Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Peds EOR > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Who does mycobacterium avium complex occur in?

A

HIV patients with CD4 <50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of mycobacterium avium complex?

A

fever, diarrhea, weight loss, anemia

-symptoms rarely occur in immunocompetent patients (increased in bronchiectasis) HIV patients when CD4<50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is mycobacterium avium complex present?

A

soil and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do you diagnose mycobacterium avium complex?

A

AFB and culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the treatment of mycobacteria avium complex?

A

clarithromycin + ethambutol at least 12 months (+/- rifampin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the prophylaxis for HIV patients if CD4 <50?

A

azithromycin or clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is mycobacterium kansasii?

A

causes tuberculosis-like disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the treatment of mycobacterium kansasii

A

rifampin + ethambutol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is mycobacterium marinum?

A

REMEMBER MARINUM = AQUARIUM

  • atypical mycobacterium found in fresh and saltwater - infection occurs after inoculation of the skin via abrasion or puncture in a patient with contact of an aquarium, saltwater, or marine animals
  • occupation hazard of aquarium handlers, marine workers, fisherman, and seafood handlers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is mycobacterium marinum dx?

A

culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you treat mycobacterium marinum?

A

tetracyclines, fluoroquinolone, macrolides, sulfonamides for 4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Epstein-Barr disease?

A

a viral illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the classic triad of Epstein-Barr disease?

A

fever, lymphadenopathy, pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How id Epstien-Barr disease diagnosed?

A

positive heterophile antibody screen (mono spot) - may not appear early in the illness (positive within 4 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the other signs and symptoms of Epstein-Barr disease?

A
  • atypical lymphocytes with enlarge nuclei and prominent nucleoli
  • a maculopapular rash develops in 80% of patients treated with ampicillin
  • left upper quadrant pain secondary to splenomegaly and are at risk for splenic rupture - athletes should avoid vigorous sports for at least the first three to four weeks of the illness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the treatment of Epstein-Barr disease?

A

supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is erythema infectiosum(fifth disease) caused by?

A

Parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the characteristics of erythema infectuisum (fifth disease)?

A

“slapped cheek” rash on face - lacy reticular rash on extremities, spares palms and soles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How long does it take for erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) to resolve?

A

2-3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the treatment of erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)?

A

supportive, anti-inflammatories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Hand-foot-and-mouth disease caused by?

A

coxsackievirus type A virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the characteristics of hand-foot-and-mouth disease?

A

produces sores in mouth and a rash on the hands, feet, mouth, and buttocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How long does it take hand-foot-and-mouth disease to clear up?

A

usually clears up on its own within 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the treatment for hand-foot-and mouth disease?

A

supportive, anti-inflammatories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where does HSV 1 effect?

A

oral lesions (tongue, lips, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where does HSV 2 effect?

A

genital lestions (vulva, vagins, cervix, glans, prepuce, and penile shaft)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Herpes Human Viruses (HHV) 3?

A

VZV (varicella zoster virus commonly known as chickenpox or shingles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is HHV 4?

A

EBV (Epstein Barr Virus is commonly known as infectious mononucleosis [mono or glandular fever])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is HHV 5?

A

CMV (cytomegalovirus is most common virus transmitted to a pregnant woman’s unborn child)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is HHV 6?

A

Roseolovirus is more commonly known as the 6th disease or Roseola infant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is HHV 7?

A

similar to HHV6 (not yet classified)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is HHV 8?

A

a type of rhadinovirus known as the Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What diseases are caused by HSV 1?

A 
ginviostomatitis 
keratoconjunctivitis 
cutaneous herpes 
genital herpes
encephalitis
herpes labialsis
esophagitis 
pneumonia 
hepatitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What diseases are caused by HSV 2?

A 
genital herpes 
cutaneous herpes
Gingivostomatitis 
neonatal herpes 
aseptic meningitis
disseminated infection 
hepatitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What diseases are caused by HHV 3?

A

Varicella-zoster virus

-chickenpox, herpes zoster, disseminated herpes zoster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What diseases are caused by HHV 4?

A

Epstein-Barr virus
-infectious mononucleosis, hepatitis, encephalitis, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Hodgkin lymphoma, Burkitt lymphoma, lymphoprliferative syndromes, oral hairy leukoplakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What diseases are caused by HHV 5?

A 
infectious mononucleosis
hepatitis 
congenital cytomegalic inclusion disease
hepatitis 
retinitis 
pneumonia
colitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What diseases are caused by HHV 6?

A

roseola infrantum
otitis media with fever
encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What diseases are caused y HHV 7?

A

roseola infrantum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What disease is caused by HHV 8?

A

Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus

  • non a known caused of acute illness but has a causative role in Kaposi sarcoma and AIDS-related non-Hodgkin lymphomas that grow primarily in the pleural, pericardial, or abdominal cavities as lymphomatous effusions
  • also linked with multi centric Castleman disease
41
Q

What is influenza?

A

a viral respiratory infection caused by orthomyxovirus resulting in fever, coryza, cough, headache, and malaise

42
Q

What are the three strains of the flu?

