infectious disease Flashcards
1
Q
What is the proper treatment in a septic newborn born to a mother with flu like symptoms and white nodules on placenta?
A
Amp and gent for listeria
2
Q
What is the infectious etiology associated with rose spots in the skin?
A
Salmonella typhosa
3
Q
What is the infectious etiology associated with ecthyma gangrenosum (large pustules on indurated inflamed base)?
A
Pseudomonas
4
Q
What is the infectious etiology of non blanching rash and petechiae?
A
Neisseria
5
Q
What is the common benign side effect of rifampin?
A
Orange secretions
6
Q
What is the prophylactic drug of choice for meningococcemia?
A
Rifampin
7
Q
What are the indications for meningococcemia prophylaxis?
A
Persons with contact to oral secretions
Household contacts or close contacts outside the house
8
Q
What should you consider in a patient with elevated d dimer, low platelets and low fibrinogen?
A
DIC
9
Q
What etiology should you consider in septic shock and how should you empirically treat?
A
Vancomycin and ceftriaxone to cover meningococcemia
10
Q
What are the likely causes of meningitis in the neonate?
A
GBS
Listeria
E. coli
Enterovirus
11
Q
What are the common causes of meningitis in young children?
A
Strep pneumo Neisseria meningitidis Enterovirus Borrelia burgdorferi Rickettsia
12
Q
What complications of meningitis should be monitored for?
A
Focal deficits and SIADH
13
Q
When does primary peritonitis occur?
A
Without an obvious intraabdominal source in patients with nephrotic syndrome or cirrhosis
14
Q
What is the treatment for pneumococcal peritonitis ?
A
Third generation cephalosporin PLUS aminoglycoside
15
Q
What type of abdominal infection is the likely source in a child with nephrotic syndrome? Why?
A
Encapsulated organism such as pneumococcus due to loss of IgG
16
Q
What is the likely source of infection in a child with secondary peritonitis?
A
Gram negative organisms and anaerobes
17
Q
What should you consider as a diagnosis in a dialysis patient with fever and abdominal pain ? What infectious etiology would you consider ?
A
Secondary peritonitis due to perforated bowel - due to staph epidermidis
18
Q
What is the most common cause of vp shunt infection?
A
Staph epidermidis
19
Q
What organisms does latex agglutination test for?
A
GBS
H. Flu
Neisseria meningitidis
Strep pneumo
20
Q
When is latex agglutination helpful?
A
When partially treated infections are unreliably detected by culture
21
Q
When can latex agglutination give false positives?
A
After HIb vaccine or with cross reactivity of E. coli
22
Q
What is the treatment of choice in an immunocompromised child with fever or neutropenia ?
A
Zosyn + aminoglycoside OR
Ceftazidime (gram negative coverage)
23
Q
What is used for prophylaxis against PcP?
A
Bactrim
24
Q
What diagnosis should you consider in a patient with ground glass appearance on X-ray?
A
Pcp and HIV
25
What is the treatment for cryptosporidium ?
Nitazoxanide
26
What are the symptoms of cryptosporidium ?
Diarrhea that is severe, non bloody, watery lasting up to 10 days
27
What bacteria should you consider in a patient with intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies on scraping ?
Chlamydia pneumonia
28
What diagnosis should you consider in a patient with afebrile staccato cough, tachypnea and eye discharge?
Chlamydia pneumonia
29
How is chlamydia definitively diagnosed?
Chlamydia trachomatis - PCR
| Chlamydia pneumoniae - microimmunofluotescent antibody test
30
How would you treat a chlamydia conjunctivitis ?
Oral erythromycin or Sulfonamides (do not treatment with topical)
31
How would you treat chlamydia pneumonia?
Azithromycin x 5 days
| Erythromycin x 14 days
32
How would you treat an uncomplicated chlamydia genital infection ?
Doxycycline x 7 days
| Azithromycin 1 gram x 2
33
A teenager presents with cough and low grade fever, chest x-ray shows scattered perihilar infiltrates. You want to choose mycoplasma on the exam but that option is not available, what is the diagnosis?
Chlamydia pneumonia
34
What disease should you consider if fever, myalgia, headache and petechiae rash that starts on hands and feet then spreads centrally? What "bug" is the culprit?
