Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Drug of choice for bacterial vaginosis

A

Metronidazole

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2
Q

Treatment of syphilis in pregnancy

A

Benzathine Pen G IM single dose

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3
Q

Green yellow frothy discharge
Strawberry cervix
Metronidazole 2g single dose- until after 1st trimester; treat regardless if symptomatic
Partners should be treated

A

Trichomonas

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4
Q

In trichomonas infection, breastfeeding must be withheld up to how many hours after the last dose?

A

12-24 hours

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5
Q

Most common manifestation of vulvovaginal candidiasis

A

Vulvar priritus

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6
Q

Recommended treatment for candiasis for pregnant women

A

TOPICAL azole creams

Fluconazole contraindicated

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7
Q

Drug of choice for chlamydia in pregnancy

A

Azithromucin 1g PO single dose

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8
Q

Ophthalmia neonatorum
Septic aborion
PROM
Chorioamnionitis

May be seen in what infection

A

Gonorrhea

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9
Q

Treatment for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone 250mg IM single plus treatment for chlamydia ( azith 1g PO single dose)

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10
Q

Appears after penicillin treatment of syphilis characterized by uterine contractions accompanied by late fetal heart deceleration

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

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11
Q

Can women with HSV infection breastfeed?

A

Yes as long as there are no active lesions in the breast

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12
Q

Fetal immunity begins to develop during what age of gestation?

A

9-15 weeks AOG

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13
Q

What immunoglobulin is the primary fetal response to infection?

A

IgM

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14
Q

If given varicella and MMR vaccine, how long till you can get pregnant?

A

1 month after vaccination

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15
Q

Pregnant women without history should receive varicella zoster Ig if with significant exposure to a person infected within

A

96 hours of exposure

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16
Q

Varicella zoster Ig must be given to neonates if mother has clinical evidence when?

A

5 days before and up to 2 days after delivery

17
Q

How many weeks AOG has a 90% chance of developing congenital rubella syndrome?

A

First 12 weeks

18
Q

Most common single defect in congenital rubella

A

Sensorineural deafness

19
Q

Heart defect in congenital rubella

A

PDA

20
Q

Most common perinatal infection

A

CMV

21
Q

Clostridium infection due to this species can cause septic abortion

A

C. perfringens

22
Q

This bacterial infection can cause preterm labor, PROM and chorioamnionitis

A

Group B strep

23
Q

Universal vaginal and rectal GBS screening culture is done at

A

35-37 weeks

24
Q

Intrapartum Antimicrobial prophylaxis for GBS

A

Pen G

25
Q
Amniotic fluid brownish in color
Stillbirth
Disseminated granulomatous lesions
Chorioamnionitis
Macroabscess in placenta
A

Listeriosis

26
Q

Treatment for listeria monocytogenes

A

Ampicillin gentamicin

Prevention of food borne transmission

27
Q

Raw undercooked meat
Cat feces with oocysts
Endemic in PH

A

Toxoplasmosis

28
Q

Toxoplasmosis triad

A

Chorioretinitis
Intracranial calcifications
Hydrocephalus

29
Q

This drug prevents congenital infection of toxoplasmosis

A

Spiramycin

30
Q

This drug for toxoplasmosis eradicates parasites in placenta and fetus
Given after 18 weeks or suspected fetal infection

A

Pyrimethamine, sulfonamides and folinic acid

31
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of malaria

A

Blood smear

32
Q

Contraindicated for malaria in pregnancy

A

Primaquine and doxycycline

33
Q

Drug of choice for amebiasis in pregnancy

A

Metronidazole

34
Q

Metronidazole targets what stage of the amoeba

A

Trophozoite stage

35
Q

If with exposure to Zika, delaying conception should be done for how many weeks?

A

Women- 8 weeks

Men- 6 months