A

A, B, and C

43
Q

What should receive an influenza vaccine?

A

everyone >6 months

44
Q

Who should the influenza vaccine be avoided in?

A

severe egg allergy, previous reaction, Guillain-Barre syndrome within 6 weeks of previous vaccination, GBS in the past 6 weeks, <6 month old
-avoid flutist in pt with asthma

45
Q

What is the dx of influenza?

A

based primarily on patient history

  • a rapid antigen test can be performed in the clinic - the virus can be isolated from the throat or nasal mucosa
  • rapid serology test are often available and are most accurate during the first few days of the illness
  • gold standard = RT-PCR or viral culture take 3-7 days to return
  • CXR in primary influenza pneumonia will show bilateral diffuse infiltrates
46
Q

What is the treatment for influenza?

A

symptomatic (for most) or with antivirals - ideally <48 hours - tamiflu (oseltamivir), inhaled Relenza (Zanamivir), IV Rapivab (peramivir), and oral baloxavir (xofluza)
-zanamivir and oseltamivirs both treat influenza A and B - (think Dr. “oz” treats the flu)

47
Q

What are the indications for antiviral treatment with patients with influenza?

A

hospitalized, outpatient with severe/progressive illness, an outpatient at high risk for complications (immunocomporimsed, pt with chronic medical conditions, >65 years, pregnant women/2 weeks postpartum)

48
Q

What is measles caused by?

A

paramyxovirus

49
Q

How is measles transmitted?

A

respiratory droplets

10-12 day incubation period

50
Q

What are the three phases of measles?

A

prodrome
enanthem
exanthema

51
Q

What is the prodrome phase of measles?

A

1-3 days of a “the three C’s” cough, coryza, conjunctivitis as well as fever

52
Q

What is the enanthem phase of measles?

A

48 hours prior to exanthema - Koplik spots - irregularly- shaped, bright red spots often with a bluish-white central dot in the mouth

53
Q

What is the exanthema phase of measles?

A

2-4 days after onset of fever: consists of a morbillifrom brick red erythematous, maculopapular, blanching rash, which classically begins on the face and spreads cephalocaudally and centrifugally to inolve the neck, upper trunk, lower trunk, and extremities

54
Q

What is the dx of measles?

A

clinical diagnosis of measles requires a history of fever of at least three days, with at least one of the three C’s (cough, coryza, conjunctivitis)

  • observation of Koplik’s sports is also diagnostic of measles
  • laboratory diagnosis of measles can be done with confirmation of positive measles IgM antibodies or isolation of measles virus RNA from respiratory specimens
55
Q

What is the tx of measles?

A

supportive with anti-inflammatories

-patients must be isolated for 1 week after onset of rash

56
Q

What are the known complications of rubeola?

A

otitis media, pneumonia, diarrhea, and encephalitis

57
Q

When is the measles vaccination given?

A

administer a 2-dose series of MMR vaccine at ages 12-15 months and 4-6 years

  • second dose may be administered before age 4f
  • provided at least 4 weeks have elapsed since the first dose
58
Q

What is mumps?

A

a viral disease that is part of the paramyxovirus family

59
Q

How does mumps present?

A

parotitis (painful parotid gland swelling), orchitis, or aseptic meningitis

60
Q

How is mumps transmitted?

A

respiratory droplets and has an incubation period of 12-14 days

61
Q

What are the symptoms of mumps?

A
  • prodrome of fever, malaise, and anorexia
  • parotid enlargement (usually bilateral but not always synchronous) 24 hour later
  • swelling of submaxillary and submandibular glands
  • orchitis (usually unilateral) with testicular enlargement two to three times normal size
62
Q

What is the most common cause of pancreatitis in children?

A

mumps

63
Q

What is the dx of mumps?

A
  • during an outbreak, a diagnosis can be made by determining recent exposure and parotitis
  • usually, the disease is diagnosed on clinical grounds, and no confirmatory laboratory testing is needed
  • if there is uncertainty about the diagnosis, a test of saliva or blood may be carried out; a newer diagnostic confirmation, using real-time nests (PCR) technology, has also been developed
  • as with any inflammation of the salivary glands, the serum level of enzyme amylase is often elevated
  • CSF demonstrates increased lymphocytes and decreased glucose
64
Q

What is the tx of mumps?

A
  • there is no available cure for mumps and treatment is supportive
  • symptoms usually last for 7-10 days and patients are contagious for up to 9 days after onset
  • may need to provide scrotal support if painful or swollen testicle
65
Q

When is the MMR vaccine given?

A

12-15 months then again at 4-6 years of age

66
Q

What is pertussis?

A

whooping cough is a highly contagious respiratory tract infection

67
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of pertussis?

A

severe hacking cough followed by a high-pitched intake of breath that sounds like a whoop

68
Q

What causes pertussis?

A

gram-negative bacteria Bordetella pertussis

69
Q

How do you consider pertussis in?

A

consider in adults with cough > 2 weeks, patients <2 years old

70
Q

What are the stages of pertussis?

A

catarrhal, paroxysmal, convalescent

71
Q

What is the catarrhal stage?

