cardio/pulm Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are 4 main triggers for asthma?

A

Weather change
Aspirin
Beta blockers
Viral URI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the trend in asthma mortality?

A

Mortality of asthma is increasing!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Is asthma more common in boys or girls?

A

More common in boys until puberty - but later it is equal in boys and girls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 3 clinical descriptions associated with mild intermittent asthma?

A

Symptoms less then 2x weekly
Night symptoms less then 2x monthly
No pulmonary function abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 3 clinical descriptions associated with mild persistent asthma ?

A

Normal PFTs
Symptoms more than 2x per week
Night symptoms more than 2x per month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the treatment for mild persistent asthma?

A

Low dose inhaled steroids

2nd line - leukotriene inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the treatment for moderate persistent asthma?

A

Low to medium dose steroid + laba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When do you classify a child as having moderate persistent asthma?

A

When a child requires bronchodilators more than twice per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the definition of mild exacerbation of asthma ?

A

Decreased pulmonary function but still >50% of predicted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is levalbuterol indicated instead of albuterol?

A

Only in patients with tachycardia, tremors or irritability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is chest PT and mucolytics indicated for asthma?

A

Never

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are 5 side effects of beta adrenergic agonists?

A
Tremors
Tachycardia
Hypokalemia
Hyperglycemia
Hypomagnesemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does high or low CO2 indicate in the setting of acute asthma?

A

High pCO2 indicates CO2 retention and fatigue with respiratory failure
Low pCO2 reflects tachypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are 5 signs of hypercapnia?

A
Agitation
Flushing
Altered mental status
Headache
Tachycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic nighttime cough?

A

Reactive airway disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are 4 main causes of infant wheezing, other than asthma?

A

Aspiration
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
Foreign body
Vascular rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the definition of exercise induced asthma?

A

Coughing and wheezing 5 minutes after exercising with improvement within 15 minutes of rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What diagnosis should you consider in a patient with a “respiratory infection that is not clearing”?

A

Foreign body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 4 main causes of poor exercise tolerance ?

A

Cardiac disease
Anemia
Muscle weakness
Psychological factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What medication may be indicated for exercise induced asthma?

A

Leukotriene inhibitor (montelukast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 4 risk factors for persistent asthma ?

A

Onset before age 3
IgE elevated
Maternal hx asthma
Eosinophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What diagnosis must be considered in a patient with unlabored breathing but sudden onset of intermittent productive cough and wheezing?

A

Foreign body aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What diagnosis corresponds with blunted inspiratory loop on spirometry?

A

Vocal cord paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the safest and most effective way to confirm foreign body aspiration?

A

Airway fluoroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the treatment for a swallowing dysfunction ?

A

Thickened formula and upright feeding position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are 3 signs of respiratory failure ?

A

Tachypnea
Retractions
Pulsus paradoxus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus?

A

When the difference in blood pressure during inspiration and expiration is >10mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the first thing to do when deciding whether to intubate a patient ?

A

Assess respiratory effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the best way to assess for the severity of respiratory distress ?

A

Sweating / fast heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the proper way to administer oxygen in a patient with chronic lung disease and why?

A

At the lowest concentration needed to maintain sats above 90 …rapid correction of hypoxia can lead to respiratory arrest because respiratory drive is driven by hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are 3 initial screening tests for a chronic cough?

A

Sweat choride test
Tb skin test
Cxr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What value indicates an abnormal sweat chloride test?

A

> 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How is cystic fibrosis inherited?

A

Autosomal recessive (carriers show no signs of disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the most effective test for confirming cystic fibrosis?

A

Sweat chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What disease should you suspect in an infant with hypochloremic alkalosis ?

A

Cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If a sibling of someone with CF marries someone in the general population, what are the odds of them having a child with CF?

A

1 in 150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If two carriers of CF are married, what is the risk they will have a child with Cf?

A

1 in 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the carrier rate of CF in the general population ?

