INFECTIOUS DISEASES Flashcards

1
Q

How is Rubeola (Measles) spreaded?

A

via respiratory droplets

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2
Q

What is the incubation period for measles?

A

10-14 days

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3
Q

What is classic prodrome triad (3 C’s) for rubeola?

A

HIGH fever + Conjunctivits, Coryza, Cough + Kopik Spots

3 C’s occur 2-3 days BEFORE rash occurs, and peaks on 1st day of rash

coryza = nasal obstruction, sneezing, sore throat resembling URI

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4
Q

What are Koplik spots?

A

small, irregular. and red with whitish cnter on the mucus membranes (buccal mucosa) are pathognomonic for measles. Appear 2-4 days before the rash and lasts 1-4 days as tiny salt crystals.

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5
Q

WHEN does the maculopapular rash from rubeola spread?

A

begins hen fever and URI symptoms are at their maximum

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6
Q

Describe the maculopapular rash in rubeola?

A

pinhead-sized papules that coalesce and form a brcik red, irregular maculopapular rash that starts on the FACE and spreads to the extrmities (including palms and soles)

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7
Q

HOW does the maculopapular rash from rubeola spread?

A

starts at the FACE (turns bright red) and spreads to the EXTREMITIES (rash turns to coppery and is completely gone within 6 days

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8
Q

How long does the maculopapular rash lasts before fading?

A

3-7 days

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9
Q

Dx of Rubeola?

A

LYMPHOPENIA is characteritic
PCR is usually diagnostic

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10
Q

How can rubeola be serologically diagnosed?

A

detection of IgM measles antibodies with ELISA or a fourfold rise in the serum hemagglutination inhibition antibody supports the diagnosis

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11
Q

**How do we prevent rubeola?

A

**Trivaent MMR vaccine or quadrivalent MMRV vaccine **

current 2 dose active vaccination stratagy provides more than 97% protection

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12
Q

Treatment of rubeola

A

supportive/symptomatic. (antipyretcis and fluids)

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13
Q

What supplementation for children reduces the pediatric morbidity and measles associated mortality?

A

Vitamin A

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14
Q

How

What are mumps?

A

paramyxoviral disease spread by respiratoyr droplets

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15
Q

What is the incubation period of mumps?

A

12-25 days

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16
Q

How is mumps spread?

A

thru direct contact with respiratory secretions or saliva of infected surfaces; airborne droplets

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17
Q

What are the most common physical exam findings of mumps that typically develop within 48 hrs of prodromoal symptoms?

A

parotid tenderness and overlying facial edema

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18
Q

Is parotits in mumps unilateral or bilateral?

A

UNILATERAL (75% of the time), but can progress to biltaeral

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19
Q

What is the most common extra salivary disease in adults with mumps?

A

testes = denotes ORCHITIS
(develops 7-10 after parotitis)

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20
Q

What is considered diagnostic for mumps?

A
  • Elevated serum IgM

-4-fold rise in the complement fixing antibodies to mumps virus is paired serum IgG also confirms infection

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21
Q

When is the diagnostic yield of mumps the highest?

A

when collected during the first 3 days of the illness

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22
Q

Treatment for mumps?

A

supportive/symptomatic

topical warm compress may relieve parotid discomfort

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23
Q

How to prevent mumps?

A

**Vaccination **is the most effective way to prevent mumps (MMR)

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24
Q

Most common complication in mumps?

A

orchitis (testes)

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25
Q

Lab findings of mumps?

A

mild leukopenia and elevated serum amylase reflects salivary gland involvement

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26
Q

What is the classic sympto of mumps?

A

SWELLING OF THE PAROTID GLAND

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27
Q

What is the incubation period for Rubella (German Measles)?

A

14-21 days

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28
Q

What are some symptoms of rubella?

A

**low **grade fever and malaise
suboccipital adenitis
posterior cervical and postauricular lymphadenopathy

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29
Q

What is unique about the rash in rubella?

A

fine, pink maculopapular rash that appears and fades from the face, trunk, and extremities in RAPID progression (2-3 days)

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30
Q

How long does the rash last in rubella?

A

3 DAYS!

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31
Q

Why is rubella a danger to pregnant women in their 1st trimester of pregnancy?

A

scauses congenital rubella which can cause fetal death, preterm delivery, and teratogenic effect

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32
Q

How do you diagnose rubella?

A

requires serologic confirmation:

  • elevated IgM antibody
  • fourfold or greater rise in the IgG antibody tters, or isolation of the virus
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33
Q

What are some complications of rubella?

A

polyarticular arthritis and arthralgia
congential rubella syndrome
encephalitis (rare)

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34
Q

Treatment of rubella?

A

supportive/symptomatic

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35
Q

How long should patients with rubella be isolated?

A

patients should be isolated for 7 days after rash onset

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36
Q

What vaccine is given for rubella?