A

cold-like symptoms, poor feeding, and sleeping

72
Q

What is the paroxysmal stage?

A

high-pitched “inspiratory whoop”

73
Q

What is the convalescent stage?

A

residual cough (100 days)

74
Q

How is pertussis diagnosed?

A

a nasopharyngeal swab of nasopharyngeal secretions -culture

75
Q

What is the treatment of pertussis?

A

macrolide (clarithromycin/azithromycin), supportive care with steroids/beta2 agonists

  • vaccination: 5 doses - 2,4,5,15-18 month, 4-6 yrs (DTap)
  • 11-18 years = 1 Tdap
  • expectant mothers should get Tdap during each pregnancy, usually at 27-36 weeks
76
Q

What is pinworm infection?

A

also known as enterobiasis vermicularis

-a human parasitic disease caused by the pinworm (a type of roundworm)

77
Q

What is the most common symptom of pinworm?

A

itching in the anal area

-can make sleeping difficult

78
Q

What are the other signs and symptoms of pinworm?

A
  • perianal itching especially at night (eggs are laid at night)
  • eggs cling to the fingers while itching and are transmitted to other people either directly or through food or surfaces
  • eggs can thrive for 2-3 weeks on inanimate object
79
Q

What is the diagnosis of pinworms?

A

“scotch tape test” done in the early morning

-can see the eggs under microscopy

80
Q

What is the treatment of pinworms?

A

albendazole or mebendazole

81
Q

What is roseola also known as?

A 
exanthema subitum 
roseola infantum 
rose rash of infants
sixth disease
baby measles
82
Q

What is roseola caused by?

A

HHV 6 and 7

83
Q

Who does roseola usually affect?

A

child between six months and two years of age

84
Q

How does roseola usually begin?

A

sudden high fever (102-104)
-can cause, in rare cases, febrile convulsions due to sudden rise in body temperatures, but in many cases the child appears normal

85
Q

What happens after a few days with roseola?

A
  • the fever subsides and just as the child appears to be recovering, a red rash appears
  • a blanching macular or maculopapular rash starting on the neck and trunk and spreading to the face and extremities
  • occasionally the rash is vesicular, generally non-rustic
  • rash typically persists for one to two days
  • only childhood viral exanthema that starts on the trunk - spreading to the legs and neck
86
Q

What is the dx of roseola?

A

clinical

87
Q

What is the tx of roseola?

A

supportive

-bed rest, fluids, and medications to reduce fever

88
Q

What are the characteristics of rubella?

A
  • “3-day rash” pink light-red spotted maculopapular rash first appears on face, spreads caudally to the trunk and extremities and becomes generalized within 24 hours (lasts 3 days)
  • cephalocaudal spread of maculopapular rash, lymphadenopathy (posterior cervical, posterior auricular
  • although the distribution of the rubella rash is similar to that of rubeola, the spread is much more rapid, and the rash doe snot darken or coalesce
  • teratogenic in 1’st trimester - congenital syndrome - deafness, cataracts, TTP, mental retardation
89
Q

What is the dx of rubella?

A

laboratory diagnosis of rubella is warranted when congenital rubella syndrome is suspected or when the diagnosis is sough for a condition compatible with known complications of postnatal rubella, such as arthritis

  • serologic assays, primarily enzyme immunoassays (EIA)< are used more frequently
  • rubella virus - specific IgM antibodies are present in people recently infected with rubella virus but these antibodies can persist for over a year and a positive test result needs to be interpreted with caution
  • the presence of these antibodies along with, or a short time after, the characteristic rash confirms the diagnosis
90
Q

What is the tx of rubella?

A

consists of supportive care

  • no specific therapy for rubella infection is available
  • MMR vaccine (12-15 months, 4-6 year)
91
Q

What is varicella?

A

chickenpox

  • primary infections - clusters of vesicles on an erythematous base
  • dewdrops on rose petal in different stages
  • it starts on the face and spreads down
  • acutely causes chickenpox - becomes latent in the dorsal root ganglion
  • symptomatic treatment may use acyclovir in special populations
92
Q

What is Herpes Zoster?

A

shingles

-varicella reactivation of multinucleate giant cells

93
Q

What is Zoster Ophthalmicus?

A

shingles involving CCN V, dendritic lesions on slit lamp exam if keratoconjunctivitis is present

94
Q

What is Zoster Oticus (Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome)?

A

facial nerve (CN VII) otalgia, lesions on the ear, auditory canal and TM, facial palsy auditory symptoms

95
Q

What is the treatment for shingles?

A

acyclovir, valacyclovir, and famciclovir - given within 72 hours to prevent post-herpetic neuralgia

96
Q

What is postherpetic neuralgia?

A

pain > 3 months, paresthesias or decreased sensation

97
Q

What is the treatment for postherpetic neuralgia?

A

gabapentin or TCA, topical lidocaine gel, and capsaicin

98
Q

What are the characteristics and who should the herpes zoster vaccine be given to?

A

a live, attenuated virus vaccine - vaccination is recommend for immunocompetent adults >60 years of age

Peds EOR (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions