Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IM Board Correlates > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Malaria: Most important parasitic disease in man

A

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Malaria: 72 hour cycle

A

P. Malariae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Malaria: Only Malignant Tertian

A

P. Falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Malaria: RBC Preference: All ages

A

P. Falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Malaria: RBC Preference: Old

A

P. Malariae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Malaria: Highest Parasitemia

A

P. Falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Malaria: Lowest Parasitemia

A

P. Malariae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Malaria: 0 Merozoites

A

P. Falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Malaria: Banana-Shaped Gametocytes

A

P. Falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Malaria: Large & Round Gametocytes

A

P. Vivax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Malaria: Compact Gametocytes

A

P. Malariae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Malaria: Small & Round Gametocytes

A

P. Ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Malaria: Recrudescence

A

P. Falciparum & P. Malariae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Malaria: Relapse

A

P. Vivax & P. Ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Malaria: Prone to Drug Resistance

A

P. Falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Malaria: Recurrence of symptoms after 2-4 week abatement

A

Recrudescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Malaria: Return of disease after apparent cessation (1-6 months) due to reactivation of hypnozoites

A

Relapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Malaria: Screen for presence of Malarial organisms

A

Thick smears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Malaria: Species identificaction

A

Thin smears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Malaria: Highest yield of thick and thin smears (Timing)

A

During fever or 2-3 hours after peak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Malaria: What do you call the Punctate granulation present in RBCs invaded by P. Ovale and P. Vivax

A

Schuffner dots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Malaria: Coarse granulations present in RBCs invaded by P. Falciparum

A

Maurer dots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Malaria: Fine dots present in RBCs invaded by P. Malariae

A

Ziemann dots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Malaria: Malarial or Durck granulomas

A

Cerebral Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Malaria: Acute Renal Failure in Malaria

A

Blackwater Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Malaria: Septic Shock in Malaria

A

Algid Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Malaria: Endemic: Palawan?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Malaria: Endemic: Mindoro?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Malaria: Endemic: Cebu?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Malaria: Endemic: Quezon?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Malaria: Endemic: Abra?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Malaria: Endemic: Kalinga?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Malaria: Endemic: Apayao?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Malaria: Endemic: Nueva Ecija?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Malaria: Endemic: Agusal Del Sur?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Malaria: Endemic Provinces?

A

Palawan, Kalinga, Apayao, Ifugao, Agusan del Sur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Typhoid Fever: Stepwise Fever, Relative Bradycardia, Bacteremia, Anorexia, Malaise

A

Week 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Typhoid Fever: Abdominal Symptoms, Rose Spots, Jaundice, Hepatosplenomegaly

A

Week 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Typhoid Fever: Bleeding, Ileitis, Pneumonia

A

Week 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Typhoid Fever: Recovery or Death

A

Week 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Typhoid Fever: Week 1

A

Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Typhoid Fever: Week 2

A

Urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Typhoid Fever: Rose Spots

A

Week 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Typhoid Fever: Stool

A

Week 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Typhoid Fever: Week 4

A

Bone Marrow (Always)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Typhoid Fever: Incubation period of Typhoid

A

5-21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Typhoid Fever: Week of Complications (Typhoid)

A

Week 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Typhoid Fever: Antibiotics used in the Philippines

A

Ceftriaxone (resistant), Quinolones (susceptible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Typhoid Fever: Eradice Salmonella carriage in the GB

A

Ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Leptospirosis : Most severe form

A

Weil Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Leptospirosis: Most common cause of death

A

Massive Pulmonary Hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Schistosomiasis: Penetrates Skin

A

S. Japonicum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Schistosomiasis: Affects Liver

A

S. Japonicum, C. Sinensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Schistosomiasis: Affects Lung

A

P. Westermani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Schistosomiasis: Raw Crab Ingestion

A

P. Westermani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Schistosomiasis: Raw Fish Ingestion

A

C. Sinensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Schistosomiasis: Intermediate Host: S. Japonicum

A

Snail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Schistosomiasis: Intermediate Host: P. Westermani

A

Snail and Crab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Schistosomiasis: Intermediate Host: C. Sinensis

A

Snail and Fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Schistosomiasis: Treatment

A

Praziquantel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Schistosomiasis: Systemic Hypersenstivity in Schistosomiasis

A

Katayama Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Schistosomiasis: Resembles Serum Sickness

A

Katayama Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Schistosomiasis: Endemic: Sorsogon

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Schistosomiasis: Endemic: Samar

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Schistosomiasis: Endemic: Leyte

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Schistosomiasis: Endemic: Occidental Mindoro

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Schistosomiasis: Endemic: Oriental Mindoro

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Schistosomiasis: All of Mindanao Except