A

live attenuated vaccine (included in MMR or MMRV)

37
Q

When is the rubella vaccine recommended to be administered in children?

A

1st dose: between 12-15 months

2nd dose: betweeen 4-6 years old, prior to school entry

38
Q

How long should women avoid pregnancy after getting the MMR vaccine?

A

4 weeks

39
Q

Does rubella spread faster or slower than rubeOla?

A

rubella spreads** FASTER (QUICKER)**

40
Q
A
41
Q

What virus most commonly causes roseola infantum (exanthum subitum or 6th disease)?

A

HHV-6

42
Q

How does the fever present in roseola infantum?

A

HIGH fever (generally aroun 102 F) that lasts 3-5 days; child is otherwise well, and fever subsides around 4th day

43
Q

How does the rash present in roseola infantum?

A

rose pink, blanchable, maculopapular rash tht BEGINS ON TRUNK and migrates to the face

ONLY VIRAL EXANTHEM THAT STARTS ON THE TRUNK!!!!!!!!!

44
Q

What is the relationship between the rash and the fever in roseola infantum?

A

rose pink rash appears when the fever subsides
(rash occurs AFTER fever)

45
Q

What ages is roseola infantum most commonly in?

A

children UNDER 2 years old

46
Q

Roseola infantum is a major cause of __________

A

febrile seizures and encephalilits

47
Q

Pathologically, HHV-6 is associated with ___________

A

mesial temporal sclerosis

48
Q

Treatment of roseola infantum?

A

MAINSTAY OF TREATMENT = SUPPORTIVE

49
Q

What is the organisms known as the pinworm?

A

Enterobius vermicularis

50
Q

How

How are pinworms transmitted?

A

person to person via ingestion of eggs after contact with hands or perianal region of an infected individual, food or fomites that have been contaminated by the infected individual, or infected bedding or clothing

51
Q

What is the most common symptom with pinworms?

A

perinanal pruritis (itching, scratching that ass), particularly at night, due to the prescence of female worms or deposited eggs.

52
Q

How do you diagnose pinworms?

A

Scotch Tape Test: apply clear cellophane tatpe to the perinanl skin, ideally early in the morning, followed by microscopic examination of the eggs.

Nocturnal examination of the perinanl area or gross exmanation of stools reveal adult worms

53
Q

Tr

Treatment of pinworms?

A

Albendazole, Mebendazole, or Pyrantel Pamoate

54
Q

What virus causes erythema infectiosum?

A

Parvovirus B19

55
Q

What is the incubation period for erythema infectiosum?

A

4-14 days

56
Q

S/S of erythema infectiosum?

A
57
Q

Parvovirus B19 is one of the most common causes of ____________ in childhood?

A

Myocarditis

58
Q

What are some complications of erythema infectiousum?

A
59
Q

What can parvovirus B19 cause in PREGNANT women?

A

HYDROPS FETALIS, fetal anemia, and fetal loss

60
Q

Dx of erythema infectiousum

A

Clinical, it may be confirmed by either an elevated titer of IgM anti-parvovirus, B19 antibodies in serum or with PCR in serum or bone marrow

61
Q

What is the optimal test for diagnosis of parvovirus B19 in immunocompromised patients?

A

RT-PCR

62
Q

Tx of erythema infectiousum

A

Treatment and healthy people are symptomatic (NSAIDS for arthralgia, transfusion for aplastic crisis, etc)

63
Q

Tx of erythema infectiosum in immunocompromised patients

A

IVIG

64
Q

This is sickle cell disease who get fifths disease are at risk acquiring _______

A

Aplastic anemia

65
Q

Hand, foot, and mouth disease

A
66
Q

Hand, foot, and mouth disease

A
67
Q

S/S of Coxsackie

A
68
Q

Tx of coxsackie

A
69
Q

Symptoms of RSV

A
70
Q

What vaccine is available for RSV? How do you clinically diagnose RSV?

A
71
Q

What can you expect to find on the imaging of RSV?

A
72
Q

Globally, RSV is a common cause of what two conditions?

A

Acute lower respiratory infection
Acute and recurrent otitis media

73
Q

What is the only antiviral therapy used for RSV in infants (rarely used)?

A
74
Q

Prevention of RSV

A
75
Q

Parvovirus B19

A
76
Q

EBV

A
77
Q

What is a common manifestation of EBV? What is a main RF of EBV?

A
78
Q

What is a common manifestation of EBV? What is a main RF of EBV?

A
79
Q

What is the classic raid for infectious mononucleosis?

A
80
Q

What is the classic raid for infectious mononucleosis?

A
81
Q

Triad of infectious mononucleosis

A
82
Q

What is a symptom regarding the spleen in IM?

A
83
Q

What cancers are associated with IM?

A
84
Q

What are some major complications with IM?

A
85
Q

Dx of IM?

A
86
Q

Definitive dx of IM

A
87
Q

Tx of IM

A
88
Q

What must a patient who has IM avoid?

A