Infectious Disease pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Perioperative Abx Prophlyaxis:
start _____ before the incision
or start ______ before if using quinolones or vanc

A

start 60 minutes before

120 mins before if quinolone or vanc

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2
Q

Perioperative Abx Prophlyaxis:

If continued into post-op: typically should be discontinued within ______

A

24 hours

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3
Q

Perioperative Abx Prophlyaxis:

_____ is preferred drug of choice

A

cefazolin (1st or 2nd gen cephs are good)

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4
Q

Perioperative Abx Prophlyaxis:

If beta lactam allergy or MRSA concern – give what drug?

A

vanc

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5
Q

Perioperative Abx Prophlyaxis:

If bowel surgery and concerned for anaerobic infection – give what for prophylaxis?

A

cefotetan, cefoxitin, ertapenem, or ceftriaxone + metronidazole
(aka drugs with broad gram - coverage AND aneraobe coverage)

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6
Q

3 classic symptoms of meningitis?

A

stiff neck
severe headache
altered mental status

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7
Q

How to diagnose meningitis?

A

lumbar puncture

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8
Q

what drug is given 15 - 20 minutes prior to first abx for meningitis treatment (this drug will help prevent neurological complications)

A

dexamethasone

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9
Q

acute otitis media: may do an observation period for ______ to assess clinical need of abx

A

48 - 72 hours

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10
Q

AOM (acute otitis media) treatment:

what is 1st line (drug and dose)

A

Amoxicillin 80 -90 mg/kg/day - divided into 2 doses

or Amox/Clav 90 mg/kg/day divided into 2 doses

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11
Q

what is t/he dose of clavulanate when using amox/clav for AOM

A

6.4 mg/kg/DAY

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12
Q

what bug typically causes pharyngitis?

and how to treat it?

A

Respiratory viruses and S. pyogenes

if S. pyogenes - give PCN

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13
Q

Acute bronchitis is primarily caused by what?

A

respiratory viruses (about 90%…)

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14
Q

what is the gold standard for diagnosing pneumonia?

A

chest x-ray

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15
Q
outpt CAP (community acquired pneumonia) treatment:
 what bug most commonly causes this
A

S. pneumoniae…

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16
Q
outpt CAP (community acquired pneumonia) treatment:
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is not a respiratory quinolone/does not cover S.pneumoniae and thus would not be a good option
A

Ciprofloxacin

17
Q

outpt CAP (community acquired pneumonia) treatment:
when picking abx must look at if…
the patient has used abx in the past _______

A

3 months

18
Q

outpt CAP (community acquired pneumonia) treatment:
when picking abx must look at if…
if the pt has ______ or _____

A

comorbid conditions or immunosuppression

19
Q
outpt CAP (community acquired pneumonia) treatment:
What abx are good options if healthy pt and no abx use in the past 3 months
A

macrolides (azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin)
or
doxycycline

20
Q

outpt CAP (community acquired pneumonia) treatment:
What abx are good options if risk for drug resistant S. pneumoniae (aka drug in past 3 months)
or comorbidities?

A

beta lactam + macrolide

or Respiratory quinolone monotherapy

21
Q

inpatient CAP treatment:

what drug regimens are used

A

beta lactam + macrolide

or Respiratory quinolone monotherapy

can do IV or PO drugs for these patients

22
Q

Hospital acquired pneumonia has an onset of > ______ after hospital admission

A

48 hours

23
Q

ventilator assoc. pneumonia has an onset of > ______ after mechanical ventilation

A

48 hours

24
Q

Latent TB treatment options? (drug and dosing)

A

Isoniazid twice weekly for 9 months
Rifampin daily for 4 months
INH and rifampin once weekly for 12 weeks

25
Q

test to do to check if active TB?

A

AFB stain (acid fast bacilli)

26
Q

Active TB treatment regimen?

A

4 drug regimen (RIPE) for 2 months

then continuation phase

27
Q

what drugs make up RIPE for active TB treatment?

A

rifampin
isoniazid (INH)
pyrazinamide
ethambutol

28
Q

what is given to reduce risk of isoniazid associated peripheral neuropathy?

A

pyriodoxine

29
Q

ADEs of isoniazid?

A
Peripheral neuropathy
HA
GI upset
increased LFTs
DILE - drug induced lupus
positive coombs test
30
Q

ADEs of Rifampin?

A

increased LFTs
orange-red discoloration of body secretions
+ coombs test
flu like syndrome

31
Q

what drug can replace rifampin for TB treatment if too many drug interactions?

A

rifabutin

32
Q

ADEs of pyrazinamide?

A
increased LFTs
hyperuricemia
gout
GI upset
malaise
33
Q

ADEs of Ethambutol?

A
optic neuritis (dose related)
increased LFTs
34
Q

what is the drug interaction issues seen with rifampin?

A

it is a potent INDUCER of 3A4

  • affects protease inhibitors
  • decreases INR
  • decreases oral contraceptive efficacy
35
Q

stopped pg 423

A