A

1 in 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the odds of a healthy sibling of someone with CF being a carrier?

A

2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What vitamin may be deficient in patients with CF? What should be done about this deficiency ?

A

Vitamin E (supplements should be started prior to age 5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What lab study if abnormal in patients with vitamin K malabsorption?

A

Prolonged PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are 3 common GI manifestations of CF in the neonatal period?

A

Meconium ileus
Meconium peritonitis
Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the X-ray findings of meconium peritonitis?

A

Pseudocyst (calcified meconium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the abdominal film appearance with meconium ileus?

A

Ground glass appearance due to decreased bowel gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the antibiotic treatment of an acute exacerbation of CF?

A

Aminoglycoside and piperacillin (for pseudomonas coverage )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What diagnosis should you consider in a patient with lower body edema, hepatomegaly, gallop heart rhythm and clubbing of fingers?

A

Cor pulmonale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What causing flushing and agitation as well as headaches due to cerebral vasodilation?

A

Hypercarbia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How is apnea of prematurity treated?

A

Caffeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are 4 main causes of central apnea which must be ruled out before the diagnosis “apnea of prematurity” is given?

A

Sepsis
Medication
Anemia
Electrolyte abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the likely cause of a patient in acute respiratory distress who is post-op tonsillectomy due to history of obstructive apnea?

A

Pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the definition of apnea?

A

Cessation on breathing >20 seconds or <20 seconds if associated w bradycardia or cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the diagnosis in a patient with pleural fluid that has >110 triglycerides, high lymphocytes and protein >3?

A

Chylothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When is pleural effusion likely to be an “exudate”?

A

With pneumonia, Cancer, inflammation or trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What will the fluid LDH and protein levels be in an exudative pleural effusion?

A

LDH 3x the serum LDH

Protein >3 grams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are 3 causes of transudative pleural effusion?

A

Cirrhosis
Nephrotic syndrome
CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the triglyceride level in transudative pleural fluid?

A

<50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the diagnosis and treatment for a patient with tachypnea, tachycardia, low BP and tracheal deviation ?

A

Tension PTX - needle or chest tube ASAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are 3 causes of respiratory deterioration in an intubated patient?

A

Tension PTX
Incorrect tube positioning
Equipment failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are 6 main risk factors for SIDS ?

A
Sleeping on tummy
Co sleeping 
Low income
Smoking
Cold weather
Young parents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are 6 possible causes of ALTE in an infant?

A
Neurological abnormality
Abuse/trauma
Lung infection / apnea
Sepsis
Hypoglycemia
Gerd / aspiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When can an infant with ALTE be discharged home from the ER?

A

First episode that is brief and presents with an explanation (uri or reflux)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the initial step when presented with an infant with noisy breathing?

A

Birth history and observe breathing in different positions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the only way to correlate pulse oximetry and pulmonary lung function?

A

ABG (CBG is unreliable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What diagnosis should you consider in a patient with chocolate colored blood and cyanosis despite normal pulse ox?

A

Methemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are 3 conditions in which pulse oximetry is unreliable?

A

Carboxyhemoglobin
Methemoglobin
Impaired perfusion (septic shock)

66
Q

What are the 4 common causes of stridor in a neonate?

A

Choanal atresia
Vascular ring
Laryngeal web/stenosis
Vocal cord paralysis

67
Q

What is the most common cause of stridor in a 1 month old infant?

A

Laryngomalacia/tracheomalacia

68
Q

What are 3 causes of stridor in a child age 1-4 years old?

A

Croup
Epiglotitis
Foreign body aspiration

69
Q

What is the likely cause of stridor in a child older than 5 years old?

A

vocal cord dysfunction
Peritonsillar abscess
Anaphylaxis

70
Q

What are classic X-ray findings with bronchiolitis?

A

Hyperinflation and patchy infiltrates

71
Q

How can bronchiolitis be distinguished from chlamydia pneumonia ?

