Infectious diseases 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Give the transmission route and clinical presentations of the following Human herpes viruses

  • Herpes Simplex V1
  • Herpes simplex V2
A
  • HSV1: respiratory, saliva: gingivostomatitis, keratoconjunctivitis, herpes labialis, temporal lobe encephalitis
  • HSV2: Sexual contact, perinatal: genital herpes, neonatal herpes
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2
Q

Give the transmission route and clinical presentations of the following Human herpes viruses:

  • Varicella Zoster
  • Epstein-Barr
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • HHV-8
A
  • VZV: Respiratory: chicken pox, shingles
  • EBV: saliva-“kissing disease”: mononucleosis (associated with lymphomas, nasopharyngeal carcinoma).
  • CMV: congenital, sexual, saliva: mononucleosis (immunocompromised)
  • HHV-8: sexual contact: Kaposi sarcoma (immunocompromised patients).
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3
Q

Give 6 features of HSV-1 presentation.

A
  • Gingivostomatitis, cold sores (herpes labialis): ulcers with yellow slough near mouth
  • Herpetic whitlow: blisters on fingers
  • Eczema herpeticum
  • Herpes simplex meningitis, encephalitis
  • Systemic infection: fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy
  • Keratoconjunctivitis: watering eyes, photophobia
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4
Q

Give 5 features of HSV2 presentation.

A
  • genital herpes- chronic, life long: flu-like prodrome, vesicles/ papule around genitals, anus
  • Shallow ulcers
  • urethral discharge
  • dysuria
  • fever and malaise
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5
Q

HSV has a latent phase and a lytic phase.
When may herpes simplex virus reactivation occur?
What is the management of HSV?

A
  • Stress and immunosuppression.

- Topical, oral or IV acyclovir

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6
Q

What time period is someone with chickenpox contagious?

- Give 3 features of of shingles presentation.

A
  • Contagious from 48h before rash and until all vesicles have crusted over (7-10 days)
    Shingles:
  • Shingles may occur due to stress.
  • Initial tingling in dermatomal distribution
  • Followed by painful skin lesions
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7
Q

Give 3 symptomatic treatments for chickenpox in children.

Give 1st and 2nd line treatment for shingles if within 72 hours of rash appearance.

A

Chicken pox: 3 As

  • calamine lotion- alleviate itch.
  • Analgesia
  • Antihistamines

Shingles;

  • 1st: Valaciclovir or famciclovir
  • 2nd: acivlovir
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8
Q

Which virus causes infectious mononucleosis aka glandular fever.
Give 4 features of infectious mononucleosis presentation.

A
  • EBV
  • Fever
  • Hepatosplenomegaly- jaundice
  • Pharyngitis- tonsilar exudates
  • lymphadenopathy- posterior cervical nodes.
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9
Q

What is the pathogenesis of infectious mononucleosis?

A
  • EBV attaches to throat epithelium, causing pharyngitis
  • Virions escape lymph nodes, travel to blood stream
  • Either productively infect or latently infect B cells
  • Infected B lymphocytes actively replicate, produce random immunoglobulins including heterophile antibody
  • T cells destroy lymphocytes replicating EBV but not latently infected cells.
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10
Q

What would be seen in the following investigations for infectious mononucleosis?

  • FBC
  • Blood film
  • Monospot test
  • Antibodies
  • real time PCR
A
  • FBC: lymphocytosis highest in week 2-3
  • Blood film: atypical lymphocytosis
  • Monospot test: heterophile antibodies
  • EBV specific antibodies
  • PCR: EBV DNA
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11
Q

Give 2 management steps and 1 contraindication in treatment of infectious mononucleosis.

A
  • Supportive care: paracetamol or ibuprofen
  • Corticosteroids for severe cases, e.g. haemolytic anaemia, tonsillar swelling, obstructive pharyngitis.
  • Amoxicillin or ampicillin is CONTRAINDICATED due to widespread maculopapular rash.

Most cases make uncomplicated recovery 3 days- 3 weeks

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12
Q

Differentiate the following EBV specific antibody tests:

  • VCA IgM positive
  • VCA IgM and IgG positive
  • VCA IgG and EBNA IgG positive
A

Early primary infection: VCA IgM positive
Acute primary infection: VCA IgM and IgG positive
Past infection: VCA IgG and EBNA IgG positive.

