Cranial Nerves and Ophthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

List 5 differentials for anosmia

A
  • Ageing
  • Traumatic brain injury
  • Alzheimer’s
  • Parkinson’s
  • Tumour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the first step in assessing optic acuity (clarity of vision)

A

Use a Snellen chart

  • 6 metres from chart, one eye at a time
  • Record lowest line able to read with 2 or fewer mistakes
  • Acuity is distance of chart as numerator over number of lowest line read as denominator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give 5 symptoms of conjunctivitis

A
  • Conjunctival hyperaemia
  • Chemosis
  • Crust and discharge
  • “foreign body” sensation
  • Photophobia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Give 4 ways to differentiate between bacterial and viral conjunctivitis.

A

Bacterial: Unilateral, thick discharge. reduced vision, urethritis/ vaginal discharge

Viral: Bilateral, watery discharge, normal vision, signs of viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is allergic conjunctivitis? What 3 extra symptoms occur with allergic conjunctivitis?

A
  • Type 1 hypersensitivity (IgE), Pollen, dust, chemical scents. Young adults.
  • Itching
  • Sneezing,
  • Red, watery and oedematous eye
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Give 5 signs of cataracts

A
  • Painless
  • Clouding of lens
  • Visual impairment and glare
  • Visual halos
  • Reduced red reflex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is glaucoma?

For an acutely red, painful eye, what must be ruled out?

A
  • Vision loss resulting from optic nerve damage (retinal ganglion cells) and cupping of the optic disc. Normally due to increased intraocular pressure
  • 2nd leading cause of blindness worldwide

Closed angle glaucoma must be ruled out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Give 4 ways to differentiate open angle and closed angle glaucoma.

A
  • Open angle: bilateral, progressive visual loss, initially asymptomatic, mild nonspecific symptoms. 90% of cases are open angle.
  • Closed angle: unilateral, sudden onset, severely painful, N&V, cloudy cornea, headache, dilated pupil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give 4 investigative techniques for glaucoma.

A
  • Fundoscopy- may show disc cupping
  • Gonioscope: enables you to look at angle of iris and determine closed or open angle
  • Slit lamp allows closer examination of whole eye.
  • Tonometry measures intra-ocular pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which structures are involved in anterior and posterior uveitis respectively?

A
  • Anterior: iris and ciliary body
  • Posterior: vitreous body, choroid plexus, retina

Complete uveitis is everything.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Differentiate anterior and posterior uveitis by the following:

  • Cause
  • Pain
  • Vision change-
  • Other symptoms
A

Anterior:

  • Autoimmune conditions
  • Painful, ocular hyperaemia
  • Blurry vision
  • Increased lacrimation and photophobia

Posterior:

  • Infective cause
  • Painless
  • Blurry vision
  • Floaters and scotomata
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give two investigations for uveitis.

A
  • Fundoscopy

- Slit lamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Visual fields- What are the medical terms for the following visual field defects and where is the lesion:

  1. total vision loss in one eye
  2. loss of peripheral vision in both eyes
  3. Loss of half of vision on same side in both eyes
  4. Loss of upper/ lower quarter of vision on same side in both eyes
  5. Loss of half of vision on same side in both eyes apart from the centre.
A
  1. Monocular vision loss- optic nerve
  2. Bitemporal hemianopia- optic chiasm
  3. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia- optic tract
  4. Contralateral superior/ inferior quadrantinopia- optic radiations
  5. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing- occipital lobe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List 2 prechiasmal causes of vision loss.

List 2 chiasmal causes of vision loss.

A
  • Ischaemia: TIA- amaurosis fugax: veil coming down over vision in one eye.
  • Inflammation- MS, temporal arteritis
  • Pituitary tumour, craniopharyngioma (compresses from top, not bottom)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is neglect syndrome? What is it due to?

A
  • Patients completely ignore left side of their world/ body. Patients only eat food on right side of plate/ shave right side of face.
  • Due to damage to right parietal lobe.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What 4 optic reflexes are conducted in an exam?

A
  • Direct pupillary
  • Consensual pupillary
  • Swinging light
  • Accommodation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which nerve is lesioned when there is a loss of consensual pupillary light reflex?

Which nerve is lesioned when there is loss of direct pupillary reflex?

A
  • CN III

- CN II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the swinging light (relative afferent pupillary defect) test show?

How is it performed.

A
  • Shows if there is a minor defect in afferent pathway of one eye.
  • Swing torch from normal eye to damaged eye rapidly-
  • Pupil in damaged eye appears to dilate as it doesn’t pick up as much light from the torch as a normal eye.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Give 3 symptoms of Horner’s syndrome

A
  • Ptosis
  • Miosis
  • Anhidrosis

Loss of sympathetic stimulation.

20
Q

Give 3 differentials for Horner’s syndrome

A
  • Brainstem tumour: sympathetic supply originates from hypothalamus and passes down brainstem.
  • Pancoast tumour: sympathetic nerve passes along apex of lung.
  • Carotid artery dissection- nerve passes up carotid artery to eyes.
21
Q

Give 3 investigations for the 3 different causes of Horner’s syndrome and when you would suspect each cause.

A
  • CXR: Pancoast tumour- upper limb pain
  • CT head: brainstem tumour
  • MRI/ MR angiography: carotid dissection- ipsilateral face/ neck pain, trauma,
22
Q

What 3 signs would be expected from oculomotor nerve palsy?

A
  • down and out eye
  • Ptosis
  • Mydriasis
23
Q

What is the difference in presentation between medical and surgical CN3 palsy?

A

Pupillary control is dorsal and peripheral part of CN3.

Surgical: Mydriasis first
Medical: down and out pupil first

  • Surgical: compression on pia mater blood supply of nerve. Parasympathetic fibres affected first, which are more superficial in CN3. Mydriasis first.
  • Medical: diabetes/ vasculitis cause CN3 palsy with pupillary sparing. Down and out pupil occurs before pupil dilation.
24
Q

What sign would be seen in trochlear nerve palsy? What is the most common cause?
What is seen in abducens palsy? What is the most common cause?

A

Eye in and up.
- most common cause is trauma. May also result from diabetes/ atherosclerosis/ HTN.
Eye inwards- abducens has long nerve course in brain.
- Most commonly caused by stroke in adults and trauma in children.

25
Which way does the jaw deviate to in trigeminal nerve palsy when patient holds jaw open?
Towards the lesioned side: weak master and temporals muscles.
26
Give two reflexes to test trigeminal nerve function.
- Corneal reflex: afferent V1, efferent V2 | - Jaw-jerk: afferent V3, efferent motor V.
27
Give 4 actions to test trigeminal nerve. Which condition may these actions be lost in?
- Blow out cheeks - Give big grin showing teeth - Screw eyes shut - Raise eyebrows Bell's palsy
28
Other than idiopathic, give two causes of Bell's palsy
- Compression of facial nerve in facial canal - Inflammation e.g. viral infection: herpes simplex 1 or varicella zoster. Diabetes is risk factor.
29
What is the medical management for Bell's palsy? What is a key complication of Bell's palsy?
Steroids: prednisolone - Corneal abrasions- can't close eyes at night so debris gets in. Corneal damage can be irreversible. Use eye patch to prevent this.
30
What is Ramsay Hunt syndrome and what is it caused by?
- LMN facial nerve palsy due to varicella zoster. - Pain is a prominent feature. Type of Bell's palsy with more pronounced symptoms. Should be suspected in over 60s with significant pain.
31
Where can vesicles form in Ramsay Hunt syndrome?
Ipsilateral: - ear - hard palate - Anterior two thirds of tongue.
32
Give 1 prominent feature and 2 other possible features of Ramsay Hunt syndrome.
- Pain is prominent feature | - Can include deafness and vertigo, other cranial nerve involvement.
33
Why does forehead sparing occur in upper motor neurone damage to CN 7 (e.g. stroke)?
- CN 7 has double motor nerve innervation from both hemispheres in forehead only - If forehead is affected then it is a lower motor neurone lesion
34
Which tuning fork is used for hearing testing? What are the two types of hearing loss?
512 Hz Conductive vs sensorineural.
35
What is tested by the Weber's test? Where is the tuning fork placed?
- Tests sensorineural hearing loss. Weber's lateralises away from the deficit. - In conductive hearing loss, sound is louder in the affected side.
36
What is tested in Rinne's test? How is it performed?
- Tests conductive hearing loss - 512Hz tuning fork placed against mastoid bone and then held 1cm away from ear. - Louder in air is positive Rinne's. Normal - Louder on bone is Rinne's negative, conductive hearing loss as ear is not amplifying sound in ear.
37
Give causes of conductive hearing loss in the following locations: - External auditory canal - Drum - Middle ear - Oval window
EAC: Wax, foreign body, otitis externa Drum: perforation; infection/ trauma Middle ear: acute otitis media, serous otitis media Oval window: osteosclerosis.
38
Give causes of sensorineural hearing loss for the following: - Inflammation (2) - Tumour (1) - Ototoxic drugs (3) - 2 other causes
- Inflammation: meningitis, viral-MMR - Tumour: acoustic neuroma. assoc with Neurofibromatosis type 2. Drugs: - amino glycoside antibiotics- gentamicin, streptomycin. - Aspirin (overdose) - Loop diuretics Other: - trauma - Meniere's disease
39
What is the inheritance pattern for Neurofibromatosis? How does Type 1 present?
- Autosomal dominant Type 1: cafe-au-lait spots, lisch nodules neurofibromas. Short stature
40
How does Neurofibromatosis type 2 present?
- Sensorineural hearing loss - Bilateral acoustic neuromas - Symptomatic by age 20. Type 1: 1 body, so affects whole body. Type 2: 2 ears so only affects ears.
41
What is the triad of Meniere's disease?
- Sensorineural hearing loss - Vertigo - Tinnitus
42
What are the afferent and efferent CN of the gag reflex? What respiratory symptom results from damage to these nerves? What is sign of CN X damage?
- Afferent IX, efferent X. - Bovine cough caused by damage to IX and X. - Uvula deviates away from side of lesion.
43
What can be seen in hypoglossal nerve lesion? | How is hypoglossal nerve tested?
- Tongue wasting - Tongue fasciculations - Tongue deviation toward lesion. - Push tongue against inside of cheek to test power.
44
What is Bulbar palsy?
Palsy in CN 10, 11, 12 (bulb is medulla oblongata).
45
Give 4 signs of bulbar palsy.
- Absent gag reflex - Tongue- wasted, fasciculations - Jaw jerk- absent or normal - Speech- nasal
46
What is pseudo bulbar palsy?
Multiple small lesions in cortex/ brainstem interrupt corticobulbar supply to motor nuclei of CNs. Issue with UMNs supplying cranial nerves. CN 5 and 7 also affected.
47
Give 5 signs of pseudobulbar palsy
- Gag reflex increased/ normal - Tongue- spastic - Jaw jerk- increased - Speech: monotonous slurred, high-pitched "donald duck". - Emotions labile.