or A-a gradient ≥ 35mmHg

Preferred Rx? TMP-SMX 15-20mg/kg IV [TMP
component] x21 days (any severity)

PLUS (FOR SEVERE ONLY): Prednisone taper

ALTERNATIVE RX: Moderate to Severe
• Primaquine* + Clindamycin IV
• Pentamidine IV

ALTERNATIVE RX: Mild to Moderate
• Dapsone* + TMP
• Primaquine* + Clindamycin PO
• Atovaquone 750mg PO BID

Check G6PD prior to using dapsone or primaquine

61
Q

HIV – OI Treatment:

Toxoplasma: Preferred treatment?
MAC: Preferred treatment?

A

Toxoplasma: Preferred treatment? Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine (AI) x 6wk. NOT AVAILABLE IN CANADA SO WE USE TMP-SMX

MAC: Preferred treatment? Clarithromycin + ethambutol OR Azithromycin + ethambutol x12 mos

62
Q

HIV in Pregnancy:
All HIV + women contemplating pregnancy need ______ and _________ prior to conception

• Intra-partum care
– If VL > 1000 copies/mL (or unknown) near delivery, give _________ and recommend ____________
– If VL suppressed, _______________________

Post-partum care
– If maternal VL suppressed within 4 weeks of delivery: Infant given ___________________
– If maternal VL not suppressed at birth, infant given ___________________

A

All HIV + women contemplating pregnancy need ARV and undetectable VL prior to conception

• Intra-partum care
– If VL > 1000 copies/mL (or unknown) near delivery, give IV zidovudine and recommend scheduled C/S
– If VL suppressed, no increased risk of vaginal delivery

Post-partum care
– If maternal VL suppressed within 4 weeks of delivery: Infant given AZT x 4wks (zidovudine (AZT))
– If maternal VL not suppressed at birth, infant given presumptive 3-drug ART

63
Q

HIV, Pregnancy, and breastfeeding

A

Breastfeeding NOT recommended for mothers living with HIV in [US/Canada], as safe alternatives are available

64
Q

Preventing HIV: PrEP

Regimen?

A

TDF/FTC 1 tablet daily (Tenofovir disoproxil and emtricitabine)

65
Q

Preventing HIV: PEP (Post-exposure prophylaxis)

Start _______ within __________

Regimen? all for _____ days
- ___________________

A

Start as soon as possible, within 72hours

• Regimens – all for 21 days:
– TDF/FTC + Raltegravir
– TDF/FTC + Dolutegravir
– (TDF/FTC + Darunavir/ritonavir)

66
Q

TB

Updated Terminology:

Latent TB = ____________

Active TB = ____________

A

Latent TB = TB Infection

Active TB = TB Disease

67
Q

Latent TB – Diagnosis

• Two accepted tests: ____ and ____
• ____ can separate LTBI from active TB

TST – Tuberculin Skin Test:
• May be affected by BCG _____ infancy
• ___ patient visits
• Maybe (-) if ___________

IGRA – Interferon Gamma Release Assay:
• _____ affected by BCG
• Maybe (-) if ___________

A

Latent TB – Diagnosis

• Two accepted tests: TST and IGRA
• Neither can separate LTBI from active TB

TST – Tuberculin Skin Test:
• May be affected by BCG after infancy
• 2 patient visits
• Maybe (-) if immunosuppressed

IGRA – Interferon Gamma Release Assay:
• Not affected by BCG
• Maybe (-) if immunosuppressed

68
Q

TST Result and Situation in which reaction is considered positive
0-4mm: __________________
5mm:_____________________
> or equal to 10mm: ___________

A

0-4mm: Generally considered negative

69
Q

Latent TB – Treatment:

FIRST-LINE REGIMENS: __________________

SECOND LINE REGIMENS: __________________

A

FIRST-LINE REGIMENS:
Rifampin (4R), Daily, for 4 Months. Consider Rash, Drug Interactions

SECOND LINE REGIMENS:
Isoniazid (9H), Daily, 9 Months. Consider Hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy

70
Q

TB disease:
Total duration of treatment?

A

INTENSIVE PHASE (2 Months): RIPE
CONTINUATION PHASE (min 4 Months): INH/RMP

71
Q

Latent TB and HIV

• Preferred regimens?
– _____________________________ for ____ months
– _____________________________ for ____ months
– _____________________________ for ____ months

A

• Preferred regimens:
– 3HP: Weekly INH + Rifapentine for 3 months

– 3HR: Daily INH + Rifampin for 3 months

– (Alternative: INH x 6-9 months)

72
Q

Active TB and HIV

A
73
Q

Fever in Returned Traveler: Post-Travel:
• Timing of fever / clinical symptoms
in relation to international travel

– Short incubation periods < 2 weeks =
___________
___________
___________
___________
___________
___________

– Longer incubation periods > 2 weeks =
___________
___________
___________
___________
___________

A

– Short incubation periods < 2 weeks = Malaria, Dengue, Chikungunya, traveller’s diarrhea, viral URTI, influenza

– Longer incubation periods > 2 weeks = Malaria, TB, hepatitis, HIV, enteric fever due to Salmonella spp.