A

Chlamydia typically presents at 1-3 weeks of age with staccato cough and no fever or wheezing

72
Q

What is the most common cause of bronchiectasis?

A

Cystic fibrosis

73
Q

What is a permanent dilation of small airway segments?

A

Bronchiectasis

74
Q

How is bronchiectasis diagnosed?

A

CT of the chest

75
Q

What diagnosis should you consider in a patient with repeat lower respiratory tract infections with consistent right middle love atelectasis and cough that is worse after lying down?

A

Bronchiectasis

76
Q

Other than CF, what are 6 causes of bronchiectasis ?

A
Dyskinesia (primary ciliary dyskinesia)
Immunodeficiency 
Lobar pneumonia 
Aspergillosis
TB
Extrinsic compression (Lymph nodes)
77
Q

What syndrome presents with chronic sinusitis, situs inversus and male infertility?

A

Kartagener

78
Q

What diagnosis should be considered in an infant with recurrent wheezing that is worse with feeding ? How would you diagnose this?

A

Tracheal or esophageal compression (vascular ring, double aortic arch)
Diagnose with barium swallow

79
Q

What is the hyperinflation of one or more lobes of the lung which presents as respiratory distress or airway obstruction in newborns?

A

Congenital lobar emphysema

80
Q

What is the malformation of dysplastic lung tissue that presents as recurrent pneumonia ?

A

Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation

81
Q

What incidental finding presents with consistent airway compression ?

A

Bronchogenic cysts

82
Q

What is the name of lung tissue that is supplies by systemic instead of pulmonary arterial supply?

A

Pulmonary sequestration

83
Q

What is the appropriate treatment for a patient with positive PPD but negative chest X-ray for TB?

A

Isoniazid x 9 months

84
Q

What diagnosis should you consider in a patient with low grade fever an cough for one month and a cxr that shows hilar adenopathy?
How would you treat?

A

TB -
2months rifampin, INH and pyrazinamide followed by 4 months of INH and rifampin OR
9 months INH and rifampin

85
Q

What are 4 presentations of extrapulmonary TB?

A

Meningitis
Adenitis
Pleuritis
Disseminated (miliary)

86
Q

How is TB meningitis treated differently than regular pulmonary TB?

A

Add streptomycin and steroids

87
Q

What is the appropriate initial step in a patient with flail chest after chest wall trauma?

A

Intubation and pain management

88
Q

What is the most important procedure to perform following blunt trauma to the chest?

A

Physical exam

89
Q

What is the cause of death in a patient with ARDS?

A

Multiorgan failure

90
Q

What is the best method of temperature control following a near drowning?

A

External rewarding of the head and neck

91
Q

What are 4 likely causes of hemoptysis in children?

A

Infection
Cystic fibrosis
Foreign body aspiration
Hemosiderosis

92
Q

What is the best course of action when presented with a patient with acute hemoptysis?

A

PH of aspirate to determine if acidic (from stomach) or alkaline (from lungs)
CBC and coags

93
Q

What are the 4 most common causes of pneumonia in the patient age 3 weeks to 3 months?

A

Chlamydia
RSV
Parainfluenza
Pertussis

94
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of pneumonia in a patient from 3 months to 4 years of age?

A

Viral
Strep pneumo
Mycoplasma

95
Q

What abx are used to treat necrotizing pneumonia?

A

Vanco or clinda

96
Q

What is the best diagnostic study to confirm the diagnosis in a patient with pneumonia that has been confirmed on chest X-ray?

A

Blood culture (sputum or nasopharyngeal culture are not the correct answer )

97
Q

What is the goal of treatment in a patient with CHF due to left to right shunting?

A

Reducing volume overload with diuretics

98
Q

When is verapamil contraindicated as treatment for CHF?

A

In a child less than 1 year old

99
Q

What is the goal of treatment in an infant with coarctation of the aorta?

A

Maintain patent PDA with prostaglandin

100
Q

What are 5 causes of cyanotic congenital heart disease ?

