Infectious Disease + Micro Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of node like receptors?

A

Purpose is to detect intracellular microbial pathogens.

Stimulate the release of cytokines and cause cellular apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give 3 examples of pattern recognition receptors?

A

Toll Like receptors

Rig like receptors

Nod like receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the purposes of pattern recognition receptors such as node like receptors and toll like receptors?

A

Amplify the immune response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are 3 functions of antibodies?

A

Opsonisation

Neutralise toxins

Activate complement system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the function of complement factors?

A

Recruit and activation of macrophages, neutrophils and other WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 4 stages of growth in liquid media?

A
  1. Lag Phase
  2. Log Phase
  3. Stationary Phase
  4. Decline Phase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

DO gram negative or gram positive bacteria produce more endotoxin??

A

Gram positive. Hence why it causes more serious damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the following:

Active immunisation:

Passive immunisation:

A

Active immunisation: stimulates virgin lymphocytes to be stimulated to make antibodies

Passive: ready made antibodies injected into body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define

infectivity

Virulence

A

Infectivity: the ability to become established in a host

Virulence: the ability a pathogen has at eliciting a disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 3 components of an outer component of a Gram negative bacteria ?

A

Lipid

Core R antigen

Somatic O antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which strain of HIV is more prevalent in humans?

A

HIV 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give the name of two receptor types on the service of a HIV virus?

A

G120 and G41

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the CD4 count in a patient with HIV?

What is the CD4 count in a patient with AIDS?

A

CD4 in HIV >400

CD4 in AIDS >200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How many genes make up the HIV virus?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the pathophysiology behind HIV and its replication?

A

The HIV virus attaches to a cell via its receptors G41 and G120

The HIV then de envelopes and releases reverse transcriptase that causes viral RNA to be transcribed and then spliced.

Virions are then released out of the cells. They are undetectable as are surrounded by host cell.

Constantly mutates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How would you describe the immunogenicity of HIV?

Does it have genetic diversity?

A

Poor immunogenicity

YES it does

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are 3 cells affected by HIV?

A

Macrophages

CD4 T cells

Dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some features of an acute infection of HIV?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Weight loss
  3. Sweating
  4. Malagia and Lymphadenopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some symptoms of secondary infection of HIV?

A

Signs of malignancy: cervical cancer, non Hodgkin’s lymphoma and also kaposi sarcoma.

Signs of infection: TB, pneumonia and diarrhoea

Weight loss, generalised lymphadenopathy and candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you monitor the levels of HIV via the blood? (3 ways)

A

CD4 levels

P24 antigens

Via saliva or blood glucose test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you manage HIV?

A

HAART therapy: anti-retro virals such as tenofovir and abacavir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 3 different types of Protozoa?

A
  1. Flagellates
  2. Amoebae
  3. Sporozoans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What class are the malaria’s part of protozoa wise?

A
  1. Sporozan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Give 5 steps that a virus needs to replicate?

A

Attachment

Cell entry

Interaction

Replication

Assembly

Vision Release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are 5 ways that a virus can cause disease?

A
  1. Direct damage to the host cell
  2. Damage by modification of cell function or structure
  3. Physical modification
  4. Functional Modification
  5. Damage by over reaction
    Damage through cell proliferation and immortalisation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are interferons?

A

Chemokines that have anti-viral properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the 3 groups of Helminths?

A

Cestode: tape worm

Nermatode: flat worm

Trematode: round worm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is an example of a flat worm?

A

Liver, lung or blood flukes

Schistosomiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How do you treat the nermatode thread worm?

A

Mebendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of cell is a fungi?

A

Eukaryotic

31
Q

How would you describe:

  • Yeast
  • Mould
A

Yeast is a single cell organism that divides by budding

Mould is a multi cell organism that divides by sported

32
Q

What do you need to stain a fungal culture with?

A

KOH

33
Q

How would you describe a mycobacteria ?

A
  1. Aerobic
  2. Non sporting
  3. Non motile
34
Q

What is the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic antibiotic resistance?

A

Intrinsic naturally occurs and is passed on

Extrinsic passed on by horizontal gene transfer and spontaneous gene mutation

35
Q

What is the main aetiology behind Hep B?