74
Q

Fever in Returned Traveler: Post-Travel:
• Pattern of fever
– Daily:
___________
___________
___________
___________

– Biphasic:
___________
___________

– Relapsing:
___________
___________

A

• Pattern of fever
– Daily: Malaria, traveler’s diarrhea, viral RTI, enteric fever

– Biphasic: Malaria, Dengue

– Relapsing: Malaria, enteric fever

75
Q

Malaria – Diagnosis
Species:

• Plasmodium falciparum
– Can be severe
– Present within ___________
– Infects RBCs of ______ stages

• P. ovale and P. vivax
– May present ______ due to ________ in liver

A

Malaria – Diagnosis
Species:

• Plasmodium falciparum
– Can be severe
– Present within 3 months
– Infects RBCs of all stages

• P. ovale and P. vivax
– May present years later due to hypnozoites in liver

76
Q

Malaria – Diagnosis
Diagnostic Techniques:

  1. ____________________ x ___, separated by at least __________ over 24 hour period
  2. ____________
    highest Sensitivity for ____________
A

Malaria – Diagnosis
Diagnostic Techniques:

Thick and thin blood smear x3, separated by at least 6 hours over 24 hour period

Rapid detection test (RDT)
highest Sensitivity for P. falciparum

77
Q

Malaria – Management:

Treatment of complicated Malaria?

Treatment to choose for uncomplicated P. falciparum Malaria?

Treatment to choose for uncomplicated
NON-P. falciparum Malaria?

If P. vivax or P. ovale, add _______ (check ___________ first) to treat the hypnozoite stage

A

Malaria – Management:

Treatment of complicated Malaria?
IV artesunate X 48h then PO
• Atovaquone-proguanil OR
• Doxycycline OR
• Clindamycin

Treatment to choose for uncomplicated P. falciparum Malaria?
CR (most common) Atovaquone-proguanil

Treatment to choose for uncomplicated
NON-P. falciparum Malaria?
CS (most common) Chloroquine

If P. vivax or P. ovale, add primaquine (check G6PD level first) to treat hypnozoite stage

78
Q

Candidemia management:
C. albicans/dubliniensis/tropicalis: Choose?
C. glabrata: Choose?

Management:
• Stable, no recent azole exposure → ________
• Unstable, neutropenic, or recent azole exposure → ________
• Pregnancy → ________
• CNS infections → __________

Duration:
Treat for _____ weeks from first negative blood culture (if no metastatic focus)

A

Candidemia management:
C. albicans/dubliniensis/tropicalis: Choose? Fluconazole
C. glabrata: Choose? Echinocandins

Management:
• Stable, no recent azole exposure →fluconazole
• Unstable, neutropenic, or recent azole exposure → echinocandin
• Pregnancy → amphotericin B
• CNS infections → amphotericin B +/-flucytosine

Duration:
Treat for two weeks from first negative blood culture (if no metastatic focus)

79
Q

Invasive aspergillosis:

Opportunistic infection seen in _______________

Diagnosis using _________, ________ or ______

Rx: _______
Duration:_________

A

Invasive aspergillosis:

Opportunistic infection seen in neutropenia/ cellular immunocompromise

Diagnosis using imaging (CT chest), indirect tests (galactomannan of serum and sputum), or direct tests (fungal culture or pathology)

Rx: Voriconazole x ≥6 weeks or longer

80
Q

Monkeypox Vaccination:

Indication for pre-exposure vaccination?
Indication for post-exposure vaccination?

A
81
Q

Lyme Disease - Dx

A
82
Q

Lyme Disease Management Pearls
• Do not test ________ patients

• Erythema migrans – _____ diagnosis, no need for ______

• No Lyme diagnosis without _________

• CNS Lyme disease (meningitis, radiculoneuritis, mono neuritis multiplex. C palsy, spinal cord inflammation) – Diagnosis by _____________

• Screen patients for Lyme disease if admitted for ________ in an appropriate epidemiologic setting

• Consider ___________ especially if ongoing fevers while on antibiotics

A

Lyme Disease Management Pearls
• Do not test asymptomatic patients

• Erythema migrans – clinical diagnosis, no need for serology

• No Lyme diagnosis without positive testing from an accredited reference lab (ie. Public Health Ontario)

• CNS Lyme disease (meningitis, radiculoneuritis, mononeuritis multiplex. C palsy, spinal cord inflammation) – Serum antibody testing (not PCR or culture of CSF)

• Screen patients for Lyme disease if admitted for acute myocarditis/pericarditis in an appropriate epidemiologic setting. Consider the need for admission (e.g. high grade HB, PR over 300, myopericarditis, symptomatic bradycardia)

• Consider coinfection (Babesia, Anaplasma), especially if ongoing fevers while on antibiotics

83
Q

Lyme Disease – Rx

A
84
Q

Immunomodulating Therapy Work-up

Workup before starting prolonged steroids?

A
85
Q

Line Infections

Treatment
– ______ line if possible – ALWAYS for ________, ________, ________ (ie. ________, ________, ________)

– Directed therapy x ____ d (minimum ___ days if S. aureus / Candida)

A

Line Infections

Treatment
– Remove line if possible – ALWAYS for S.aureus, Candida spp, complicated infection (ie. thrombophlebitis, IE, OM)

– Directed therapy x 7d (minimum 14 days if S. aureus / Candida)

86
Q

Prevention Strategies:
VAP
CLABSI (Central Line-associated Bloodstream Infection)
CAUTI

A
87
Q

Precautions

A
88
Q

Precautions (2)

A
89
Q

Tetanus prophylaxis in wound management

A
90
Q

• Rabies post-exposure prophylaxis

A
91
Q

Test

A

Test