IgG: GONE. IgM: NOW.
VCA: viral capsid antigen
EBNA: Epstein Barr nuclear antigen

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13
Q

Which group of micro-organisms does HIV infection give susceptibility to?
- What is hairy leukoplakia?

A
  • Encapsulated organisms: streptococcus pneumonia and haemophilus influenzae
  • Hairy leukoplakia: irregular white painless plaques on lateral tongue, cannot be scraped off. HBV mediated. Occurs in HIV positive patients, organ transplant recipients.
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14
Q

What types of candidiasis are caused by the following risk factors?

  • Immunocompromised
  • Diabetes, use of antibiotics
  • Babies
  • IV drug users
  • Neutropenic patients
A
  • Oral candidiasis and oesophageal thrush- immunocompromised.
  • Vulvovaginitis- diabetes, use of antibiotics
  • Diaper rash- babies
  • Infective endocarditis- IV drug users
  • Disseminated candidiasis (systemic)- neutropenic patients
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15
Q

Give 3 features of disseminated candidiasis.
What locations is it disseminated to?
Why are swabs not recommended for Candida Albicans?

A
  • Fever, hypotension, leucocytosis.
  • Retina, CNS, liver, spleen, bones, kidney
  • Candidal organisms found in healthy people- 30-45% if adults. 45-65% healthy children.
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16
Q

What is the management for oral candida?

What the management for vulvovaginitis?

A
  • Miconazole and nystatin suspension.

- Intravaginal anti fungal cream- azole or oral antifungal.

17
Q

Which virus is Kaposi’s sarcoma caused by?
Which condition is it indicative of?
How does it present?

A
  • Caused by HHV8
  • It is an AIDS defining condition.
  • Pink/ violaceous (purple) patch on skin or in mouth.
18
Q

Which cancers is HPV linked to?

  • How is HPV spread?
  • How does it present in most people?

Give 1 other HIV associated tumour other than Kaposi’s sarcoma.

A
  • Cervical and anal squamous cell carcinoma
  • Sexual contact
  • Genital warts in most people.

Lymphoma

19
Q

Give first 3 first line investigations for HIV.
What CD4 count defines AIDs?
What serum viral load is diagnosis of HIV?
What is the most commonly used assay to investigate HIV?

A
  1. ELISA confirmed with Western blot.
  2. Serum HIV rapid test
  3. Serum HIV DNA PCR- infants- more expensive.

CD4 <200 cells/ml
Viral load >1000 copies/mL is confirmed diagnosis.
Combined HIV antibody and p24 antigen assay: tests for HIV-1, HIV-2 and HIV p24 antigen

20
Q

Give the 3 most common viral causes of tonsillitis.
Give 3 bacterial causes of tonsillitis.
Give 2 extra-oral signs of tonsillitis.

A
  • Rhinovirus, coronavirus, adenovirus.
  • Group A streptococci, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Neisseria Gonorrhoea.
  • Anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, fever >38.
21
Q

Give 3 complications of the common cold.
Give 3 most common viruses that cause common cold.
Give 3 common respiratory tract bacteria.

A
  • Lower respiratory tract infection, sinusitis, acute otitis media.
  • Rhinovirus (50%), Coronavirus (10-15%), Influenza (5-15%).
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Moraxella catarrhalis
22
Q

What is most common causative pathogen of abscesses?
What are the 3 management steps of uncomplicated skin/ soft tissues abscess?
What are 4 management steps of severe abscess/ multiple sites of infection etc.

A

Staphylococcus aureus.

  • AID: Aspiration, incision and drainage.
  • AIDES: Antibiotics, incision and drainage, excision in severe cases.
23
Q

Give examples of the following

  • Gram positive cocci (3)
  • Gram positive bacilli (2)
  • Gram negative cocci (2)
  • Gram negative bacilli
A

Gram positive cocci: Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Enterococcus
Gram positive bacilli: Clostridium, Listeria
Gram negative cocci: Neisseria, Haemophilus
Gram negative bacilli: Most EMQ bacteria not already mentioned (Salmonella, Shigella, Pseudomonas, Legionella, Vibrio

24
Q

Give 5 major nosocomial infections.

A
  • MRSA
  • VRE: Vancomycin resistant enterococcus
  • ESBL: extended spectrum beta-lactamase producing bacteria. E. Coli and Klebsiella
  • Pseudomonas
  • Acinetobacter