A

Misamis Oriental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Anaerobic, Gram-Positive, Spore-Forming Rod

A

C. Tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Resembles a Tennis Racket

A

C. Tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Negri Bodies

A

Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Rabies Fatality

A

Early Brainstem Dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Presence of Microbes or Toxins in Blood

A

Septicemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

2 or more of the ff: Fever, Tachypnea, Tachycardia, Leukocytosis

A

SIRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

SIRS + Positive Blood Culture

A

Sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Sepsis with hypotension despite ADEQUATE fluid resuscitation

A

Septic Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Sepsis that does not respont to fluids or pressors

A

Refractory Septic Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Dysfunction of more than one organ, requiring interention to maintain homeostasis

A

MODS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

SIRS Criteria: Fever

A

> 38 or

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

SIRS Criteria: Tachypnea

A

> 24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

SIRS Criteria: Tachycardia

A

> 90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

SIRS Criteria: Leukocytosis

A

> 12 or 10% Bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Vancomycin

A

Bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A

Bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Penicillins

A

Bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

Bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Metronidazole

A

Bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Erythromycin

A

Bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Clindamycin

A

Bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Sulfamethoxazole

A

Bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Trimethoprim

A

Bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Tetracycline

A

Bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

Bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Sulfamethoxazole

A

Bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Static + Static

A

Cidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Side Effect: Pen G

A

Hypersensitivity

97
Q

Side Effect: Methicillin

A

Interstitial Nephritis

98
Q

Side Effect: Ampicillin

A

Pseudomembranous Colitis

99
Q

Side Effect: Ticarcillin/Piperacillin/Cabenicillin

A

Hypertension, Hypervolemia, Bleeding

100
Q

Drug Class: Methicillin

A

Penicillinase-Resistant

101
Q

Drug Class: Ampicillin

A

Extended Spectrum

102
Q

Drug Class: Pen G

A

Narrow Spectrum

103
Q

Drug Class: Anti-pseudomonal

A

Ticarcillin/Piperacillin/Cabenicillin

104
Q

Nafcillin

A

Staph Infections

105
Q

Pen V

A

Oral (Vunganga)

106
Q

Killed by Amoxicillin

A

H. Influenzae, E. Coli, L. Monocytogenes, P. Mirabilis, Salmonella, Enterococci (HELPS E)

107
Q

Most effective Cephalosporin against Pseudomonas

A

Ceftazidime

108
Q

Best Penetrance to BBB

A

Ceftriaxone

109
Q

Disulfiram Reaction

A

Cefamandole, Cefoperazone, Cefmetazole, Cefotetan

110
Q

High Bone Penetration

A

Cefazolin

111
Q

Surgical Prophylaxis

A

Cefazolin

112
Q

1st Gen. Cephalosporin Coverage

A

KEPs (Klebsiella, E. Coli, Proteus)

113
Q

2nd Gen. Cephalosporin Coverage

A

HEN has KEPs (KEPs + H. Influenza, Enterobacter Aerogenes Neisseria)

114
Q

Anti-Pseudomonal

A

Ceftazidime, Cefepime, Cefoperazone

115
Q

Side Effect: Chloramphenicol

A

Gray Baby Syndrome, Aplastic Anemia

116
Q

Side Effect: Tetracycline

A

Tooth Enamel Discoloration, Photosensitivity

117
Q

Side Effect: Erythromycin

A

Diarrhea, Cholestatic Jaundice

118
Q

Side Effect: Clindamycin

A

Pseudomembranous Colitis

119
Q

DOC for Vancomycin Resistance

A

Linezolid

120
Q

DOC for Resistant Gonorrhea

A

Spectinomycin

121
Q

Prototype Aminoglycoside, 30s

A

Gentamicin

122
Q

Aminoglycoside: Ocular Infections

A

Tobramycin

123
Q

Aminoglycoside: Widest spectrum of activity, Narrow Therapeutic Window

A

Amikacin

124
Q

Tx of Hepatic Encephalopathy

A

Neomycin

125
Q

Important Points on Aminoglycosides

A

Requires O2, Doesn’t work in Anaerobic conditions

126
Q

Sulfamethoxazole: MOA

A

Blocks Dihydropteroate Synthase

127
Q

Trimethoprim: MOA

A

Blocks Dihydrofolate Reductase

128
Q

Side Effect: TMP-SMX

A

SJS, TEN, Kernicterus

129
Q

Side Effect: Ciprofloxacin

A

Tendinitis

130
Q

Anaerobic Coverage: Quinolones

A

Moxifloxacin (Also for ocular infections)

131
Q

Side Effect: Gatifloxacin

A

Diabetes Mellitus

132
Q

Respiratory Quinolone

A

Levofloxacin

133
Q

UTI and GIT Infections (Quinolone)