A

Vertical transmission

36
Q

What is the main aetiology behind Hep C ?

A

IVDU

37
Q

If a patient had an active infection of Hep B what antigens would be present in their blood?

A

Hep B surface antigen

Of Hep B envelope antigen (less specific)

38
Q

What antibody would be present in a patient who has had a Hep B immunisation or post infection?

A

Hep B surface antibody

39
Q

If a patient had a Hep B core antibody present in their blood what would it suggest?

A

They have an acute, chronic or past infection of Hep B

Is not present in a patient who has had the vaccination.

40
Q

What time period is classed as chronic in Hepatitis B?

A

More than 6 months.

41
Q

What are two complications of Hep B?

A

Liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular cancer as Hep B is an oncogenic virus

42
Q

What is the management of Hep B?

A

You need to give the anti viral tenofovir

used to use Pegylated interferon alpha

43
Q

Is hep B DNA or RNA?

A

DNA

44
Q

What monitoring tests are need in someone with chronic viral hepatitis?

A

Alpha fetoprotein
US monitoring

Fibroscan and possibly Liver biopsy. Need to check viral markers

45
Q

If a patient was Hep C. Is the virus DNA or RNA?

A

RNA

46
Q

What medication do you give someone who has Hep C ?

A

Direct Acting Anti-viral Drug (DAA) aka elbasvir

47
Q

What are two medications used in life threatening COVID?

A

Remdesevir

Dexametasone

48
Q

What anti coag would you want to give to a COVID patient?

A
  1. Stop warfarin and DOAC

2. Start LMWH

49
Q

What are 3 tests you could do in a patient with suspected latent TB?

A
  1. Mantoux Test
  2. IGRA test
  3. CX-Ray
50
Q

What are two SE of rifampicin?

A

Red urine + Tears and Hepatitis

51
Q

What are two SE of isoniazid?

A

Hepatitis , peripheral neuropathy

52
Q

What anti-TB drug affects the COCP?

A

Rifampicin

53
Q

In latent TB what is the treatment?

A

Rifampicin and Isoniazid for 3 months each

54
Q

What is the management for a patient with active TB?

A

You need 2m of Rifampicin and Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol

4m of Rifampicin + Isoniazid

55
Q

Which of the anti TB drugs is bacterialcidal? What is a SE of this?

A

Ethambutol

optic neuritis

56
Q

What medication can you not take with HAART?

A

Omeprezole

57
Q

Which Hepatitis Virus’ can you vaccinate against?

A

Hep A and B

58
Q

When is a patient with Hep C ‘cured’?

A

When their HCV RNA levels are negative after 12 w of stopping meds

59
Q

What class of drug is used to treat Hep C?

A

DIrect Acting Anti-Viral Drugs

60
Q

When would a Hep B envelope antibody be present in?

A

In a patient who has had or has the virus

61
Q

If a pregnant lady is positive for Hep B what do you do post labour to the baby?

A

You give Hep B antibodies

62
Q

What is the definition of sepsis?

A

Life threatening organ dysfunction due to a dysregulated host response to an infection.

63
Q

What other virus does Hep D need to survive?

A

Hep B

64
Q

What antibiotic is used to treat staph infections?

A

Flucoxicillin

65
Q

What antibiotics are used to treat listeria?

A

Amoxicillin + gentamicin

66
Q

What is the abx you need to use for someone with klebseilla?

A

Cefotaxime

67
Q

What is the abx treatment for helicobacter pylori?

A

Clarithromycin and Amoxicillin

68
Q

What virus will you see owl eye inclusion bodies on microscope?

A

Cytomegaly

69
Q

What virus will you see inclusion bodies in ?

A

Herpes Simplex Virus

70
Q

What agar should you use for candida growth?

A

Sabourad Agar

71
Q

Give an example of a cephalosporin abx?

A

Ceftotaximine

72
Q

What is an example of a carbapenm? What is it useful in?

A

Resistant bacteria both -ve and +ve

Example: meropeneum

73
Q

What is an example of a macrolide?

A

Erythromycin

74
Q

Example of an aminoglycoside?

A
  1. Streptomycin

2. Gentamicin