Rocky Mountain spotted fever - rickettsia rickettsii
35
What are the peak times for Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
May and June
36
What do you do when a patient presents with suspicion for Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
Treat with doxycycline x 7 days (even if child is under 8) -- then order direct immunoflourescence. TREAT FIRST
37
What is the difference between Rocky Mountain spotted fever and ehrlichiosis?
Ehrlichiosis may cause leukopenia and elevated LFTs
38
What are the symptoms of human ehrlichiosis ? And what disease presents with the same symptoms?
Fever, headache, myalgia
Thrombocytopenia and hyponatremia
Same as Rocky Mountain spotted fever
39
What is the treatment of Q fever?
Doxycycline
40
What are symptoms of Q fever?
Flu like symptoms followed by respiratory symptoms and pneumonia (no rash)
41
How is Q fever transmitted?
Inhalation of infected particles
42
What is the appropriate treatment for cat scratch disease with draining lymph node?
Nothing! Unless immunocompromised, hepatomegaly or large painful adenopathy
43
What is the bacteria that causes cat scratch disease ? How is it diagnosed ?
```
Bartonella henselae
Serologic testing (enzyme immunoassay or immunofluorescent antibody test)
```
44
Which antibiotics would be appropriate for cat scratch disease?
Azithromycin
Cipro (if >18)
Bactrim
Rifampin
45
What should NoT be done for treatment of cat scratch disease?
Penicillins
| I&D
46
What should you use to treat cellulitis after a cat bite? What if penicillin allergic patient?
```
Augmentin --> if allergic, use:
Doxycycline
Azithromycin
Bactrim
Cefuroxime (if not severe PCN allergy)
```
47
What bacteria should you consider if described as a pleomorphic gram negative organism?
Haemophilus influenza
48
What disease should you consider in a patient from another country with peri orbital cellulitis or Pyogenic arthritis?
Haemophilus influenza
49
What bacteria should be considered in a non-immunized patient with bacterial meningitis?
Heamophilus influenza
50
What is the appropriate treatment if invasive haemophilus influenza infection is suspected?
Ceftriaxone or cefotaxime (if allergic, use chloramphenicol or merrem)
51
What 3 encapsulated organisms should be considered in patients without functioning spleen?
Strep pneumo
Neisseria meningitidis
H. Flu (non typable)
52
When is prophylaxis for H Flu contacts indicated?
If any household members who are immunocompromised or unvaccinated then all household members need rifampin prophylaxis
53
What is the appropriate prophylaxis for non typable h flu infection in household member?
None!! Prophylaxis Only in typable h flu
54
When do all nursery children need to be treated prophylactically for H. Flu?
Only if 2 or more cases within 60 days!
55
What are the three phases of pertussis?
Catarrhal
Paroxysmal
Recovery
56
How is diagnosis of pertussis confirmed?
PCR (DFA not used)
57
What is the treatment for pertussis? How does it help?
Erythromycin, azithromycin or clarithromycin
Bactrim can also be used
Decreases period of communicability but does not shorten the paroxysmal stage!
58
When should prophylaxis against pertussis be given?
Anyone exposed to someone with pertussis regardless of immunization status needs azithromycin
59
What should you consider in a preschool age child wth cough and elevated wbcs with high lymphocytes?
Pertussis
60
What is the appropriate diagnosis and treatment in a patient who ate chicken salad at a picnic and then developed vomiting and diarrhea?
Salmonella - supportive therapy
61
When should treatment for salmonella be given? What treatment is appropriate in those cases?
If under age 3 months, immunocompromised or with hx of colitis - give ceftriaxone
62
What is the treatment for invasive typhoid fever?
Broad spectrum cephalosporins
63
What should you consider as a diagnosis in a patient with diarrhea, malaise, fever and "rose spots"?
Typhoid serotype of salmonella
64
What infection should you consider when a nail goes through a shoe?
Pseudomonas osteomyelitis
65
In what population does pseudomonas cepacia cause pneumonia and death?
Cystic fibrosis
66
What should you consider in a child on a dairy farm who presents with fevers and myalgias?
Brucellosis
67
How do you treat brucellosis?
Prolonged treatment with tetracycline or bactrim and rifampin
68
How would you choose to treat pseudomonas?
Piperacillin/tazobactam and gentamicin
| Ceftazidime for pulmonary infections
69
What are the most common antibiotics that cause clostridium difficile?
Clindamycin
| Cephalosporins
70
What is the most appropriate first line treatment for pseudomembranous colitis?
Metronidazole
| Vancomycin PO is only used if flagyl does not work
71
What is the appropriate treatment for strep pneumo meningitis?
Vancomycin + ceftriaxone (or cefotaxime)
72
What are red lines in the skin folds and what infection are they associated with?
Pastia lines - scarlet fever and strep pharyngitis
73
What does treatment of strep throat prevent? What does it not prevent?
Prevents rheumatic fever
| Does not prevent glomerulonephritis
74
What is the appropriate treatment for strep throat?
PCN or amoxicillin
| If allergic, azithromycin, clindamycin or first generation cephalosporin
75
What is the name of strep cellulitis causing red streaks and lymphangitis?
Erysipelas
76
What diagnosis should you consider in a patient with rapidly evolving erythema and inflammation after minor trauma?
Necrotizing fasciitis
77
What infections can cause toxic shock syndrome?
Staph
Epstein Barr virus
Coxsackie
Adenovirus
78
How does late gbs infection occur?
Focal infection at 1-3 months
79
The CDC recommends prophylaxis for GBS under what conditions?
Previous infant with GBS.
GBS bacteriuria during current pregnancy
Positive GBS screen (35-37 wk)
Unknown GBS with preterm labor, ROM>18 hr or fever >38
80
How does the infantile form of botulism develop in infants?
Spores are ingested and they germinate in the underdeveloped GI tract
81
What condition should you consider in an infant with poor sucking/feeding, hypotonia with descending paralysis and ptosis?
Botulism
82
What condition should you consider in a 6 month old infant with constipation, urinary retention, weak cry and absent gag reflex?
Botulism
83
How is botulism caused in adults?
Ingestion of botulism toxin from poorly canned goods
84
How do you diagnose botulism?
Presence of toxin in stool or serum, PCR is not used.
85
How does the botulism toxin cause symptoms?
Toxin blocks release of acetylcholine into the synapse
86
What is the appropriate treatment for botulism and why?
Supportive care only!
| Antibiotics cause lysis or spores and release of neurotoxins
87
What is the difference between botulism and myasthenia gravis?
With MG, tensilon is positive and onset is gradual
| With botulism, tensilon is negative and onset is rapid
88
What is the worst choice of antibiotics for botulism?
Aminoglycoside potentiate the toxin
89
Under what conditions do you need to treat an infant for syphillis?
If mother treated within the last month of pregnancy or if she was treated with erythromycin; if baby's titers are higher than mothers
90
What disease should you consider in a newborn with maculopapular rash, hepatosplenomegaly and peeling skin?
Syphilis
91
Which syphilis screens are nonspecific nontreponemal antibody tests?
VDRL
| RPR
92
What conditions may cause false positive VDRL and RPR?
Epstein Barr
Hepatitis
Varicella
93
What test for syphillis remains positive for life and what type of test is it?
FTA ABS - treponemal test used to verify positive screen
94
What is the appropriate treatment for congenital syphillis ?
Penicillin
95
What should you consider in an infant with poor feeding, sniffles, bullous lesions and osteochondritis of joints?
Syphillis
96
What hepatic defects are associated with congenital syphilis?
Hydrops fetalis
Hepatosplenomegaly
Hemolytic anemia
97
What type of skin findings are associated with congenital syphillis ?
Maculopapular rash
| Bullous lesions
98
What should you consider in a patient with diarrhea, low platelets and anemia?
HUS
99
What is the treatment for campylobacter fetus ?
Broad spectrum cephalosporins or gentamicin
100
What is the treatment for campylobacter jejuni?
Azithromycin
101
Tularemia is caused by what type of bacteria? What is the appropriate antibiotic for tularemia ?
Gram negative francisella tularensis.
| Gentamicin (second line: tetracycline, ciprofloxacin, streptomycin)
102
How does a child become infected with tularemia?
Consumption of rabbit meat - fever, hepatosplenomegaly, rash and lymphadenopathy
103
What disease is caused by yersinia pestis?
Bubonic plague
104
What is the best choice of treatment for bubonic plague?
Streptomycin and gentamicin
| May also use doxycycline, chloramphenicol and tetracycline
105
What should you consider in a young child with bloody diarrhea and elevated WBC with hx of ingesting unpasteurized milk or raw meat?