A

Ciprofloxacin

134
Q

Isoniazid: MOA

A

Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

135
Q

Rifampicin: MOA

A

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

136
Q

Ethambutol: MOA

A

Inhibits arabinoglactan synthesis

137
Q

Static but Cidal on actively dividing MTB

A

Pyrazinamide (Most Hepatotoxic)

138
Q

Side Effect: Streptomycin

A

Nephrotoxic, Ototoxic

139
Q

Potent CYP450 Inhibitor (Anti-TB Drug)

A

Isoniazid

140
Q

Side Effect: Drug-Induced Lupus

A

Isoniazid

141
Q

Side Effect: Red-Orange Urine

A

Rifampicin

142
Q

Potent CYP450 Inducer (Anti-TB Drug)

A

Rifampicin

143
Q

Dapsone: MOA

A

Inhibits Folate Synthesis

144
Q

Side Effect: Dapsone

A

Methemoglobinemia

145
Q

Delays Onset of Dapsone Resistance

A

Rifampicin

146
Q

Side Effect: Clofazimine

A

Skin Discoloration

147
Q

Most Active Drug Against M. Leprae

A

Dapsone

148
Q

Silver bullet against gram negative bacteria (Anti-Pseudomonal)

A

Aztreonam

149
Q

Beta-Lactamase Inhibitor

A

Clavulanc Acid

150
Q

Side Effect: Metronidazole

A

Disulfiram reaction, metallic taste, CNS toxicity

151
Q

Side Effect: Nitrofurantoin

A

Pulmonary Fibrosis (UTI treatment)

152
Q

Drugs of Last Resort

A

Imipenem, Amikacin, Meropenem, Linezolid, Streptogramins, Vancomycin (I AM your Last Shot at Victory)

153
Q

Antifungal: Most Efficacious

A

Amphotericin B (Side Effect: Nephrotoxic)

154
Q

Antifungal: Treatment of Dermatophyton

A

Ketoconazole (Side Effect: Gynecomastia, CYP450 inhibitor)

155
Q

Antifungal: Treatment and Prophylaxis of Candidiasis and Cryptococcosis

A

Fluconazole

156
Q

Griseofulvin: MOA

A

Interferes with fungal microtubules

157
Q

Nystatin: Use

A

Candidiasis (Swish and Swallow or Suppository)

158
Q

Treatment of HSV and VZV

A

Acyclovir (Side effect: Crystalluria)

159
Q

CMV Treatment

A

Ganciclovir

160
Q

Requires activation by Thymidine Kinase

A

Acyclovir, Gancyclovir

161
Q

Treatment of HSV, VZV, and CMV

A

Foscarnet (Does not require activation)

162
Q

Influenza A Coverage

A

Amantadine

163
Q

Amantadine: MOA

A

Prevents viral uncoating

164
Q

Side effect: Amantadine

A

Cerebellar dysfunction, Livedo reticularis

165
Q

Oseltamivir: MOA

A

Neuraminidase inhibitor

166
Q

DOC: Influenza

A

Oseltamivir

167
Q

Treatment of Hepatitis B

A

Lamivudine

168
Q

Treatment of Hepatitis C and RSV

A

Ribavirin

169
Q

Pyrophosphate Analog

A

Foscarnet

170
Q

NRTI, Requires phosphorylation, Primary drug for HIV, Prevents vertical transmission of HIV

A

Zidovudine

171
Q

NNRTI, No phosphorylation required

A

Delavirdine

172
Q

Protease inhibitor

A

Indinavir

173
Q

Fusion inhibitor, Binds gp41 subunit

A

Enfuvirtide

174
Q

Binding inhibitor, CCR5 antagonist

A

Maraviroc

175
Q

Side Effect: Delavirdine

A

Hepatotoxicity

176
Q

Side Effect: Zidovudine

A

Lactic Acidosis

177
Q

Side Effect: Indinavir

A

Fat Redistribution Syndome, Hyperlipidemia, Insulin Resistance

178
Q

NNRTIs

A

Nevirapine, Efavirenz, Delavirdine

179
Q

Protease Inhibitor

A

All protease inhibitors end with-navir

180
Q

Primary drug for malaria, Prevents heme polymerization into hemozoin

A

Cholorquine

181
Q

Chloroquine-resistance, Severe malaria, DOC for pregnant patients with Malaria

A

Quinine

182
Q

Eradication of hypnozoites of P. Vivax and P. Ovale

A

Primaquine

183
Q

Chemoprophylaxis (Chloroquine-resistant)

A

Mefloquine, Malarone

184
Q

Side Effect: Chloroquine

A

Retinal Damage, Hearing Loss

185
Q

Side Effect: Quinine

A

Hypoglycemia, Blackwter Fever, Cinchonism

186
Q

Chemoprophylaxis (Multi-drug resistant)

A

Doxycycline

187
Q

DOC for malaria in the Philippines (P. Falciparum)

A

Co-artem

188
Q

Antiprotozoal Drugs: Diloxanide Furoate

A

Asymptomatic Cyst Carriers of E. Histolytica

189
Q

Antiprotozoal Drugs: Metronidazole

A

Amoebic Dysentery, Trichomoniasis, Bacterial Vaginosis

190
Q

Antiprotozoal Drugs: Nitazoxanide

A

Cryptosporidium Parvum Infection

191
Q

Antiprotozoal Drugs: TMP-SMX

A

Pneumocystis Jiroveci Pneumonia

192
Q

Antiprotozoal Drugs: Pyrimethamine-Sulfadiazine

A

Toxoplasmosis

193
Q

Antiprotozoal Drugs: Suramin + Melarsoprolol

A

African Sleeping Sickness

194
Q

Antiprotozoal Drugs: Nifurtimox

A

Chagas Disease

195
Q

Antiprotozoal Drugs: Stibogluconate

A

Leishmaniasis

196
Q

Mebendazole

A

Inhibits helminthic microtubules, Ovicidal

197
Q

Albendazole

A

Inhibits helminthic microtubules, Ovicidal and Larvicidal

198
Q

DOC for hydatid disease

A

Albendazole

199
Q

DOC for Filaria and Loa Loa SE: Filarial Fever

A

Diethylcarbamazine

200
Q

DOC for Strongyloides and Onchocerca SE: Mazzoti reaction

A

Ivermectin

201
Q

DOC for Enterobius

A

Pyrantel Pamoate

202
Q

DOC for Trichinosis

A

Thiabendazole

203
Q

DOC for Trematodes and Cestodes except echinococcosis

A

Praziquantel

204
Q

Niclosamide

A

Back-up drug to Praziquantel

205
Q

1 Primary Stain

A

Crystal Violet

206
Q

2 Mordant

A

Iodine

207
Q

3 Decolorizer

A

Acetone

208
Q

4 Counterstain

A

Safranin

209
Q

Acid Fast Stain

A

Mycobacteria (Too much Lipid)

210
Q

Dark Field Microscopy

A

Spirochetes (Too thin)

211
Q

None (Serologic Studies)

A

Mycoplasma (No cell wall)

212
Q

Silver Stain

A

Legionella (Poor uptake of counterstain)

213
Q

Inclusion Bodies

A

Chlamydiae (Intracellular)

214
Q

Giemsa/Tissue Stains

A

Ricketssiae (Intracellular)

215
Q

All bacteria have cell walls composed of Peptidoglycan Except

A

Mycoplasma Pneumoniae

216
Q

All gram-positive bacteria have NO endotoxin Except

A

Listeria Monocytogenes

217
Q

All bacterial capsules are composed of polysaccharide Except

A

Bacillus Anthracis

218
Q

All exotoxins are heat-labile Except

A

Staphylococcal Enterotoxin

219
Q

Obligate Aerobes

A

Nocardia, Bacillus Cereus, Neisseria, Pseudomonas, Bordetella, Legionelle, Brucella, Mycobacterium

220
Q

Facultative Anaerobes

A

Staph, Bacillus Anthracis, Corynebacterium, Listeria, Actinomyces, Mycoplasma

221
Q

Microaerophiles

A

Streptococcus, Spirochetes (Borellia, Leptospira Treponema), Campylobacter

222
Q

Obligate Anaerobes

A

Clostridium, Bacteroides

223
Q

Egg Yolk

A

Clostridium Perfringens

224
Q

Corynebacterium Diphtheriae

A

Tellurite

225
Q

Group D Streptococcus

A

Bile Esculin

226
Q

Staphylococci

A

Mannitol Salts

227
Q

N. Meningitidis, N. Gonorrhea (Sterile)

A

Chocolate Agar

228
Q

N. Gonorrhea (Non-Sterile)

A

Thayer Martin

229
Q

H Influenzae

A

Chocolate + X and V

230
Q

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

A

Lowenstein-Jensen

231
Q

Vibrio Cholerae

A

Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salts (TCBS)

232
Q

Bordetella Pertussis

A

Bordet-Gengou

233
Q

Legionella Pneumophila

A

Charcol-Yeast Extract

234
Q

Campylobacteria Jejuni

A

Skirrows

235
Q

Mycoplasma Pneumoniae

A

Eaton

236
Q

P. Aeruginosa

A

Cetrimide

237
Q

Slmonella, Shigella

A

XLD

238
Q

Leptospira Interrogans

A

EMJH

IM Board Correlates (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions