Infectious disease Flashcards

1
Q

endemic disease

A

sporadic in the community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

epidemic

A

clusters of disease in an area or region with rapid spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

pandemic

A

excessive epidemic that crosses continents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are three diseases responsible for past pandemics

A
  1. smallpox
  2. typhus
  3. influenza
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the human metagenome

A

the human genome plus the DNA of the symbiotic microorganisms that live in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

why is restoring a normal microbiome important?

what is one therapy that focuses on this concept?

A

normal microflora help crowd out or actively fight some pathogenic agents

fecal transplant in the case of c diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are infectious agents?

A

transmissable cause of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

three types of microbe

A
  1. bacteria
  2. fungi
  3. unicellular eukaryotes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the three classifications of infectious agents (2 examples each)

A
  1. Eukaryotes (protists and fungi)
  2. prokaryotes (bacteria, mycoplasm)
  3. non-living (viruses, prions)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the simplest known infectious agent

A

prions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what do prions cause?

what are two diseases caused by prions

A

transmissable spongiform encephalopathy

creuztfeldt-jakob and BSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how do viruses infect a host cell?

once insde the cell what will a virus do

A

receptors on the protein coat bind to cell receptors and either inject DNA into the cell or allow for passage of the whole virus

once inside the virus will replicate its genome to produce new viral apparati and assemble new viral particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

three diseases caused by RNA viruses

A
  1. influenza
  2. HIV
  3. Polio
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

three diseases caused by DNA viruses

A
  1. Herpes
  2. Hep B
  3. Adenovirus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

four problematic viral pathogens (examples of diseases)

A
  1. Herpes (HHV)
  2. Hepatitis A/B/C etc
  3. influenza
  4. retroviruses (HIV)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are four common viruses in the herpes family

A
  1. HSV 1
  2. varicella
  3. Epstein Barr
  4. Cytomegalovirus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what three divisions make up the prokaryote category of infectious agents

A
  1. Eubacteria
  2. small bacteria with no cell wall
  3. obligate intracellular bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which type of prokaryote is most commonly a pathogen (examples)

A

eubacteria (staph, strep, e coli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is an example of a small bacteria with no cell wall

A

mycoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are two examples of obligate intracellular bacteria

A
  1. chlamydia
  2. rickettsia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

in what three ways are eubacteria classified

A
  1. gram stain
  2. general shape
  3. oxygen requirement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

three common shapes of eubacteria

A
  1. cocci
  2. bacilli
  3. spirochetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

are most pathogenic bacteria aerobic or anaerobic?

what are two examples of disease processes caused by anaerobes

A

aerobic

abcesses or necrosis from clostridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

who invented the gram stain?

what does it do

A

hans christian gram

it stains bacterial cell walls accoring to their structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
why are some bacteria gram positive and some gram negative
gram positve bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan in their cell wall that holds crystal violet dye gram negative have less peptidogylcan as well as an outer membrane that slows down dye absorption
26
three examples of pathogen gram positive cocci
1. staph aureus 2. strep pyogenes 3. entercoccus faecalis
27
three examples of gram positve pathogen bacilli
1. bacillus anthracis 2. corynebacterium diphtheriae 3. clostridium species
28
two examples of gram negative pathogens
1. neisseria gonorrhoeae 2. neisseria meningitides
29
three examples of gram negative bacilli
1. E coli 2. salmonella enterica 3. klebsiella pneumonae
30
two common origins of infection
1. comminty aquired infections 2. hospital acquired infections
31
example of a pathogenic spirochete
treponema pallidum
32
two examples of pathogenic mycobacterium
1. mycobacterium tuberculosis 2. mycobacterium leprae
33
what does an acid fast stain do
removes the outer coating of mycolic acid from mycobacterium so they can be stained
34
how is tuberculosis usually introduced? where does it intially cause symptoms
aerosol particles or ingestion of infected milk pulmonary or GI, depending on route
35
T/F advanced TB can cause symptoms all over the body
true
36
what percent of TB strains are drug resistant
10-15%
37
T/F the mortality in multi-drug resistant TB is less than untreated TB due to treatment
false, resistant TB has a similar mortality rate despite treatment
38
two types of protist pathogenic parasites
protozoans and helminths
39
three common pathogenic protozoans
1. giardia lambia 2. trichomonas vaginalis 3. plasmodium vivax
40
what protozans are vulnerable to treatment from metronidazole
1. amoebic dysentery 2. giardia dysentery 3. trichmonas
41
what are two treatments for plasmodium infections
1. chloroquine 2. artemisinins
42
four common pathogenic fungi
1. candida albicans 2. pneumocystis jirovecii 3. histoplasma capsulatum 4. cryptococcus neoformans
43
what are four general pathologies associated with fungal infections (examples)
1. skin infections 2. pulmonary infections (pneumonia) 3. CNS infections (meningitis, encephalitis) 4. systemic
44
common defintion of antibiotics
any substance that kills or inhibits the growth of other microorganisms
45
what are two other uses for antibiotics
1. cancer chemotherapy 2. immune modulators
46
four methods of antibiotic action
1. cell wall inhibitors 2. inhibition of protein synthesis 3. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis 4. inhibitors of folate biosynthesis
47
what are three antibiotics that inhibit cell wall formation
1. penicillin 2. cephalosporins 3. vancomycin
48
three antibiotic inhibitors of protein synthesis (example)
1. tetracylines (tetracyline) 2. macrolides (erythromycin) 3. aminoglycosides (gentamycin)
49
what class of antibiotic inhibits nucleic acid synthesis (example)
fluoroquinolones (cirpofloxacin)
50
what is a class of antibiotic that inhibits folate biosynthesis (example)
sulfa (sulfonamide)
51
T/F 20% of all bacteria causing hospital acquired infections are resistant to 1 or more antibiotic
false, \>70%
52
what type of infection is MRSA a common acronym for? what would be a more appropriate title?
methicillin resistant staph aureus multiple resistant staph aureus
53
statistically, why is MRSA more serious that normal staph?
1. 3x longer hosptial stay 2. 3x cost of stay 3. 5x increased mortality
54
what four ways providers and patients have encouraged antibiotic resistance
1. improper treatment 2. improper dose or duration 3. reliance on chemotherapy 4. improper utilization of cultures and sensitivities
55
how would a reliance on chemotherapy increase antibiotic resistance
relying on drugs to fight infections caused by abcesses or necrosis rather than removing the infectious material increases the length of treatment
56
three drugs that are useful to treat herpes
1. acyclovir 2. famciclovir 3. valaciclovir
57
what are two effect drugs in treating hepatitis
1. interferon 2. ribavirin
58
what are two drugs that are used to provide prophylactic treatment for the flu
1. amantadine 2. rimantadine
59
what type of drugs are zanamivir and oseltamivir? what are they used to treat
neuraminidase inbihitor antivirals influenza
60
six categories of drugs used to fight HIV
1. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors 2. nucleotide inhibitors 3. non-nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors 4. protease inhibitors 5. fusion inhibitors 6. integrase inhibitors
61
two drugs used to fight systemic anti fungal infections
1. amphotericin B 2. fluconazole
62
two drugs used to treat superficial fungal infections
1. miconazole 2. clotrimazole