Yersinia enterocolitica
106
What is the appropriate treatment for yersinia enterocolitica?
None unless immunocompromised, then give bactrim, Aminoglycosides or cefotaxime
107
What disease should you be concerned about in a patient with swollen painful lymph nodes and hx of exposure to a dead animal?
Bubonic plague
108
What is the appropriate first line treatment for MSSA?
Beta lactamase resistant agents such as oxacillin or nafcillin
109
What is considered a coagulate negative staph infection and when does it occur?
Staph epidermitis - with IV lines or catheter
110
What is the appropriate treatment for a carbuncle/furuncle?
Incision and drainage (if >5cm, treat for MRSA)
111
What is the treatment for hospital acquired MRSA ?
Vancomycin
112
What antibiotics are community acquired MRSA infections sometimes susceptible to?
Bactrim
Gentamicin
Doxycycline
113
When are peak and trough levels measured with Aminoglycosides?
Peak - 30 minutes after dose
| Trough - 30 minutes before next dose
114
Why is it important to prevent high peak levels of Aminoglycosides ?
Ototoxicity
115
How do penicillins work?
Interfere with cell wall synthesis
116
What is "special" about beta lactamase bacteria?
They produce penicllinase which cleaves PCN - therefore penicillinase resistant antibiotics are required
117
How are MRSA infections resistant to methicillin?
They interfere with PCN binding proteins therefore the antibiotic can't bind to the organism
118
What is the dose of amoxicillin for otitis media, pneumonia or sinusitus?
80-90 mg/kg/day
119
What limitations are associated with use of first generation cephalosporins?
Do not penetrate the CSF
| Not effective against listeria or enterococcus
120
What are first generation cephalosporins good for? What are the available oral Medications available in this class?
Gram positive cocci (including MSSA).
| Cephalexin, cefadroxil
121
What is the fourth generation cephalosporin and what is it used for?
Cefepime - gram negatives (pseudomonas) and gram positives (staph)
122
What classes of infection are covered by clindamycin ?
Aerobic and anaerobic gram positives, anaerobic gram negatives cocci, chlamydia and Protozoa
123
What are the oral third generation cephalosporins?
Cefpodozime and cefdinir
124
What types of infections have good coverage with third generation cephalosporins?
Meningitis
Sinusitis / respiratory infections
Uti
125
What types of infections are covered by macrolides?
```
Mycoplasma
Moraxella / H. Flu
Strep pyogenes
Chlamydia
Pertussis
legionella
Nontuberculous mycobacterium
```
126
What types of infections can be treated with rifampin?
Staph osteomyelitis or endocarditis
| TB
127
When would quinolones be indicated in children ?
Multiresistance
Pseudomonas
Anthrax
128
What interferes with quinolone absorption?
Antacids with aluminum, mag or calcium
129
When are tetracyclines contraindicated?
In children <8 unless Rocky Mountain spotted fever
130
What antibiotic increases risk for cardiac arrhythmia?
Quinolones
131
What should be used to treat enterococcus infection?
Ampicillin plus vancomycin (unless VRE)
132
What is the appropriate treatment for neisseria gonrrhea?
Ceftriaxone IM x 1
133
What 4 types of infections are treated with metronidazole?
Trichomonas
Syphilis
Gardnerella
H. Pylori
134
What test can be used to screen and to verify diagnosis of mono?
Heterophile antibody
If negative, confirm with serum IgM
There is high false positive rate of screening test in children <4
135
What is the diagnostic study for cmv?
Urine culture within first 3-4 weeks of life
136
What disease should you consider in an infant with chorioretinitis, periventricular cerebral calcifications and sensorineural hearing loss?
CMV
137
What TORCH infection causes petechiae and outputs secondary to thrombocytopenia (blueberry muffin baby)?
CMV
138
How is CMV infection spread?
Virus is shed in urine, saliva or genital secretions
139
A patient presents with mono type infection but mono testing is negative...what should you consider?
CMV
140
What is the treatment for CMV and what is the major side effect?
Ganciclovir - marrow suppression
141
What type of infections are caused by arboviruses and when do they typically occur?
Encephalitis - late spring and early summer
142
What are the csf findings in arbovirus encephalitis?
Mild pleocytosis and elevated protein
143
How is west Nile encephalitis diagnosis confirmed ?