A
Truncus arteriosis
Transposition of great arteries
Tricuspid atresia 
Tetralogy of fallot 
Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
101
Q

What is the only cyanotic heart disease that presents in the first few hours of life?

A

Transposition of the great vessels

102
Q

What is the treatment of methemoglobinemia?

A

Methylene blue

103
Q

What is the possible diagnosis in a patient whose mother mixes the formula with well water and presents with cyanosis but no respiratory distress ?

A

Methemoglobinemia

104
Q

Why does methemoglobin cause cyanosis ?

A

Defective hemoglobin molecule can not carry oxygen to tissues

105
Q

What are 3 causes of CVA in infants ?

A

Cyanotic heart disease
Polycythemia
Iron deficiency anemia

106
Q

What is appropriate workup for a patient with blue hands and feet on a off since births in an otherwise normal baby?

A

Reassurance

107
Q

What must occur in order for total anomalous venous return to be compatible with life?

A

PFO or ASD which connects right and left atrium

108
Q

What is the pathology of total anomalous pulmonary venous return?

A

None of the 4 veins that drain blood from the lungs to the heart is attached to the left atrium therefore oxygenated blood returns to the right atrium

109
Q

What are the 4 components of tetralogy of fallot?

A

Pulmonary stenosis
Overriding aorta
VSD
RVH

110
Q

What abnormal heart sounds will be heart in a patient with total anomalous venous return?

A

Fixed split S2 and short systolic murmur

111
Q

What cxr findings are consistent with total anomalous pulmonary venous return?

A

Pulmonary congestion (due to increased venous return) and normal to small heart size

112
Q

What ABG abnormalities are consistent with total anomalous pulmonary venous return ?

A

Hypoxia

Hypercarbia

113
Q

What is the treatment for a patient who was normal until the 2nd day of life when he became cyanotic with tachypnea and normal cxr ?

A

Prostaglandin to maintain patent PDA

114
Q

What is the first line treatment for pulmonary hypertension?

A

Nitric oxide

115
Q

What are 4 factors that correlate with cognitive prognosis in patients with cyanotic heart disease ?

A

Neurological baseline before surgery
Seizures after surgery
Coexisting problems
Duration of circulatory arrest intraoperatively

116
Q

What diagnosis presents with a boot shaped heart on CXR?

A

Tetralogy of fallot

117
Q

What is the treatment of an acute TET spell ?

A

Place child in squatting position to increase PVR + morphine, phenylephrine, propranolol and IVF

118
Q

What is the pathology behind a TET spell?

A

Dehydration or anemia cause increased right to left shunting and therefore a hypercyanotic hypoxic episode

119
Q

What are the symptoms of an acute TET spell?

A

Agitated infant with absent heart murmur

120
Q

When do patients with tetralogy of fallot typically present?

A

Age 3-5 months

121
Q

What cardiac defect presents with an egg shaped heart and increased pulmonary vascularity?

A

Transposition of the great vessels

122
Q

A 10 day old newborn presents with tachypnea, thready pulses and large liver as well as EKG findings of aortic stenosis. What therapy should be started immediately?

A

Prostaglandin- this baby is in cardiogenic shock and ductus needs to be reopened

123
Q

What atypical heart sound is present in both tetralogy of fallot and transposition?

A

Single 2nd heart sound

124
Q

What are olser nodes?

A

Tender nodules on fingers and toes

125
Q

What are janeway lesions?

A

Non tender red nodules on palms and soles

126
Q

What diagnosis should you consider in a patient with generalized facial swelling, fatigue, weight loss and dusky color?

A

Superior Vena Cava syndrome

127
Q

What is persistent fetal circulation?

A

Pulmonary vascular resistance greater than systemic resistance causes right to left shunting

128
Q

What is the best test to confirm endocarditis?

A

Blood culture (not an ECHO)

129
Q

What diagnosis should you consider in a patient with two weeks of fever and lethargy as well as new murmur, petechiae and splenomegaly on physical exam?