IgM in serum or CSF or Fourfold elevation of serum IgG during acute infection
144
What diagnosis should you consider when a patient presents with high fever, rash and viral meningitis during summer?
Coxsackie (enterovirus)
145
How is an enterovirus infection confirmed ?
PCR
146
When can unimmunized children return to school if there is a measles outbreak in a local school?
Give the vaccine prior to return to school (or the booster if not completed) OR
Wait 26 days after the last person developed parotitis
147
When can a child with mumps return to school?
9 days after the onset of parotitis
148
What are the 4 complications of mumps infection?
Parotitis
Meningitis/encephalitis
Orchitis
Pancreatitis
149
What diagnosis should you consider In a patient with fever, headache, muscle aches and unilateral facial swelling anterior to the ear?
Mumps
150
What is the difference between mumps and viral parotitis?
Mumps is associated with low fever and non toxic appearance in unimmunized child
Viral parotitis is associated with high fever and toxic appearing child who is fully immunized
151
What should you consider in a patient with intermittent salivary gland swelling?
Salivary gland stone
152
What is the most likely manifestation in a patient with mumps and parotitis?
Orchitis (but not infertility)
153
What disease should you consider in a patient with high fever for 3 days followed by maculopapular rash?
HHV-6 aka roseola
154
What should you consider in an unvaccinated hold with maculopapular rash associated with mild viral symptoms ?
Rubella
155
What vaccine should NOT be given to pregnant women?
MMR
156
What occurs in 50% of infant infected with rubella in their first trimester?
Cataracts and PDA
157
What are the 7 main symptoms associated with measles ?
```
Cough
Coryza
conjunctivitis
Koplik spots
Confluent maculopapular rash
Fever
Photophobia
```
158
What is measles the most contagious?
5 days before to 5 days after the appearance of the rash
159
What is the method for measles diagnosis?
Serum IgM (elevated for one month)
160
How can immunocompromised patients be protected after measles contact ?
Immunization and immunoglobulin
161
What is the appropriate measles post-exposure management for incompletely immunized children ?
Immunoglobulin within 6 days
| MMR vaccine within 3 days
162
When should children receive revaccination after post exposure treatment?
After age 12 months and at least 5 months after immunoglobulin was given
163
What is the diagnosis in a patient with slapped cheek rash that spreads to extremities?
Parvovirus b19 aka fifth disease
164
What virus can cause hydrops fetalis? What else can this virus cause?
Parvovirus B19 - also causes aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease
165
What is the best test for diagnosis of hsv?
Csf PCR
166
When is acyclovir used?
Hsv prophylaxis and treatment
| Varicella only in immunocompromised
167
What is the appropriate test for HIV in children and why?
| When should exposed infants be tested?
If <18 months, need PCR (antibodies can cross the placenta)
| Birth, 2 months, 4 months and 6 months
168
What are 4 buzzwords that might point toward HIV infection in a child?
Recurrent bacterial infection
Hepatosplenomegaly
Failure to thrive
Developmental delay
169
When should testing for HIV be performed after any form of exposure to HIV?
At time of exposure
| 6 weeks, 12 weeks and 6 months
170
How can HIV vertical transmission be reduced?
Zidovudine and nevirapine during the perinatal period
171
Which vaccines are contraindicated in children with HIV?
Measles and varicella (only contraindicated if severely immunocompromised )
172
Why do children with HIV develop recurrent bacterial infections?
Increased production of nonfunctional antibodies
173
When can children with zoster return to school?
Once lesions can be covered or are crusted over
174
What are the only indications for use of Foscarnet?
CMV retinitis in immunocompromised
Severe mucocutaneous HSV resistant to acyclovir
Zoster
175
What should be the treatment for immunocompromised children exposed to active chicken pox infection?
When should it be given?
Varicella zoster immune globulin (also indicated for newborns)
Within 96 hours or exposure
176
How does adenovirus typically present in the summer?
Conjunctivitis, pharyngitis and otitis media
| Intussusception or diarrhea
177
What test confirms RSV infection?
Immunofluorescence
178
How can you diagnose rotavirus infection?
rotazyme antigen test of the stool
179
What diagnosis should you consider in an infant with 1-2 days of fever, several episodes of watery stool and vomiting ?
Rotavirus
180
What should you do in a patient exposed to a bat but not bitten by it?
Treat for rabies - immunoglobulin plus rabies vaccine within 7 days
181
What are possible treatment options for ascaris lumbricoides infection?
Albendazole x 1
Mebendazole x 3
Ivermectin x 1
182
What diagnosis should you consider in a patient with recent travel from a tropical region who presents with signs of acute abdominal obstruction?
Ascaris lumbricoides
183
What is the antibiotic of choice for entamoeba histolytica?
Flagyl
184
What medications should Never be given to people with amebiasis?
Corticosteroids or anti motility agents
185
What infection should you consider in a patient with 1 week of abdominal pain, tenesmus and bloody diarrhea as well as liver or brain abscess?
Entamoeba
186
What is seen on stool culture in amebiasis?
Hematophagous trophozoites
187
What is the recommended treatment for intraluminal entamoeba infection?
Amebicide (iodoquinol, paramomycin, diloxanide)
188
What infection should you consider in a child with hepatomegaly, abdominal pain and wheezing?
Toxocara canis
189
Exposure to what animal may lead to toxocariasis?
Dogs and cats
190
What signs and symptoms are present in visceral larval migrans?
Fever, hepatomegaly and wheezing
191
What form of toxocariasis presents with visual problems ?
Ocular larval migrans
192
What symptoms are seen with covert toxocariasis?
GI symptoms plus pruritis and rash
193
How is toxocariasis diagnosed?
Elisa
| Stool cultures should still be done to rule out other parasitic infections
194
What is the treatment for visceral larval migrans?
Mebendazole or thiabendazole
195
What is the treatment of giardia?
Flagyl, tinidazole and nitazoxanide
196
What is the treatment for tapeworm?
Praziquantel
197
What is the treatment for strongyloides?
Thiabendazole
198
What is the treatment for enterobius vermicularis?
Mebendazole, Albendazole or pyrantel (given once then repeated in 2 weeks)
199
What is permethrin 1% used for?
Lice ( the 5% must be used to treat scabies)
200
How should anti-malaria medication be taken when traveling to a chloroquine resistant region?
Chloroquine x 1, one week prior to travel, weekly during travel and for 4 weeks after travel
201
Which fungal infection is an encapsulated yeast?
Cryptococcus
202
What infection is associated with pigeon droppings ?
Cryptococcus
203
What is the treatment of cryptococcal infection?
Amphotericin b PLUS Fluconazole
204
What medication should be added to the recommended treatment for cryptococcosis when the infection is resistant?
Flucytosine
205
What infection should be considered in a patient with aids who develops severe pulmonary disease or meningoencephalitis?
Cryptococcus neoformans
206
What infection should you consider in a patient with flu like symptoms from California, Arizona or Texas?
Coccidioidomycosis
207
What is the treatment for coccidioidomycosis?
Amphotericin, Fluconazole or Ketoconazole
208
What infection should you consider in an asthmatic with worsening symptoms with eosinophils or infiltrates on CXR?
Aspergillosis
209
What is the treatment for invasive aspergillosis ?
Voriconazole or amphotericin B
210
What infection should you consider in a patient with flu like symptoms and hepatosplenomegaly ?
Histoplasmosis
211
What is the treatment for histoplasmosis ?
Amphotericin
212
What regions of the country is histoplasmosis found in?
Ohio, Missouri and Mississippi River valleys
213
What animal is associated with histoplasmosis ?
Pigeon droppings
214
What infection causes an ulcer on the skin with a chain of nodules parallel to the drainage lymphatic channel which may also cause joint involvement ?
Sporotrichosis
215
What are possible side effects of amphotericin ?
Fever
Hypokalemia
Nephrotoxicity
216
What medication should be given to an immunocompromised patient with low neutrophils who is not responding to antibiotics ?
Amphotericin
217
What is Fluconazole used for?
Candida albicans (used once daily for resistant oral thrush)
218
What type of contact precautions are needed for RSV?
Direct contact - hand washing for transmission prevention
219
What type of precautions are needed for mumps, rubella and pertussis?
Droplet precautions (no special ventilation system needed)
220
What type of precautions are needed for legionella, candida and pseudomonas?
Droplet precautions (no special ventilation system needed)
221
What type of precautions are needed for aspergillosis, measles and varicella?
Airborne transmission (special hospital ventilation system needed)
222
What is the etiology of septicemia in a child 1-12 months?
```
GBS
E. coli
Strep pneumo
Staph aureus
Salmonella
```