A

Endocarditis

130
Q

What is the likely pathogenic organism in a patient with subacute bacterial endocarditis?

A

Strep viridans

131
Q

What are the 3 most common bacterial causes of acute bacterial endocarditis?

A

Strep viridans
Strep bovis
Staph aureus

132
Q

What are the 5 HACEK bacteria?

A
Haemophilus 
Actinobacillus
Cardiobacterium 
Eikenella 
Kingella
133
Q

What is the appropriate antibiotic prophylaxis against endocarditis ?

A

Amoxicillin 30-60 minutes prior to procedure

134
Q

When is antibiotic prophylaxis recommended prior to dental procedure?

A

Incompletely repaired cyanotic heart dz
Heart disease corrected w hardware within past 6 months
Defect near prosthetic cardiac device

135
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of pericarditis?

A

Staph aureus

136
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of pericarditis?

A

Viral infection

Collagen vascular disease

137
Q

What classic EKG finding is associated with pericarditis?

A

Diffuse ST elevation

138
Q

What 3 physical exam findings are associated with pericarditis ?

A

Muffled heart sounds
Pericardial friction rub
Jugular venous distention

139
Q

What is the most important study to order when pericarditis is suspected?

A

CXR

140
Q

What is the pathological cause of a pansystolic murmur best heard at the left lower sternal border?

A

VSD

141
Q

What cardiac defect is associated with maternal use of lithium ?

A

Epstein anomaly

142
Q

What cardiac defect is associated with maternal use of alcohol?

A

VSD and ASD

143
Q

What cardiac abnormality should you consider in a patient with split loud S2 and hyperdynamic precordium?

A

VSD

144
Q

What malformation is associated with bounding carotid pulses and decreased peripheral pulses?

A

Cranial bruit associated with AV malformation of the brain

145
Q

What should you do if you hear a 3rd heart sound on physical exam?

A

Sit the child up and the sound should disappear - if the sound is present while sitting up, further workup is needed

146
Q

What diagnosis should you expect in a patient with exercise intolerance and fixed split 2 heart sound on exam?

A

ASD

147
Q

What cardiac abnormality presents with systolic click and normal S2?

A

Pulmonary stenosis

148
Q

What cardiac abnormality presents with systolic click and murmur at right upper sternal border that radiates to the neck?

A

Aortic stenosis

149
Q

What activities should be avoided in a patient with Marfan syndrome and why?

A

Weight lifting and contact sports - risk for aortic enlargement and dissection

150
Q

What EKG finding would be present in coarctation of the aorta?

A

RVH

151
Q

What EKG finding would be present in a patient with aortic stenosis?

A

LVH

152
Q

When are PACs on EKG abnormal?

A

Children on digoxin or children less than 1 year old due to risk of atrial flutter

153
Q

What syndrome should you be concerned about in a patient with short PR interval and delta wave on EKG?

A

Wolff Parkinson white

154
Q

What syndrome must be ruled out in a patient who presents with sudden onset of syncope after vigorous exercise or emotional stress?

A

Prolonged QT

155
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with recurrent episodes of syncope with prolonged standing but no family hx of sudden cardiac death?

A

Neurocardiogenic syncope

156
Q

What is the first thing to do in a stable patient with HR 225?

A

12 lead EKG

157
Q

What first thing should you do with a child with HR 230 in SVT and hemodynamic instability? What if cardiac failure?

A

Vasovagal maneuvers then adenosine or cardioversion–if cardiac failure, adenosine is first line!!

158
Q

What is the risk in a patient with AV block and prolonged QRS complex?

A

Compromised blood flow to the brain causing seizure and syncope

159
Q

What medication is contraindicated in a child with WPW?

A

Digoxin

160
Q

What type of chest pain would raise suspicion for cardiac origin?

A

Radiation to neck/back/shoulders

Pain is constant, dull and pressure-like

161
Q

How many children will outgrow mild asthma ?

A

60%